Medication Safety and Administration Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of safe medication practices and effective administration techniques essential in healthcare settings. Emphasizing the principles of medication safety, students will learn about accurate dosage calculations, proper documentation, routes of administration, prevention of medication errors, and the legal and ethical considerations involved in drug delivery. The course integrates case studies and practical exercises to develop proficiency in identifying potential risks, adhering to industry standards, and promoting a culture of safety in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 2nd Canadian Edition by Linda Lane Lilley
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59 Chapters
683 Verified Questions
683 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1825
Page 2
Chapter 1: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36263
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is considering the timing of a drug dose,which of the following factors is most important to assess?
A)The patient's identification
B)The patient's weight
C)The patient's last meal
D)Any drug or food allergies
Answer: C
Q2) Place the phases of the nursing process in the correct order,using 1 as the first phase and 5 as the last phase.
A)Planning
B)Evaluation
C) Assessment
D)Implementation
E)Diagnosing
Answer: C,E,A,D,B
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacological Principles
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36264
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin.Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding placement of the tablet?
A)Under the tongue
B)In the space between the cheek and the gum inside the mouth
C)At the back of the throat for easy swallowing
D)On a non-hairy area on the chest
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is receiving two different drugs,which,at their current dose forms and dosages,are both absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts.Which of the following terms best describes that the drugs have the same absorption rates?
A)Equivalent
B)Synergistic
C)Compatible
D)Bioequivalent
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Considerations for Special Populations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36265
Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing an 82-year-old woman,the nurse determines that she is experiencing polypharmacy.What is this experience most likely to indicate?
A)She has a lower risk of drug interactions.
B)She takes medications for one illness several times a day.
C)She risks problems only if she also takes over-the-counter medications.
D)She takes multiple medications for several different illnesses.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding older adults? Select all that apply.
A)The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.
B)Fat content is increased because of decreased lean body mass.
C)Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body mass.
D)The number of intact nephrons is increased.
E)The number of intact nephrons is decreased.
F)Gastric pH is less acidic.
G)Gastric pH is more acidic.
Answer: A,B,E,F
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Chapter 4: Ethnocultural, legal, and Ethical Considerations
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36266
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a prescription for a drug that is classified as Schedule F.What important information should the nurse tell this patient about obtaining refills for this medication?
A)No prescription refills are permitted.
B)Refills may be obtained via telephone order.
C)Refills cannot exceed a 6-month period.
D)The patient may have no more than six refills in a 12-month period.
Q2) Which of the following factors contributes to drug polymorphism?
A)The number of drugs ordered by the physician
B)The patient's drug history
C)The patient's diet and nutritional status
D)Different dosage forms of the same drug
Q3) A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose participation will help determine the optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug.What type of study is the team member is participating in?
A)Phase 1
B)Phase 2
C)Phase 3
D)Phase 4
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Medication Errors
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36267
Sample Questions
Q1) Health care professionals should report actual and potential medication errors to which of the following organizations?
A)Institute for Safe Medications Practices (ISMP)Canada
B)Accreditation Canada
C)Canadian Patient Safety Institute (CPSI)
D)Health Canada
Q2) Which of the following is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered?
A)digoxin .125 mg
B)digoxin .1250 mg
C)digoxin 0.125 mg
D)digoxin 0.1250 mg
Q3) When the nurse is giving a scheduled morning medication,the patient states,"I haven't seen that pill before.Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and sees that it is listed.Which of the following is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)"It's listed here on the medication sheet,so you should take it."
B)"Go ahead and take it and then I'll check with your doctor about it."
C)"It wouldn't be listed here if it wasn't ordered for you!"
D)"I'll check on the order first,before you take it."
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36268
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for the patient who has just received a prescription for a new medication?
A)Nonadherence related to a new drug therapy
B)High risk for nonadherence related to new drug therapy
C)Knowledge deficit related to newly prescribed drug therapy
D)Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy
Q2) Which of the following are appropriate considerations when the nurse is assessing the learning needs of a patient? Select all that apply.
A)Cultural background
B)Social support
C)Level of education
D)Readiness to learn
E)Health beliefs
Q3) Which of the following statements reflects a measurable goal?
A)The patient will know about insulin injections.
B)The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
C)The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
D)The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Natural Health Products
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36269
Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching patients about over-the-counter (OTC)and natural health products,the nurse should teach which of the following?
A)Histamine-blocking agents should be taken with antacids to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
B)Drug interactions are rare with OTC products because OTC drugs are safer than prescription drugs.
C)Manufacturers of natural health products are required to provide evidence of safety and effectiveness; therefore, check the labels carefully.
D)Natural health products and OTC drugs cannot be safely administered to infants,children,and pregnant or lactating women without first checking with the health care provider.
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she wants to begin taking St.John's wort for treatment of depression.The nurse should warn her about which of the following substances that may cause an interaction with St.John's wort?
A)digoxin (Lanoxin),diuretics,and steroids
B)All caffeine-containing products
C)Alcoholic beverages
D)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
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Chapter 8: Vitamins and Minerals
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36270
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to hospital for severe weakness and malnutrition.Which preparation will he receive to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Thiamine (vitamin B )
C)Riboflavin (vitamin B )
D)Pyridoxine (vitamin B )
Q2) Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient undergoing therapy with vitamin A?
