Medication Management Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Medication Management is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices of safely administering, monitoring, and optimizing medication use in various healthcare settings. The course covers essential topics such as pharmacology basics, drug classifications, dosage calculations, medication administration routes, safety protocols, and the prevention of medication errors. Emphasis is placed on patient assessment, effective communication with healthcare teams, documentation, and patient education to ensure adherence and minimize adverse effects. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will develop critical thinking and decision-making skills necessary for effective medication management in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brand name of a medication is provided by:
A) the government.
B) the pharmaceutical company.
C) the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
D) the drug evaluation committee that formally examines all data about medications.
Answer: B
Q2) The generic name of a medication is:
A) the name given by the biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
B) the name given to the pharmaceutical company that manufactures the medication.
C) the chemical name of the medication.
D) the shortened, simplified version of the chemical name.
Answer: D
Q3) Observing the physiological effects of a drug in vivo involves:
A) organs and tissues that are removed from the body.
B) the whole organism.
C) IVF therapy.
D) trials on animal subjects.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of the term 'not-for-resuscitation (NFR) order'?
A) The client will not be resuscitated by health care professionals if he/she suffers a cardiac or respiratory arrest.
B) The client will not receive admission to the intensive care unit.
C) The client will not receive full nursing care.
D) The client will not receive ventilatory and inotropic support.
Answer: A
Q2) After giving a verbal order the doctor must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the nurse.
D) ensure that a doctor has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is an instrument that is used to uphold the right of autonomy?
A) Therapeutic privilege.
B) Non-voluntary euthanasia.
C) Informed and valid consent.
D) A not-for-resuscitation (NFR) order.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine, which are commonly used in critical care areas, cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Answer: D
Q2) Which is true of a linctus?
A) It needs to be stored at or below 25°C.
B) It is administered without water.
C) It is a viscous liquid with expectorant, sedating and cough-suppressing properties.
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Q2) The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug, and transplacental transport systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compared to a young adult, which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying.
B) Plasma protein concentration.
C) Metabolic processes.
D) Adipose tissue levels.
Q4) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area, age, and body weight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers.
B) To gain a competitive edge.
C) To cope with stress.
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance.
Q2) Which of the following reactions may occur in response to the toxins contained in venoms?
A) Neurological impairment.
B) Clotting disorders.
C) Cardiovascular collapse.
D) All of the above.
Q3) In association with the management of poisoning, treating fluid and electrolyte imbalances are considered part of which stage?
A) Client assessment.
B) Decontamination and detoxification.
C) Elimination and neutralisation.
D) Life support.
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7
Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug group that produces pupil dilation, increased blood pressure, urinary retention and constipation is likely to be the:
A) <sub>1</sub>-blockers.
B) <sub>2</sub> antagonists.
C) <sub>2</sub> agonists.
D) <sub>1</sub> agonists.
Q2) Which of the following drugs would be recommended to relieve acute symptoms of asthma?
A) Muscarinic agonist, carbachol because it constricts bronchioles and increases mucus secretion.
B) Nicotinic antagonist, atracurium because it relaxes skeletal muscles.
C) Selective <sub>2</sub> agonist, salbutamol because it dilates bronchioles.
D) antagonist, sotalol because it constricts bronchioles.
Q3) Receptors that respond to acetylcholine (ACh) are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) acetylergic.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following peptide mediators is normally involved in enhancing pain transmission?
A) Endorphin.
B) Substance P.
C) Endothelin.
D) Neuropeptide Y.
Q2) To maximise the therapeutic effects of antihistamines for motion sickness, they should be taken:
A) when symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
B) before the symptoms of nausea and vomiting occur.
C) with milk.
D) in a double dose as soon as symptoms begin.
Q3) How many endothelins have been identified so far?
A) One.
B) Two.
C) Three.
D) Four.
Q4) Topical use of antihistamines is safe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent, therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine.
B) Pericyazine.
C) Chlorpromazine.
D) Pipothiazine.
Q2) The potential role of antiseizure drugs in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
A) elevate the synaptic levels of noradrenaline and serotonin.
B) antagonise the effects of GABA.
C) substitute for sodium ion in neuronal processes.
D) stabilise the erratic firing in pathways associated with mood.
Q3) Which of the following describes extrapyramidal reactions associated with first-line antipsychotic therapy?
A) Lip smacking and rapid darting tongue movements.
B) Facial grimacing, wry neck and limb spasticity.
C) Tremor and rigidity.
D) All of the above.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine.
B) Methadone.
C) Codeine.
D) Fentanyl.
Q2) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
Q3) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
Q4) Preventative therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
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Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets.
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets.
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate.
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate.
Q2) The hypokalaemia that may be induced by a loop diuretic can be lessened or prevented by concurrent use of:
A) potassium chloride.
B) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
C) an ACE inhibitor.
D) all of the above.
Q3) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches, the client should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a 'nitrate-free' time from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medication adherence can be affected by the frequency of administration of a medication regimen. Once-a-day regimens are likely to bring about better medication adherence than two- to three-times-a-day regimens. Which of the following setrons used in the treatment of chemically induced nausea and vomiting need to be administered two to three times a day?
A) Granisetron.
B) Ondansetron.
C) Tropisetron.
D) Dolasetron.
Q2) Constipation may be best avoided in many cases by increasing dietary levels of:
A) alcohol.
B) lipids.
C) fibre.
D) meat.
Q3) Treatment of diarrhoea with diphenoxylate may cause:
A) constipation.
B) dysphagia.
C) gastric reflux.
D) increased bowel sounds.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and -adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
Q2) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q3) Which if the following is an example of a long-acting corticosteroid?
A) Dexamethasone.
B) Cortisone.
C) Prednisone.
D) Budesonide.
Q4) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because:
A) it inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) it reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) it destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) it depletes thyroid hormone stores.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following actions will not improve the management of regurgitation during enteral feeding?
A) Lower the head of the client's bed.
B) Avoid the use of hyperosmolar feeds.
C) Insert a fine-bore enteric tube.
D) Slow down the rate of infusion.
Q2) Which of the following is a precursor of serotonin?
A) Phenylalanine.
B) Tryptophan.
C) Tyrosine.
D) Histidine.
Q3) St John's wort has proved to be effective, according to some studies, in the treatment of:
A) anxiety.
B) paranoia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption.
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime.
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection.
Q2) Which drug group is considered a suitable alternative to penicillins when there is a known allergy?
A) The macrolides.
B) The cephalosporins.
C) Gycopeptide antibacterials such as vancomycin.
D) The quinolones.
Q3) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
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16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acne rosacea is best treated with topical:
A) erythromycin.
B) clindamycin.
C) metronidazole.
D) clotrimazole.
Q2) The first choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) beta-blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q3) Which one of the following is an accessory structure of the eye?
A) Iris.
B) Ciliary bodies.
C) Lacrimal apparatus.
D) Sclera.
Q4) Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?
A) -blockers.
B) Prostaglandin analogues.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) -adrenergic agonists.
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