Course Introduction
Medication Safety Exam
Answer Key
Medication Safety focuses on the principles and practices essential for ensuring the safe use of medications in various healthcare settings. The course covers topics such as medication error prevention, reporting and analysis, safe medication administration processes, the role of healthcare professionals in promoting safety, and strategies to improve patient outcomes. Students will also explore regulatory guidelines, risk management, and the use of technology in minimizing medication-related errors, preparing them to contribute effectively to safer medication practices in their future careers.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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28 Chapters
895 Verified Questions
895 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1455
Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Medicine and Pharmacy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28842
Sample Questions
Q1) In the 1700s in early North America, who prepared remedies to cure the new immigrant patients?
A)Apothecary
B)Medicine man
C)Physician
D)Pharmacist
Answer: C
Q2) The benefits of certification for pharmacy technicians include:
A)Increased standard of education
B)Increased salary
C)Increased trust by pharmacists
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which ancient physician was known as a proponent of diet, exercise, rest, and lifestyle changes to improve health?
A)Hippocrates
B)Galen
C)Asclepius
D)Salk
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacy Law, Ethics, and Regulatory Agencies
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many years does the pharmacy need to retain invoices for scheduled drug purchases?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)7
Answer: B
Q2) Which pregnancy category has the highest risk of teratogenicity?
A)X
B)B
C)C
D)D
Answer: A
Q3) Which set(s) of numbers in the NDC code is(are) assigned by the drug company?
A)First set (labeler code)
B)Second set (product code)
C)Third set (package code)
D)B and C
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Competencies, Associations, and Settings for Technicians
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point can a pharmacy technician use the initials CPhT after his or her name?
A)After passing the state board
B)After registering with the state
C)After passing the national certification examination
D)A or C
Answer: C
Q2) Today's technicians are the first generation of pharmacy technicians who are considered to be:
A)Paraprofessionals
B)Educated
C)Professionals
D)None of the above
Answer: C
Q3) The measure of professionalism includes:
A)Attitude
B)Level of competence
C)Interpersonal skills
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Communication and Role of the Technician
With the Customerpatient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which stage is normally first when patients discover they are terminally ill?
A)Acceptance
B)Anger
C)Bargaining
D)Denial
Q2) Which of the following pertain to spoken communication?
A)Vocal
B)Verbal
C)Gestures
D)A and B
Q3) Articulation means:
A)Speaking slowly
B)Speaking clearly, and avoiding slang
C)Speaking loudly
D)Maintaining eye contact while communicating
Q4) Which of the following negatively impacts written communication?
A)Illegible handwriting
B)Grammatical errors
C)Typographical errors
D)All of the above
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Chapter 5: Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Powders have the advantage(s) of:
A)Covering a large area
B)Decreasing moisture
C)Easing of application
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration have 100% bioavailability?
A)Intramuscular (IM)
B)IV
C)SUBCUT
D)B and C
Q3) Half-life refers to the time is takes the:
A)Body to break down and excrete one half of the medication
B)Body to absorb one half of the dose
C)Plasma concentration of the medication to decrease by 50%
D)A and C
Q4) SSRI means:
A)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
B)Sliding scale regular insulin
C)Selective serotonin regulation injection
D)A and B
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Chapter 6: Conversions and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the percent strength of a 1:10,000 solution?
A)0.01%
B)0.1%
C)1%
D)10%
Q2) When measuring volume using the metric system, a pharmacy technician will use:
A)mL
B)L
C)Fluid ounces
D)A and B
Q3) One fluid dram is often approximated to equal:
A)1 tsp
B)15 mL
C)1 Tbsp
D)A and B
Q4) How many milliliters of U-100 insulin should be administered for a 45-unit dose?
A)0.23
B)0.45
C)2.3
D)4.5
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Chapter 7: Drug Information References
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Drug Index contains listings for more than 22,000:
A)Prescription medications
B)OTC medications
C)Parenteral medications
D)A and B
Q2) A drug monograph or official label should include all of the following except:
A)Classification
B)Indication and contraindications
C)Chemical and generic names
D)Cost
Q3) Which reference book is a comprehensive listing of medication bioequivalence?
A)Drug Facts and Comparisons
B)Red Book
C)American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information
D)Orange Book
Q4) NDC stands for:
A)Normal Drug Classification
B)Natural Drug Classification
C)National Drug Code
D)National Drug Classification
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Chapter 8: Community Pharmacy Practice
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the technician do if a regular customer brings in a new prescription for a blood pressure medication that was written a month earlier?
