Medicine
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Medicine is the science and practice of diagnosing, treating, and preventing disease and injury in humans. This course covers the foundational knowledge of human biology, physiology, and pathology, as well as the principles of clinical practice. Students will explore subjects such as anatomy, pharmacology, microbiology, and medical ethics, gaining an understanding of how to assess patients, interpret diagnostic results, and develop treatment plans. Emphasis is also placed on communication skills, professionalism, and the integration of scientific research into evidence-based healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1096
Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21573
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acne preparations cannot be purchased as an over-the-counter preparation?
A) An isotretinoin preparation.
B) A sulphur preparation.
C) A resorcinol preparation.
D) A benzoyl peroxide preparation.
Answer: A
Q2) The generic name of a medication is:
A) the name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) the name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) the chemical name of the medication.
D) the shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q3) Observing the physiological effects of a drug in vivo involves:
A) organs and tissues that are removed from the body.
B) the whole organism.
C) IVF therapy.
D) trials on animal subjects.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health professionals are being permitted to prescribe and administer local anaesthetics, topical preparations (such as antiseptic lotions and antifungal creams) and antibiotics in their work involving prevention, diagnosis and treatment of foot disorders?
A) Nurse
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Answer: D
Q2) In Victoria, midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a doctor's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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4
Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What agent is used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid analgesic?
A) Pentazocine.
B) Naloxone.
C) Methadone.
D) Naltrexone.
Answer: B
Q2) Sublingual administration of a drug always ensures:
A) rapid action.
B) avoidance of hepatic first pass.
C) minimal adverse effects.
D) all of the above.
Answer: B
Q3) Drugs administered transdermally must be:
A) lipophilic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophobic.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subacute toxicity tests are characterised by:
A) repeated drug doses over a period of days to reveal tissue targets for damage.
B) tissue targets for damage associated with high single drug doses.
C) repeated drug doses for a period of months in order to assess the toxic dose ranges.
D) the effects of the drug on fertility, implantation and the developing human.
Q2) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria, sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q3) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antivenoms:
A) are made from the blood of humans that have been bitten by poisonous animals.
B) stimulate antibody formation in the affected person.
C) commonly cause allergic reactions in clients who receive treatment.
D) used for snakebite can be used in cases of envenomation by poisonous spiders.
Q2) Decontamination of an ingested substance is considered if less than ________ has elapsed since the poisoning occurred.
A) 10 hours.
B) 5 hours.
C) 4 hours.
D) 2 hours.
Q3) Probenecid has been banned for use in elite sport as it can:
A) increase the effectiveness of antibiotics giving athletes an unfair advantage.
B) inhibit the tubular secretion of some banned substances, therefore reducing the levels of the substance that is measurable in urine.
C) act as a stimulant.
D) increase the rate of repair for muscle cells therefore accelerating recovery times after injury.
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7
Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor in the ward setting, which of the following drugs should be kept on hand to reverse the effects of any decrease in pulse?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation.
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Atropine.
Q2) Receptors that respond to noradrenaline are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) noradrenergic.
Q3) Which one of the following statements best describes the actions of the ephedrines?
A) These drugs directly activate adrenergic receptor populations.
B) These drugs are pro-drugs of adrenaline.
C) These drugs trigger the release of presynaptic stores of noradrenaline.
D) These drugs work by a mixed action of releasing noradrenaline and direct agonist activity.
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8
Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) H<sub>1</sub> antihistamines are useful in the management of:
A) peptic ulcers.
B) travel sickness.
C) moderately severe pain.
D) clotting disorders.
Q2) The general actions of prostaglandins include the following except:
A) inhibition of gastric secretion.
B) stimulation of pancreatic and small intestinal secretions.
C) sensitisation of nerve endings, causing pain.
D) inhibition of release of anterior pituitary hormones .
Q3) The following is true of prostaglandins:
A) any prostaglandins that escape into circulation will be destroyed.
B) they act where they are produced, in that they are called a 'local hormone'.
C) they have a very short half-life.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Generally when used as drugs, amino acid-based chemical mediators:
A) tend to be a fixed size of about 10-15 residues long.
B) can be administered orally.
C) only influence vascular function.
D) have short half-lives.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent, therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine.
B) Pericyazine.
C) Chlorpromazine.
D) Pipothiazine.
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does metoclopramide assist in the treatment of an acute migraine?
A) It decreases the incidence of nausea and vomiting.
B) It increases the absorption of ergotamine.
C) It decreases the rate at which ergotamine is excreted.
D) It inhibits the isoenzyme of the cytochrome P450 system that metabolises ergotamine.
Q2) The reason that methadone is used to help wean people off heroin is that:
A) methadone has a longer half-life, which contributes to weaker withdrawal symptoms.
B) methadone is administered orally, reducing syringe use.
C) methadone binds to opioid receptors leaving few receptors available for a heroin 'high'.
D) all of the above.
Q3) When administering tramadol, it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment with iron supplementation is usually continued for about ________ to ensure replenishment of iron stores in iron deficiency anaemia.
A) two weeks
B) one month
C) two months
D) three months
Q2) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q3) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of sodium bicarbonate alone as an antacid should be discouraged because:
A) it can exacerbate pre-existing hypertension.
B) it can lead to rebound acidosis.
C) it can lead to the development of kidney stones.
D) it can inactivate antimicrobial agents.
Q2) Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:
A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.
Q3) Which of the following antiemetic agents may cause extrapyramidal side effects?
A) Prochlorperazine.
B) Domperidone.
C) Ondansetron.
D) Dolasetron.
Q4) Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals.
B) Green vegetables.
C) Strawberries.
D) Cow's milk.
Q2) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptor on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should iron preparations be consumed to facilitate maximal absorption?
A) On an empty stomach.
B) With food.
C) With milk.
D) At bedtime.
Q2) Thiamine deficiency may occur in any of the following conditions except:
A) infants under the age of two.
B) alcoholism.
C) cirrhosis.
D) gastrointestinal disease.
Q3) Ginkgo may help in improving the:
A) immune system.
B) circulation or blood flow to certain organs.
C) reproductive system.
D) excretory system.
Q4) At what rate are enteral feeds usually commenced?
A) 100mL per hour.
B) 30 mL per hour.
C) 10 mL per hour.
D) 60 mL per hour.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
A) The glycoprotein, vancomycin.
B) The glycoprotein, teicoplanin.
C) The penicillin, amoxycillin.
D) The aminoglycoside, gentamicin.
Q2) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis, supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
Q3) Which of the following is not a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption.
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime.
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a part of the vascular tunic?
A) The sclera.
B) The iris.
C) The central fovea.
D) The extrinsic muscles.
Q2) Which of the following is a drug group that is used in the treatment of glaucoma that decreases aqueous humour production?
A) Prostamides.
B) Prostaglandins.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) -blockers.
Q3) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
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