A)Risk for impaired skin integrity related to vitamin deficiency
B)Disturbed sensory perception (visual)related to night blindness
C)Impaired physical mobility (muscle weakness) related to vitamin deficiency
D)Disturbed thought processes (confusion and psychosis)related to vitamin deficiency
Q3) Which preparation is given to newborns within 1 hour of delivery?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Calciferol (vitamin D)
C)Aquasol A (vitamin A)
D)AquaMEPHYTON (vitamin K)
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Chapter 9: Problematic Substance Use
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36271
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in a rehabilitation centre is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.What would you expect to be ordered for her treatment?
A)diazepam (Valium)
B)methadone
C)disulfiram (Antabuse) protocol
D)Antidepressant therapy
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding drugs used in cigarette smoking cessation programs?
A)Slow chewing of the nicotine gum releases an immediate dose of nicotine.
B)Acute relief from withdrawal symptoms is most easily achieved with the use of the transdermal patch.
C)Patient adherence is higher with the transdermal patch than with the nicotine gum.
D)The nicotine gum can be used only up to six times a day.
Q3) Chronic use of alcohol may result in which of the following?
A)Renal failure
B)Stroke
C)Korsakoff's psychosis
D)Alzheimer's disease
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Chapter 10: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36272
Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique should the nurse use to facilitate the administration of a rectal suppository?
A)Having the patient lie on his or her right side unless contraindicated
B)Having the patient hold his or her breath during insertion of the medication
C)Lubricating the suppository with a small amount of petroleum-based lubricant
D)Encouraging the patient to lie on his or her left side for 15 to 20 minutes after insertion
Q2) The patient states that he prefers to chew rather than swallow his pills.One pill has the abbreviation "SR" after the name of the medication.Which of the following instructions should be followed when giving this medication?
A)Break the tablet into halves or quarters.
B)Dissolve the tablet in a small amount of water before giving it.
C)The tablet should not be crushed or broken before administration.
D)Use a mortar and pestle to crush the tablet as needed to ease administration if needed.
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12
Chapter 11: Analgesic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36273
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving an anticonvulsant,but has no history of seizures.Which of the following is the likely reason the patient is receiving this drug?
A)Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy
B)Inflammation pain
C)Depression associated with chronic pain
D)Prevention of possible seizures
Q2) For which of the following is the herb feverfew commonly used?
A)Muscle aches
B)Headaches
C)Leg cramps
D)Incisional pain after surgery
Q3) A patient has been treated for 3 years for lung cancer.Over the past few months,she has noticed that the opioid analgesic she has been taking is not helping as much and says she needs to take more medication for the same pain relief.Which of the following is this patient experiencing?
A)Opioid toxicity
B)Addiction
C)Opioid tolerance
D)Abstinence syndrome
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Chapter 12: General and Local Anaesthetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36274
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following symptoms may occur if a patient is taking ginger and requires an anaesthetic?
A)Decreased blood pressure
B)Increased risk of bleeding
C)Increased risk of stroke
D)Migraine headaches
Q2) Occurs second
A)Cessation of respirations due to paralysis of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
B)Total flaccid paralysis
C)Weakness
Q3) A patient is being prepared for an oral endoscopy,and the nurse reminds him that he will be awake during the procedure but probably will not remember it.What type of anaesthetic technique is used in this situation?
A)Twilight sleep
B)Moderate sedation
C)Adjunctive anaesthesia
D)Spinal anaesthesia
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36275
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best treatment of an acute overdose of secobarbital (Seconal)?
A)Infusion with diluted bicarbonate solution
B)Giving medications to decrease blood pressure
C)Maintaining the airway and supporting respirations
D)Administration of nalbuphine (Nubain)as an antagonist
Q2) A patient is recovering from a minor automobile accident that occurred 1 week ago.He is taking cyclobenzaprine (Novo-Cycloprine)for muscular pain and goes to physical therapy three times a week.Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for him?
A)Risk for falls related to decreased sensorium
B)Risk for addiction related to psychological dependency
C)Excess fluid volume related to potential adverse effects
D)Disturbed sleep pattern related to the drug's interference with rapid eye movement (REM)sleep
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36276
Sample Questions
Q1) When administering phenytoin (Dilantin)intravenously,which of the following must the nurse remember?
A)Normal saline is the only solution to be used with phenytoin.
B)Intravenous (IV)doses must be given rapidly to raise blood levels quickly.
C)The patient should be monitored closely for tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D)Phenytoin can be combined with other solutions without fear of precipitate formation.
Q2) A patient has a 9-year history of a seizure disorder that has been managed well with phenytoin therapy.He is to receive nothing by mouth (NPO)because he has surgery in the morning.What should the nurse do about his morning dose of phenytoin?
A)Give the same dose intravenously
B)Give the morning dose with a small sip of water
C)Contact the physician for another dosage form of the medication
D)Notify the operating room that the medication has been withheld
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16
Chapter 15: Antiparkinsonian Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36277
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of amantadine (Symmetrel)therapy?
A)It increases the production of dopamine in the basal ganglia.
B)It works by eliciting the release of dopamine from nerve endings.
C)It is most effective in the later stages of Parkinson's disease.
D)It is considered a long-term therapy for Parkinson's disease.