A)Ask if the customer has been using samples from the physician.
B)Alert the pharmacist about the time discrepancy.
C)Refuse to fill the prescription because the order is too old.
D)A and B
Q2) The second set of numbers in the National Drug Code (NDC) number identifies:
A)Drug manufacturer
B)Specific product information
C)Drug packaging
D)All of the above
Q3) A pharmacy such as the Medicine Shoppe that pays a fee to use the established trade name is called a(n):
A)Sole proprietorship
B)Franchise
C)Chain pharmacy
D)Independent pharmacy
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Chapter 9: Institutional Pharmacy Practice
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important benefit of using the eMAR system is:
A)Less paperwork
B)Less time spent with the patient
C)Less money
D)Overall improved communication benefitting patient care
Q2) Which one of the following is not a benefit of using an automated dispensing system (ADS)?
A)Decreases errors.
B)Saves money.
C)Decreases patient wait time.
D)Simplifies inventory control.
Q3) The aseptic technique is a(n):
A)Method to prevent contamination
B)Important preparation for all intravenous (IV) medications
C)Delivery system for medication orders
D)A and B
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11
Chapter 10: Additional Pharmacy Practice Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of a pharmaceutical sales representative position?
A)The annual pay is approximately $20,000 more than traditional technician jobs.
B)One must possess exceptional communication skills.
C)National certification is required.
D)Associate or bachelor's degree is required.
Q2) A technician who does the purchasing for the department may be called the:
A)Pharmacy procurement specialist
B)Pharmacy purchasing agent
C)Pharmacy buyer
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following advanced practice positions involve(s) communication with patients?
A)Pharmacy purchasing agent
B)Medication reconciliation technician
C)Managed care pharmacy technician
D)B and C
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Chapter 11: Bulk Repackaging and Non-Sterile Compounding
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organization sets the standards for a nonsterile compounding area?
A)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
B)American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
C)United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
D)Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
Q2) Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning beyond-use dating of compounded nonsterile products?
A)The BUD of the final compound cannot exceed the expiration date of any of the separate components.
B)No nonsterile compounded product can be assigned a BUD longer than 6 months unless documented in the literature.
C)A topical formulation containing water has a 30-day maximum BUD unless documented in the literature.
D)All of the above statements are true.
Q3) All of the following are used for mixing compounds except:
A)Mortars and pestles
B)Spatulas
C)Cylindrical graduated cylinders
D)Ointment slabs
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Aseptic Technique and Sterile Compounding
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the statement is not true regarding sharps containers?
A)They are always located inside the hood.
B)They are required for the disposal of needles and syringes.
C)They should be replaced when two-thirds full.
D)They must be picked up or delivered to an approved red bag or medical waste treatment site.
Q2) In which of the following setting(s) is(are) pharmacy technicians likely to prepare CSPs?
A)Home health services
B)Long-term care
C)Hospitals
D)All of the above
Q3) The official updates to USP <797> that took effect on June 1, 2008, include all of the following except:
A)Revised risk categories for CSPs
B)Addition of a new low-risk, 12-hour beyond-use date (BUD) category
C)Guidelines about the use of single-dose and multi-dose vials
D)Guidelines about reconstituting oral antibiotics
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Chapter 13: Pharmacy Billing and Inventory Management
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a true statement about PPOs?
A)The copay is usually lower for an office visit than with an HMO.
B)PPOs may have an annual deductible.
C)PPOs do not require a PCP.
D)The patient may have to pay full price for the prescription and then send in the receipt for later reimbursement.
Q2) PPO means:
A)Preferred provider option
B)Preferred provider organization
C)Preferred physician option
D)Preferred physician organization
Q3) Which one of the following is not a valid reason to return a medication to the warehouse or manufacturer for credit?
A)Drug was recalled
B)Drug expired
C)Drug was incorrectly reconstituted
D)Drug was damaged during delivery
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Chapter 14: Medication Safety and Error Prevention
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) PTEC is the:
A)Pharmacy Trainer Education Council
B)Pharmacy Teacher Educator Council
C)Pharmacy Technician Educator's Council
D)Pharmacy Trainer's Education Committee
Q2) Which one of the MERP error categories includes errors that contribute to the death of a patient?
A)A
B)C
C)I
D)J
Q3) Which one of the reasons below is not related to errors?
