Medication Administration in Nursing Midterm Exam - 1446 Verified Questions

Medication Administration in Nursing

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Medication Administration in Nursing explores the principles, techniques, and responsibilities associated with the safe and effective administration of medications by nurses. The course covers topics such as pharmacology fundamentals, dosage calculations, routes of administration, medication preparation, and documentation standards. Emphasis is placed on safety protocols, the prevention of medication errors, legal and ethical considerations, and patient education. By integrating theory with practice, students gain the knowledge and skills essential for delivering medications across diverse healthcare settings while prioritizing patient well-being.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum

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110 Chapters

1446 Verified Questions

1446 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the properties of an ideal drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Irreversible action

B) Predictability

C) Ease of administration

D) Chemical stability

E) A recognizable trade name

Answer: B,C,D

Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this,the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?

A) Clinical pharmacology

B) Drug efficacy

C) Pharmacokinetics

D) Pharmacotherapeutics

Answer: D

Q3) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about home administration of insulin to treat diabetes mellitus. As part of the teaching,the patient and nurse identify goals to maintain specific blood glucose ranges. This represents which aspect of the nursing process?

A) Assessment

B) Evaluation

C) Implementation

D) Planning

Answer: D

Q2) A patient is using a metered-dose inhaler containing albuterol for asthma. The medication label instructs the patient to administer "2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for coughing or wheezing." The patient reports feeling jittery sometimes when taking the medication,and she doesn't feel that the medication is always effective. Which action is outside the nurse's scope of practice?

A) Asking the patient to demonstrate use of the inhaler

B) Assessing the patient's exposure to tobacco smoke

C) Auscultating lung sounds and obtaining vital signs

D) Suggesting that the patient use one puff to reduce side effects

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

Q2) Someone asks a nurse about a new drug that is in preclinical testing and wants to know why it cannot be used to treat a friend's illness. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "A drug at this stage of development can be used only in patients with serious disease."

B) "At this stage of drug development, the safety and usefulness of the medication is unknown."

C) "Clinical trials must be completed to make sure the drug is safe to use in humans."

D) "Until postmarketing surveillance data are available, the drug cannot be used."

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When administering medications to infants,it is important to remember which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Breast-feeding infants are more likely to develop toxicity when given lipid-soluble drugs.

B) Immaturity of renal function in infancy causes infants to excrete drugs less efficiently.

C) Infants have immature livers, which slows drug metabolism.

D) Infants are more sensitive to medications that act on the central nervous system (CNS).

E) Oral medications are contraindicated in infants, because PO administration requires a cooperative patient.

Q2) A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what?

A) Administer the drug at intervals longer than the drug half-life.

B) Administer this medication intravenously.

C) Monitor plasma drug levels.

D) Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period.

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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth

B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms

D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body

E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain

Q2) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?

A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.

B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.

C) It gives the receptor a new function.

D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering morning medications. The nurse gives a patient multiple medications,two of which compete for plasma albumin receptor sites. As a result of this concurrent administration,the nurse can anticipate that what might occur? (Select all that apply.)

A) Binding of one or both agents will be reduced.

B) Plasma levels of free drug will rise.

C) Plasma levels of free drug will fall.

D) The increase in free drug will intensify effects.

E) The increase in bound drug will intensify effects.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a drug that induces P-glycoprotein. The nurse will explain that this drug may cause which effect on other drugs?

A) Decreased absorption in the intestines

B) Decreased elimination through the kidneys

C) Increased brain exposure

D) Increased fetal absorption

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8

Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The student asks the nurse what this means. What will the nurse explain about boxed warnings?

A) They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances.

B) They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug.

C) They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects.

D) They provide information about antidotes in the event that toxicity occurs.

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."

B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."

C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."

D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."

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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient who is worried about pain control will be discharged several days after surgery. The nurse providing discharge teaching tells the patient that the prescribed Lortab is not as strong as the morphine the patient was given in the immediate postoperative period. Which response is the patient likely to experience?

A) A decreased likelihood of filling the prescription for the drug

B) A negative placebo effect when taking the medication

C) An increased compliance with the drug regimen

D) Optimistic, realistic expectations about the drug

Q2) A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. When screening for potential adverse effects from this drug,the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results?

A) Albumin

B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine

C) Hepatic enzymes

D) Serum electrolytes

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?

A) Passivity and flat affect

B) Diarrhea and salivation

C) A shrill cry and irritability

D) Restless sleep and seizures

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?

A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.

B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.

C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an infant after a surgical procedure. After ensuring that the ordered dose is appropriate for the infant's age and weight,the nurse administers a narcotic analgesic intravenously. When assessing the infant 15 minutes later,the nurse notes respirations of 22 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. The infant is asleep in the parent's arms and does not awaken when vital signs are assessed. The nurse understands that these findings are the result of:

A) an allergic reaction to the medication.