Q2) When assessing the past medication history of a patient with a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease,which of the following is a concern for the patient who will be taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet)?
A)Glaucoma
B)Seizure disorder
C)Bladder difficulties
D)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Q3) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for patients taking anticholinergic drugs?
A)Diarrhea
B)Urinary retention
C)Risk for infection
D)Ineffective tissue perfusion
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17
Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36278
Sample Questions
Q1) Before beginning therapy with amitriptyline (Elavil),the nurse should assess for concurrent use of which of the following types of medications?
A)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
B)warfarin (Coumadin)
C)Diuretics
D)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Q2) A nurse is monitoring a depressed patient who has just started antidepressant therapy.During which time period does the patient have the highest potential for self-injury and suicide?
A)At the beginning,before drug therapy is started
B)The time period between the start of therapy and symptomatic improvement
C)Between 1 and 4 weeks of drug therapy
D)After 6 months of drug therapy
Q3) A patient with a history of anxiety attacks is given a medication for these episodes.Which medication is appropriate for this problem?
A)midazolam (Versed)
B)phenobarbital
C)bupropion (Wellbutrin)
D)buspirone (BuSpar)
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Central Nervous System Stimulant Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36279
Sample Questions
Q1) Ginkgo biloba is a natural health product that is used for treatment of which of the following conditions?
A)Improving memory
B)Appetite suppression
C)Treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
D)Appetite stimulation
Q2) Before administering sumatriptan (Imitrex)to a patient for the treatment of a migraine headache,the nurse should assess for the presence of which of the following?
A)Hypotension
B)Renal disease
C)Liver damage
D)Coronary artery disease
Q3) Which of the following conditions is an indication for a central nervous system (CNS)stimulant drug?
A)Insomnia
B)Depression
C)Appetite enhancement
D)Appetite suppression
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36280
Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenergic drugs that cause relaxation of the bronchi (bronchodilation)stimulate which type of receptors?
A)Dopaminergic receptors
B) -adrenergic receptors
C) -adrenergic receptors
D) 1-adrenergic receptors
Q2) A patient is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic.Which drug would be used to treat this condition?
A)ephedra
B)epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C)phenylephrine
D)pseudoephedrine
Q3) Adrenergic drugs produce effects similar to which of the following?
A)The central nervous system
B)The somatic nervous system
C)The sympathetic nervous system
D)The parasympathetic nervous system
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20
Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36281
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about self-monitoring while taking a -blocker at home.The nurse should teach the patient to take his apical pulse daily for 1 minute;if the pulse rate decreases to less than 60 beats per minute,the nurse instructs the patient to do which of the following?
A)Contact his physician for instructions
B)Reduce the dose of his -blocker by half
C)Continue the medication because this is an expected effect
D)Skip the medication dose that day and check his pulse again the next day
Q2) A 49-year-old male patient is in the clinic for a follow-up visit 6 months after starting a -blocker for treatment of hypertension.During this visit,his blood pressure is 169/98 mmHg,and he eventually confesses that he stopped taking this medicine 2 months ago because of an "embarrassing problem." What problem did he most likely experience with this medication that caused him to stop taking it?
A)Urge incontinence
B)Dizziness when standing up
C)Excessive flatus
D)Impotence
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36282
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has had abdominal surgery and is being discharged on a cholinergic drug to assist in increasing gastrointestinal peristalsis.Which therapeutic effects should the nurse teach the patient to watch for?
A)Decreased pulse rate
B)Abdominal cramping
C)Passage of flatus
D)Decreased frequency and urgency of voiding patterns
Q2) Pupil constriction
A)Muscarinic stimulation
B)Nicotinic stimulation
C)Both muscarinic stimulation and nicotinic stimulation
Q3) The nurse is providing teaching regarding drug therapy to the husband of a woman with Alzheimer's disease.The patient was diagnosed 3 months ago and has mild memory loss.She will be receiving donepezil (Aricept).Which statement accurately describes the drug's actions?
A)It prevents memory loss in later stages.
B)It will reverse the course of Alzheimer's disease.
C)It provides sedation to prevent agitation and restlessness.
D)It may help to improve the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36283
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is the antidote to severe cases of atropine overdose?
A)atenolol (Tenormin)
B)bethanechol (Duvoid)
C)scopolamine (Transderm-V)
D)physostigmine salicylate
Q2) Which of the following conditions is appropriate for treatment with a cholinergic-blocking drug?
A)Glaucoma
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Irritable bowel disease
D)Genitourinary obstruction
Q3) The nurse is about to administer a STAT dose of atropine sulfate to a patient who is experiencing a symptomatic cardiac dysrhythmia.During administration of this drug,the nurse monitors the patient closely for which adverse effect?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Ectopic beats
D)Cardiac standstill
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Chapter 22: Positive Inotropic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36284
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient before administration of a cardiac glycoside.Which lab result can increase the toxicity of the drug?
A)Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
B)Potassium level 4.9 mEq/L
C)Sodium level 140 mEq/L
D)Calcium level 10 mg/dL
Q2) A patient with atrial fibrillation has been started on digoxin (Lanoxin),and 1 week later a digoxin level is drawn.Which of the following results is within normal therapeutic levels for digoxin?