A)Look-alike, sound-alike drugs
B)Stress and noise levels
C)Orders arriving from different sources
D)Multitasking
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16
Chapter 15: Therapeutic Agents for the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The generic medication temazepam for insomnia is marketed under the brand name:
A)Ambien
B)Lunesta
C)Prozac
D)Restoril
Q2) What are the two primary divisions of the nervous system?
A)CNS and PNS
B)SNS and PSNS
C)Afferent and efferent
D)Brain and spinal cord
Q3) Methylphenidate for the treatment of ADHD is available in a variety of dosage forms including:
A)Capsules and tablets
B)Oral solution
C)Transdermal patch
D)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Therapeutic Agents for the Endocrine System
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones are produced in the adrenal cortex?
A)Glucocorticoids
B)Mineralocorticoids
C)Sex hormones
D)All of the above
Q2) Catecholamines produced in adrenal glands:
A)Help the body respond to stress.
B)Increase the heart rate.
C)Include epinephrine and norepinephrine.
D)Perform all of the above.
Q3) Hypokalemia means:
A)Low potassium
B)Low vitamin K
C)Low calcium
D)High potassium
Q4) Which one of the following is primarily considered a mineralocorticoid?
A)Methylprednisolone
B)Hydrocortisone
C)Prednisone
D)Fludrocortisone acetate
18
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Chapter 17: Therapeutic Agents for the Musculoskeletal System
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid analgesics require the following auxiliary label(s):
A)May cause dizziness or drowsiness.
B)Avoid alcohol.
C)"Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed."
D)All of the above auxiliary labels are required for opioid analgesic medications.
Q2) Osteoarthritis is considered to be a(an):
A)Autoimmune disease
B)Degenerative joint disease
C)Musculoskeletal disease
D)A and B
Q3) Baclofen (Lioresal) belongs to what classification of medication?
A)Skeletal muscle relaxants
B)NSAIDs
C)Osteoporosis agents
D)Analgesics
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19
Chapter 18: Therapeutic Agents for the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a form of angina?
A)Variant
B)Respiratory
C)Classic
D)Unstable
Q2) A myocardial infarction (MI) is also known as:
A)High blood pressure
B)Elevated heart rate
C)Gas caught in the heart chambers
D)Heart attack
Q3) The initial drug treatment for hypertension is typically a(n):
A)Thiazide diuretic
B)Beta-blocker
C)ACE inhibitor
D)ARB
Q4) Which one of the following drugs is commonly prescribed for heart failure (HF)?
A)Lanoxin
B)Lipitor
C)Zebeta
D)aspirin
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Chapter 19: Therapeutic Agents for the Respiratory System
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functions of the respiratory system include all except:
A)Maintaining blood pH balance
B)Oxygenating the blood
C)Removing carbon dioxide
D)Removing excess sodium
Q2) Which of the following medications is classified as a schedule C-V controlled substance?
A)Spiriva
B)Phenergan with codeine
C)Delsym
D)Benadryl
Q3) Bacterial pneumonia may be orally treated by:
A)Azithromycin, 500 mg on day 1, followed by 250 mg once daily on days 2 through 5
B)Levofloxacin, 750 mg daily for 5 days
C)Levofloxacin, 500 mg daily for 7 through 14 days
D)All of the above
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Chapter 20: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Auxiliary organs of the digestive system include all except the:
A)Pancreas
B)Liver
C)Gallbladder
D)Appendix
Q2) H. pylori is usually treated with:
A)Antibiotics and PPIs
B)Antibiotics alone
C)Antacids
D)PPIs alone
Q3) All of the following are functions of the GI system except:
A)Absorption
B)Digestion
C)Distribution
D)Excretion
Q4) Peristalsis occurs in the:
A)Esophagus alone
B)Esophagus and stomach
C)Stomach and small intestines
D)Esophagus, stomach, and intestines
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Chapter 21: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are involved in the synthesis of all of the following except:
A)Renin
B)Erythropoietin
C)Vitamin D
D)Vitamin K
Q2) Cations include ______________, and anions include ______________.
A)Positively charged ions; negatively charged ions
B)Negatively charged ions; positively charged ions
C)Sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+); and chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)
D)A and C
Q3) Acidosis is a condition in which:
A)Too many free hydrogen ions (H+) are present in the blood
B)Retention of HCO3- is present.
C)The loss of H+ is excessive.
D)All of the above are present.
Q4) A side effect common to all diuretic medications is:
A)Hypertension
B)Urinary frequency
C)Hypokalemia
D)Hyperkalemia
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estrogen is taken by women to:
A)Relieve symptoms of menopause.
B)Increase the possibility of conception.
C)Treat hypogonadism.
D)All of the above are reasons women take estrogen.
Q2) Which of the following can lead to ED?
A)Substance abuse (e.g., alcohol, cocaine, marijuana) and medication side effects
B)Low testosterone levels
C)Prostatitis
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is(are) the primary oral estrogen products in use?
A)Conjugated estrogens
B)Estradiol
C)Esterified estrogens
D)A and B
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24
Chapter 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Immune System
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tetanus toxoid:
A)Is an active bacterial toxin.
B)Is not necessary for those older than 18 years of age.
C)Requires a booster every 10 years.
D)A and B
Q2) Most vaccines require:
A)Refrigeration between 2° and 8° C
B)Freezing
C)Careful temperature monitoring during shipping and storage
D)A and C
Q3) DMARDs are:
A)Disease-modifying antiinflammatory drugs
B)Disease-modifying action drugs
C)Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
D)Disease-modifying aggravating drugs
Q4) Chronic inflammation can:
A)Occur locally or systemically.
B)Lead to the development of scar tissue.
C)Alter an organ's ability to function optimally.
D)All of the above are characteristics of chronic inflammation.
25
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Chapter 24: Therapeutic Agents for the Eyes, Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Ophthalmic products can only be used for the eye.
B)Ophthalmic products can be used for both the eye and the ear.
C)Otic products can be used for both the eye and the ear.
D)None of the above statements are true.
Q2) The generic name for Tobrex is:
A)Gentamycin
B)Tobramycin
C)Timolol
D)Trifluridine
Q3) The auxiliary label needed on all antibiotics used for the treatment of strep throat is:
A)Take with food.
B)Shake well.
C)Take until gone.
D)Take at the same time every day.
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Chapter 25: Therapeutic Agents for the Dermatologic System
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Q1) Treatment of eczema may include:
A)Topical corticosteroids
B)Topical and oral calcineurin inhibitors
C)Immunosuppressants
D)All of the above
Q2) If a customer complains of head lice, then he or she can be advised to:
A)Visit a physician to be given a prescription.
B)Wash his or her hair in really hot water with a regular shampoo.
C)Talk to a pharmacist about one of the OTC treatments.
D)Use diphenhydramine for the itching.
Q3) Which auxiliary label(s) is(are) needed on a prescription for tetracycline for acne?
A)Do not take with dairy products.
B)Do not take within 4 hours of antacids or iron products.
C)Avoid sunlight.
D)All of the above auxiliary labels are needed.
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Chapter 26: Therapeutic Agents for the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What element is necessary for the production of hemoglobin?
A)Sodium
B)Potassium
C)Iron
D)Zinc
Q2) DDAVP increases plasma factor VIII and von Willebrand factor and is used to treat:
A)von Willebrand disease
B)Hemophilia A
C)Surgical bleeding
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are) true of filgrastim (Neupogen)?
A)Filgrastim is administered orally.
B)It should not be shaken before administering.
C)Filgrastim is used to treat neutropenia.
D)B and C are true statements.
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28
Chapter 27: Over-The Counter OTC Medications
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Q1) What is the term for a food or a naturally occurring supplement thought to have a beneficial effect on human health?
A)Organic
B)Naturemed
C)Nutraceutical
D)Natural
Q2) Which of the following is(are) at a greater risk of medication errors with OTC products?
A)Young children
B)Older adults
C)Infants
D)All of the above
Q3) The only time a patient receiving Medicaid benefits is counseled about an over-the-counter (OTC) purchase is when:
A)He or she checks out at a register.
B)A physician writes a prescription for an OTC drug.
C)The patient requests counseling before purchasing.
D)Both B and C occurs.
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Chapter 28: Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Cam
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Sample Questions
Q1) Echinacea is known by all of the following names except:
A)Sampson root
B)Narrow-leafed purple coneflower
C)Red sunflower
D)Soy
Q2) What is the difference between complementary medicine and alternative medicine?
A)They involve completely different treatments.
B)They have different origins.
C)Complementary medicine is used in addition to conventional medicine, whereas alternative medicine is used in place of conventional medicine.
D)Both A and C are true.
Q3) Therapy based on the specific belief that dilutions of medicinal substances that cause a specific symptom can be used to treat an illness that produces the same symptoms is called:
A)Homeopathic medicine
B)Ayurveda
C)Chiropractic medicine
D)Complementary medicine
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