A)0.1-0.6 nmol/L
B)0.7-1.5 nmol/L
C)2.0-2.5 nmol/L
D)2.5-3.0 nmol/L
Q3) A patient is beginning digoxin (Lanoxin)therapy.Which of the following foods should the nurse tell this patient to avoid when taking the digoxin dose?
A)Cooked vegetables
B)Canned fruits
C)Fried foods
D)Bran muffins
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36285
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient taking an antidysrhythmic drug? Select all that apply.
A)Do not chew or crush extended-release forms of medication.
B)Capsules may be opened if they cannot be swallowed.
C)Take the medication with food if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
D)If a dose is missed,the missed dose should be taken with the next dose that is due.
E)Take the medications with an antacid if gastrointestinal distress occurs.
F)Limit or avoid the use of caffeine.g.Presence of a capsule in the stool should be reported to the physician immediately.
Q2) The nurse needs to administer adenosine (Adenocard)to a patient who is experiencing an acute episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT).What important information should the nurse remember when giving this medication?
A)The onset of action occurs in 5 minutes.
B)The medication must be given as a slow intravenous (IV)push.
C)Asystole may occur for a few seconds after administration.
D)The medication has a long half-life,and the duration of action is very long.
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36286
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin patches.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about applying these patches?
A)Use the patches on any nonhairy area on the body.
B)Use the patches only on the chest area.
C)Temporarily remove the patch while swimming.
D)Apply the patch to the same site consistently.
Q2) A female patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain.She has had pain off and on for a week.Which assessment finding indicates a need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites?
A)Blood pressure of 110/78 mmHg
B)History of liver disease
C)History of heart failure
D)Anemia
Q3) Women should maintain a sodium intake of less than 3 grams per day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most available -blockers demonstrate antianginal efficacy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36287
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has ordered prazosin (Minipress)for a female patient.What important information should the nurse tell this patient?
A)She should weigh herself daily and report any weight loss to the physician.
B)She must increase her potassium intake by eating more bananas and apricots.
C)The impaired taste associated with the medication usually goes away in 2 to 3 weeks.
D)She should take her first dose while lying down because the prazosin has a first-dose effect.
Q2) Antihypertensive drug therapy has been prescribed for a Black male patient newly diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension.Which of the following is most likely included in his medication therapy?
A)Vasodilators alone
B)Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors alone
C)Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretic
D) -blockers with thiazide diuretic
Q3) A patient who has diabetes has been started on antihypertensive drug therapy.The health care provider evaluates that this treatment is effective if the blood pressure is _________________________.Fill in the blank.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Diuretic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36288
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs)?
A)The CAIs induce metabolic alkalosis.
B)The CAIs can elevate the blood glucose level in patients taking oral hypoglycemics.
C)CAIs are contraindicated in the presence of glaucoma.
D)CAIs are effective as prolonged therapy for seizures.
Q2) A patient with a new prescription for furosemide (Lasix)is being discharged.What important information should the nurse tell this patient about his new prescription?
A)"Keep a weekly journal or log of your weight."
B)"Avoid foods high in potassium,such as bananas,oranges,fresh vegetables,and dates."
C)"If you experience weight gain, such as 2.27 kg (5 lb) or more a week, be sure to tell your physician during your next routine visit."
D)"Be sure to change your body position slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying.Making slow movements will prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes."
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Chapter 27: Fluids and Electrolytes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36289
Sample Questions
Q1) Lethargy
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q2) The nurse is planning to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs).Which of the following is the only solution that PRBC can be administered with?
A)5% dextrose in water
B)0.9% sodium chloride
C)5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
D)5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's
Q3) Seizures
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q4) Hypotension
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q5) Increased thirst
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
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Chapter 28: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)in addition to a heparin infusion.What is the reason for her receiving two anticoagulants?
A)The oral and injection forms work synergistically.
B)The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.
C)Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.
D)When oral anticoagulants are prescribed,heparin is often used to initiate therapy until laboratory tests indicate an adequate therapeutic response.
Q2) The nurse is administering heparin subcutaneously.Which of the following instructions is correct?
A)Aspirate before injecting.
B)Massage site after injection.
C)Apply heat to the injection site.
D)Use a new,sterile 1.5 cm (5/8-inch),25- to 28-gauge needle for the injection.
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Chapter 29: Antilipemic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a statin drug.What important information should the nurse tell this patient?
A)Have a hearing assessment done.
B)Have an ophthalmic assessment done.
C)See a physiotherapist.
D)Take the medication with breakfast.
Q2) Which of the following can be used to minimize the undesirable adverse effects of nicotinic acid?
A)Taking the drug on an empty stomach
B)Starting off on a high initial dosage
C)Taking small doses of aspirin with the drug
D)Taking the drug with large amounts of fibre
Q3) The antilipemic ezetimibe (Ezetrol)is a newer antilipemic drug.Which of the following describes how it works?
A)By preventing resorption of bile acids from the small intestines
B)By inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
C)By activating lipase, which breaks down cholesterol
D)By inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 8-year-old girl has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism.She is being treated with somatropin (Humatrope).Which of the following is an expected outcome of using somatropin?
A)An increase in growth
B)Decreased urinary output
C)Increased muscle strength
D)An increase in height when she reaches puberty
Q2) A 16-year-old boy who is taking somatropin (Humatrope)has a growth on the back of his hand.When the nurse asks him about it,he says that he has had it several weeks,but it has recently started to get bigger.What should be the next intervention?
A)The growth should be tested.
B)The somatropin dosage should be increased.
C)The somatropin should be stopped immediately.
D)The growth should be documented and monitored for changes.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with desmopressin (DDAVP)?
A)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
B)digoxin (Lanoxin)
C)lithium
D)penicillin
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs should be avoided while taking thyroid replacement preparations?
A)Vitamin supplements
B)Antibiotics
C)Anticoagulants
D) -blockers
Q2) Which of the following dietary instruction should be given to patients on antithyroid drugs?
A)Use iodized salt when cooking.
B)Avoid foods containing iodine.
C)Increase fluid intake to 2500 mL per day.
D)Increase intake of sodium- and potassium-containing foods.
Q3) A 19-year-old university student has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid).After 1 week,she tells the nurse that she feels no better.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)She will probably require surgery for a cure.
B)Levothyroxine does not reach peak effect for several months.
C)She probably did not take her medication as instructed.
D)Her diet may be causing absorption problems.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspart insulin
A)Rapid-acting: RA
B)Short-acting: SA
C)Intermediate-acting: IA
D)Long-acting: LA
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about Humulin-N insulin?
A)It is a long-acting insulin.
B)It is a rapid-acting insulin.
C)It is an intermediate-acting insulin.
D)It is given based on blood glucose levels measured before meals.
Q3) A patient who has type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for a laparoscopy and has been NPO since midnight.She is concerned about her medications being held.What is the nurse's best action regarding the administration of her oral antidiabetic drug?
A)Give her half the original dose.
B)Hold all medications as ordered.
C)Contact the physician for further orders.
D)Give her the medication with a sip of water.
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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Q1) A patient is concerned about the body changes that have resulted from long-term prednisone (Winpred)therapy for the treatment of lupus erythematosus.Which of the following effects of this drug therapy supports the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image?
A)Weight loss
B)Weight gain
C)Pale skin colour
D)Loss of hair
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about prednisone (Winpred)?
A)It is a short-acting glucocorticoid.
B)It has potent mineralocorticoid activity.
C)It is the preferred oral glucocorticoid for anti-inflammatory purposes.
D)It may be administered by inhalation for the treatment of bronchial asthma.
Q3) What important information is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient about taking adrenal drugs?
A)Oral drugs should be taken before meals to maximize absorption.
B)Rinse the oral cavity after using the steroid inhalers.
C)Take the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression.
D)Discontinue the medication immediately if a weight gain of more than 2.25 kg is experienced in 1 week.
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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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Q1) A patient is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin)to induce labour.During administration of this medication,which of the following is an appropriate nursing measure?
A)Giving magnesium sulfate along with the oxytocin
B)Administering the medication in an intravenous (IV)bolus
C)Administering the medication with an IV infusion pump
D)Monitoring fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs every 4 hours
Q2) A patient will be taking bisphosphonate alendronate (Fosamax).The nurse should instruct the patient to take this medication at which time?
A)In the evening just before bedtime
B)In the morning with an 250-ml glass of water
C)With the first bite of the morning meal
D)Between meals on an empty stomach
Q3) A woman visits a health centre requesting oral contraception.Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to assess before the patient begins oral contraception therapy?
A)Complete blood count
B)Urinalysis
C)Vaginal cultures
D)Pregnancy test
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Q1) A male patient is requesting a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra).He should be assessed for the presence of which of the following conditions?
A)Fluid retention
B)Hypogonadism
C)The use of nitrates
D)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Q2) In male patients receiving hormone therapy,which of the following conditions may indicate excessive amounts of androgen?
A)Priapism
B)Tachycardia
C)Muscle weakness
D)Fluid volume depletion
Q3) A patient has a medication order for finasteride (Proscar).This medication is prescribed for which of the following conditions?
A)Acromegaly
B)Baldness in men and women
C)Low sperm counts
D)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a routine checkup,the patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects.The physician prescribes another antihistamine,loratadine (Claritin).What adverse effect has probably been bothering this patient?
A)Diarrhea
B)Urticaria
C)Drowsiness
D)Decreased libido
Q2) The nurse knows that an antitussive drug is most appropriate for which of the following patients?
A)A patient with pneumonia who has a productive cough
B)A patient who has a tracheostomy and thick mucus secretions
C)A patient who has had a productive cough for 2 weeks
D)A patient who has developed bronchitis 2 days after hernia repair surgery
Q3) How does the antitussive dextromethorphan (Benylin DM-E)work to suppress the cough reflex?
A)By causing central nervous system (CNS)depression
B)By anaesthetizing the stretch receptors
C)Through a direct action on the cough centre
Page 38
D)By decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions
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Chapter 37: Bronchodilators and Other Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Montelukast (Singulair)is used for which of the following?
A)Acute bronchospasm
B)Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C)Long-term treatment of emphysema
D)Prophylaxis of asthma in children
Q2) A patient has recently been placed on inhaled corticosteroids.Which of the following common adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
A)Fatigue and depression
B)Anxiety and peripheral vasoconstriction
C)Headache and rapid heart rate
D)Oral candidiasis and dry mouth
Q3) Which of the following is the rationale for using inhaled budesonide (Pulmicort)?
A)It causes bronchodilation.
B)It thins bronchial secretions.
C)It inhibits the activity of -agonists.
D)It provides an anti-inflammatory response.
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics, part 1: Sulfonamides, Penicillins,
Cephalosporins, Macrolides, and Tetracyclines
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Q1) A patient has been prescribed a tetracycline.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about taking this medication?
A)Acidic foods,such as citrus fruit juices,help to enhance absorption.
B)Milk and cheese products result in decreased levels of tetracycline.
C)Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress.
D)The medication should be taken with high-fibre foods to prevent constipation.
Q2) Which of the following drugs may result in an interaction if taken with penicillin?
A)Antacids
B)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)digoxin (Lanoxin)
D)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Q3) Patients who are allergic to penicillin may also be hypersensitive to which of the following drugs?
A)Tetracyclines
B)Sulfonamides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Imipenem-cilastatin
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Page 40
Fluoroquinolones, and Other Drugs
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Q1) When a patient is on gentamicin therapy,what symptoms or laboratory results could indicate a potentially serious toxicity?
A)Skin rash and fever
B)A peak level of 7 mcg/mL
C)Tinnitus and hearing loss
D)Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and creatinine levels
Q2) When patients are taking the potent antibiotics aminoglycosides,which laboratory results must the nurse carefully monitor?
A)Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
B)Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c)
C)Serum creatinine
D)Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Q3) Which laboratory values are sometimes increased by quinolones?
A)Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)levels
B)Creatinine levels
C)Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels
D)Glucose levels
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering acyclovir (Zovirax).Which of the following directions is appropriate?
A)Intravenous (IV)infusions should be administered slowly,over at least 1 hour.
B)IV infusions should be administered by rapid IV bolus.
C)IV acyclovir is compatible with many other IV solutions.
D)Oral fluids should be restricted while the client is taking IV acyclovir.
Q2) A patient with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)has been taking zidovudine (AZT)therapy for almost 1 year.The physician has decided to change the medication to didanosine (Videx EC).The patient is very concerned about this medication change.What is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)Didanosine has fewer toxic effects than zidovudine.
B)Didanosine has been shown to improve survival rates.
C)Taking the zidovudine with the didanosine might have led to serious toxicity.
D)The patient may have been experiencing bone marrow suppression due to the zidovudine therapy.
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42
Chapter 41: Antituberculosis Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women taking oral contraceptives need to be concerned when beginning rifampin (Rifadin)therapy because of which of the following?
A)The increased risk of thrombophlebitis
B)A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary.
C)Oral contraceptives are ineffective while the patient is taking rifampin.
D)The incidence of adverse effects is greater when the two drugs are taken together.
Q2) When assessing patients who are to receive antituberculosis therapy,the nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following?
A)Glaucoma
B)Weight gain
C)Heart failure
D)Hepatic impairment
Q3) Patients taking isoniazid (Isotamine)should watch for and report which of the following potential adverse effects?
A)Rash
B)Headache and nervousness
C)Insomnia
D)Numbness and tingling of extremities
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a severe fungal infection has been ordered voriconazole (Vfend).Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse be concerned about before the medication is started?
A)Decreased breath sounds in the lower lobes
B)History of cardiac dysrhythmias
C)History of type 2 diabetes
D)Potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L
Q2) The nurse is administering one of the newer formulations of amphotericin B,Amphotec.When giving this drug,what important information does the nurse need to remember?
A)The new formulation may be given in an oral form.
B)The newer doses are much lower than the older doses.
C)The newer doses are much higher than the older doses.
D)The newer and older forms have no differences in their doses.
Q3) Which of the following are contraindications to the use of griseofulvin?
A)Lupus
B)Renal disease
C)Cardiac disease
D)Meningitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed anthelmintic therapy.Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse tell this patient about?
A)Nervousness
B)Insomnia
C)Decreased appetite
D)Constipation
Q2) A patient is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl)to treat the most common intestinal protozoal infection,caused by Giardia lamblia.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about using this drug?
A)The urine may become dilute and pale during therapy.
B)Taking the medications with food reduces gastrointestinal upset.
C)The medication should be taken on an empty stomach.
D)The drug may be discontinued once the diarrhea subsides.
Q3) Certain antimalarial drugs work only during specific phases of the parasite's life cycle.Drugs that work in the "tissue" phase are known as ____________ ____________ drugs.
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Chapter 44: Antiseptic and Disinfectant Drugs
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Q1) How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
A)Antiseptics are used to sterilize surgical equipment.
B)Disinfectants are used as preoperative skin preparation.
C)Antiseptics are used on living tissue to kill microorganisms.
D)Disinfectants are used only on nonliving objects to destroy organisms.
Q2) Which of the following is used only for disinfectant purposes?
A)cresol
B)isopropanol
C)hexachlorophene
D)sodium hypochlorite
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding the application of topical agents?
A)Sterile gloves must be worn when applying topical agents.
B)Creams and ointments should be applied with the fingers.
C)Always use an occlusive dressing after applying a topical agent.
D)Hands should be washed thoroughly before and after applying any topical medication.
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Chapter 45: Anti-Inflammatory, Anti-arthritic, and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient tells the nurse that he uses acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)for "anything that ails me." What are the most common signs of chronic salicylate intoxication in adults?
A)Photosensitivity and nervousness
B)Tinnitus and hearing loss
C)Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia
D)Hyperventilation and central nervous system (CNS)effects
Q2) A 55-year-old female patient is beginning gold sodium thiomalate (Myochrysine)therapy for treatment of severe arthritis.What information should the nurse tell this patient about her therapy?
A)Laboratory work will be monitored weekly.
B)The medication is given intramuscularly,and the sites are rotated.
C)The medication is given subcutaneously, and the sites are rotated.
D)Therapeutic blood levels will occur within a month of therapy.
Q3) Which of the following natural health products is sometimes used to treat the pain of osteoarthritis?
A)St.John's wort
B)Ginger
C)Glucosamine
D)Dandelion root
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Chapter 46: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on immunosuppressant therapy is having monthly laboratory studies.The drug should be discontinued if the patient's leukocyte count drops below which of the following?
A)3.0×10 /L
B)5.0×10 /L
C)10.0×10 /L
D)15.0×10 /L
Q2) The use of sirolimus (Rapamune)can increase the chances of which of the following?
A)Lymphoma
B)Leukemia
C)Breast cancer
D)Bowel cancer
Q3) A female patient has started azathioprine (Imuran)therapy in preparation for her renal transplant surgery.Which expected adverse effect of azathioprine therapy should the nurse tell the patient about?
A)Tremors
B)Diarrhea
C)Leukopenia
D)Fluid retention
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Chapter 47: Immunizing Drugs and Pandemic
Preparedness
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Q1) The human papilloma virus (HPV)vaccine should be given to which age group of females?
A)2 to 4 years
B)6 to 8 years
C)9 to 13 years
D)14 to 18 years
Q2) A 45-year-old male has had a series of equine-made immunizing drugs in preparation for a trip to a Third World country.His wife brings him to the emergency room because he has developed edema of the face,tongue,and throat and is having trouble breathing.What is he experiencing?
A)Serum sickness
B)Cross-sensitivity
C)An adverse effect
D)An anaphylactic reaction
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49
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following unique adverse effects is characteristic of the antineoplastic enzymes,such as asparaginase (Kidrolase)?
A)Hepatotoxicity
B)Impaired pancreatic function
C)Nephrotoxicity
D)Hypoglycemia
Q2) A patient is receiving her third course of 5-fluorouracil therapy and knows that stomatitis is a potential adverse effect of antineoplastic therapy.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about this adverse effect?
A)Aspirin should be taken to prevent development of stomatitis.
B)She should watch for and report black tarry stools immediately.
C)She should increase her intake of foods containing fibre and citric acid.
D)She should examine her mouth daily for bleeding,white spots,and ulcerations.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding nadir?
A)It is a therapeutic effect of radiation.
B)It is the lowest level reached by bone marrow cells following chemotherapy.
C)It occurs 30 days after chemotherapy treatment.
D)Antiemetics will prevent it.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving alkylating drugs.The nurse knows that which of the following signs may indicate an oncological emergency?
A)Cracked lips
B)Temperature of 37.8°C
C)Diarrhea
D)Dry cough
Q2) Estrogen antagonists can cause hypercalcemia.Which of the following are symptoms of hypercalcemia?
A)Constipation and urinary changes
B)Confusion and tachycardia
C)Lethargy and diarrhea
D)Weakness and hypoventilation
Q3) Imatinib (Gleevec)is indicated as treatment for which of the following types of cancer?
A)Chronic myeloid leukemia
B)Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C)Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D)Acute myeloid leukemia
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Chapter 50: Biological Responsemodifying Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A)thalidomide (Thalomid)
B)tretinoin (Vesanoid)
C)Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine (Immuncyst)
D)etanercept (Enbrel)
Q2) Capillary leak syndrome during interleukin therapy may result in which of the following problems?
A)Renal failure
B)Asthma
C)Ecchymosis
D)Heart failure
Q3) A patient is to take antineoplastic therapy with monoclonal antibodies such as rituximab (Rituxan).The nurse should carefully assess this patient for which condition?
A)Anorexia
B)Neuropathy
C)Respiratory problems
D)Heart failure
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Chapter 51: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Q1) Which of the following is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?
A)Vitamin K
B)epoetin (Eprex)
C)Human insulin
D)Heparin
Q2) Eugenics is defined as which of the following?
A)Using gene therapy to prevent disease
B)Developing new drugs based on gene therapy
C)Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others
D)The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications
Q3) Genotyping for presence of cytochrome P-450 2D6 (CYP2D6)enzymes and alleles will be helpful in which area of medicine?
A)Cardiology
B)Psychiatry
C)Respirology
D)Oncology
Q4) Name one clinical application of pharmacogenomics.
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Chapter 52: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori (H.pylori).The physician has recommended 2 weeks of combination therapy with omeprazole and an antibiotic.Which antibiotic will be chosen for this therapy?
A)cephalexin HCl
B)ampicillin sodium
C)Sulfisoxazole
D)Clarithromycin
Q2) A patient has been taking cimetidine for hyperacidity but says that the medication has not been effective.Which of the following may be influencing the effectiveness of this drug?
A)The patient is taking the cimetidine with meals.
B)The patient is smoking two packs of cigarettes a day.
C)The patient is avoiding caffeine, alcohol, and harsh spices.
D)The patient is taking an antacid 1 hour before or after the cimetidine dose.
Q3) Antacids that contain aluminum salts may result in which adverse effect?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Intestinal flatulence
D)Abdominal cramping
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Antidiarrheal Drugs and Laxatives
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Q1) Which of the following is a major difference between diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil)and loperamide (Imodium)?
A)Lomotil acts faster.
B)Loperamide does not cause dependence.
C)Lomotil is available as a parenteral form.
D)Loperamide is a natural antidiarrheal drug.
Q2) Methylcellulose (Entrocel solution),a bulk-forming laxative,should be administered with at least how much water to avoid possible obstruction?
A)100 mL
B)125 mL
C)250 mL
D)375 mL
Q3) What classification is the laxative glycerin (Glycerin Suppositories)?
A)A saline laxative
B)An emollient laxative
C)A hyperosmotic laxative
D)A stimulant/irritant laxative
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55
Chapter 54: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Q1) Which antiemetic drug works by blocking dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone,causing the zone to be desensitized to impulses received from the gastrointestinal tract?
A)ondansetron (Zofran)
B)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
C)meclizine (Bonamine)
D)prochlorperazine (Nu-Prochlor)
Q2) Nabilone (Cesamex)is an antiemetic used for treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with which of the following conditions?
A)Ménière's disease
B)Motion sickness
C)Chemotherapy treatment
D)Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
Q3) A patient receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron (Zofran)for treatment of nausea.Which of the following is an adverse effect from this antiemetic drug?
A)Dizziness
B)Headache
C)Dry mouth
D)Blurred vision
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Pharmaconutrition
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Q1) An older adult patient needs to take an enteral supplement to improve her overall nutritional status.Which of the following formulations provides complex nutrients?
A)Ensure
B)Moducal
C)ProMod
D)Microlipid
Q2) A patient is receiving an enteral tube feeding at 100 mL/hour.When the nurse checks the residual,70 mL is obtained.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Slowing the rate to 50 mL/hour
B)Returning the aspirate and continuing the feeding as ordered
C)Returning the aspirate, stopping the feeding, and contacting the physician
D)Discarding the aspirate,stopping the feeding,and contacting the physician
Q3) Which of the following is the most common adverse effect from nutritional supplements?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Fluid overload
D)Peptic ulcer disease
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Chapter 56: Blood-Forming Drugs
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Q1) A patient is taking a liquid form of an iron product.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about taking this iron product?
A)Follow the dose with milk.
B)Take the medication through a plastic straw.
C)Mix the dose with juice and sip slowly.
D)Drink the medication undiluted from a measured medicine cup.
Q2) A woman is planning to become pregnant in the next year.To reduce the risk for fetal neural tube defects,she should ensure that she receives adequate levels of which of the following?
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin C
C)Iron
D)Folic acid
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about the oral administration of iron preparations.Which of the following will increase the absorption of iron?
A)Milk
B)Yogourt
C)Antacids
D)Ascorbic acid
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Chapter 57: Dermatological Drugs
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Q1) A patient is to receive a topical corticosteroid for the treatment of psoriasis.Which of the following forms is generally the most penetrating when applied to the skin?
A)Gels
B)Lotions
C)Creams
D)Ointments
Q2) Which of the following is likely to be prescribed for a child with impetigo?
A)lindane (Hexit)
B)nystatin (Flagistatin)
C)acyclovir (Zovirax)
D)bacitracin (Bacitin)
Q3) A teenage boy is taking tretinoin (Rejuva-A)for his acne.What important information should the nurse tell the patient?
A)He should avoid foods heavy in salt and oils.
B)The drug may cause increased redness of the skin.
C)He should use abrasive cleansers to remove old skin layers.
D)Extremes of weather and sunlight should not bother him during therapy.
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59
Chapter 58: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Q1) A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body.Which of the following drugs is used for this examination?
A)dapiprazole
B)fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor)
C)atropine sulfate
D)cromolyn sodium
Q2) Which of the following conditions are indications for the direct- and indirect-acting miotics?
A)Ocular infections
B)Blurred vision
C)Open-angle glaucoma
D)Cataracts
Q3) Although dipivefrin (Propine)has localized effects in the eye,it mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system neurotransmitters and can cause systemic effects.Which of the following systemic effects can occur?
A)Dizziness and syncope
B)Bradycardia or heart block
C)Dry mouth and constipation
D)Increased heart rate or blood pressure
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Otic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following describes the use of urea hydrogen peroxide (Earoxide)?
A)To reduce inflammation
B)To reduce production of cerumen
C)To loosen the cerumen for easier removal
D)To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about otitis media?
A)It is treated with over-the-counter (OTC)medications.
B)In children,it commonly follows a lower respiratory tract infection.
C)Common symptoms include pain, fever, malaise, pressure, and a sensation of fullness in the ears.
D)Hearing deficits are associated only with inner ear infections,not otitis media.
Q3) A patient is prescribed ear drops.What important information should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of ear drops?
A)Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling drops.
B)The drops should be instilled while still cool from refrigeration.
C)Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation.
D)Massage the ear lobe after instillation.
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