B) immaturity of the blood-brain barrier in the infant.

C) toxic effects of the narcotic, requiring naloxone as an antidote.

D) unexpected side effects of medications in infants.

Q2) An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The infant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What should the nurse tell them?

A) Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed as well in children.

B) Applying an antihistamine to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group.

C) The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results.

D) Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is making a home visit to an older adult woman who was recently discharged home from the hospital with a new prescription. The nurse notes that a serum drug level drawn the day before was subtherapeutic. What will the nurse do next?

A) Ask the patient if she has difficulty swallowing pills.

B) Count the pills in the prescription bottle.

C) Notify the provider to request more frequent dosing.

D) Request an order for renal function tests.

Q2) A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess?

A) Creatinine clearance

B) Sodium levels

C) Potassium levels

D) Serum creatinine

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13

Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?

A) Activators

B) Agonists

C) Antagonists

D) Antidotes

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist drug. What does the nurse understand about this drug?

A) It directly activates receptors to affect many physiologic processes.

B) It directly activates receptors to affect a specific physiologic process.

C) It prevents receptor activation to affect many physiologic processes.

D) It prevents receptor activation to affect a specific physiologic processes.

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?

A) Alpha₁ agonist

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta₂ agonist

D) Beta₂ antagonist

Q2) What is the target organ when a beta₁agonist is administered?

A) heart

B) kidney

C) respiratory

D) liver

Q3) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased sweating

B) Bronchodilation

C) Increased cardiac output

D) Pinpoint pupils

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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?

A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV

B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]

C) An acetylcholinesterase activator

D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]

Q2) A patient received atropine intravenously before surgery. The recovery room nurse notes that the patient is delirious upon awakening and has a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 110/78 mm

Hg. The nurse notifies the anesthesiologist,who will order:

A) activated charcoal to minimize intestinal absorption of the antimuscarinic agent.

B) an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to compete with the antimuscarinic agent at receptors.

C) an antipsychotic medication to treat the patient's central nervous system symptoms.

D) ipratropium bromide [Atrovent] to counter the respiratory effects of the antimuscarinic agent.

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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two nurses are discussing the major differences between physostigmine [Antilirium] and neostigmine [Prostigmin]. One nurse correctly makes which statement about physostigmine [Antilirium]?

A) "It is not effective for treating poisoning by muscarinic blocking drugs."

B) "It can readily cross the blood-brain barrier."

C) "It does not cause any side effects."

D) "It can be given by all routes."

Q2) A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine,including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer?

A) Donepezil [Aricept]

B) Edrophonium [Reversol]

C) Neostigmine [Prostigmin]

D) Physostigmine

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an intubated patient who is receiving pancuronium for neuromuscular blockade. The patient's eyes are closed,and the patient is not moving any extremities. The heart rate is 76 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient will do what?

A) Request an order for an antihistamine to prevent a further drop in blood pressure.

B) Request an order for serum electrolytes to evaluate for hyperkalemia.

C) Review the patient's chart for a history of myasthenia gravis (MG).

D) Talk to the patient while giving care and explain all procedures.

Q2) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is ordered to:

A) prevent hypertension induced by the anesthetic.

B) allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic.

C) reduce anesthetic-induced nausea.

D) reduce the pain of an injection.

Q2) A patient with asthma uses albuterol [Ventolin] for wheezing. The nurse assesses the patient and notes vital signs of HR,96 beats per minute; RR,18 breaths per minute; and BP,116/78 mm Hg. The patient has clear breath sounds and hand tremors. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient how often the inhaler is used.

B) Check the patient's blood glucose level.

C) Request an order for isoproterenol [Isuprel] to reduce side effects.

D) Stop the medication and report the tremors to the provider.

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19

Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute,a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg,and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with:

A) bronchoconstriction.

B) left-sided heart failure.

C) rebound cardiac excitation.

D) sinus bradycardia.

Q2) A patient will begin taking propranolol [Inderal] for hypertension. Which statement by the nurse is important when teaching this patient about the medication?

A) "Check your hands and feet for swelling and report that to your provider."

B) "It is safe to take this medication with a calcium channel blocker."

C) "Stop taking the drug if you become short of breath."

D) "Take your pulse and do not take the medication if your heart rate is fast."

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Clonidine is approved for the treatment of which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Opioid withdrawal

D) Severe pain

E) Smoking cessation

Q2) A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."

B) "I should not drive as long as I am taking this drug."

C) "I should stand up slowly when taking this medication."

D) "I should stop taking this drug if I feel anxious or depressed."

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21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Q1) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system? (Select all that apply.)

A) Acetylcholine

B) Norepinephrine

C) Serotonin

D) Dopamine

E) Epinephrine

F) Histamine

Q2) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Analgesia

B) Anesthesia

C) Depression

D) Euphoria

E) Seizure control

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The prescriber orders bromocriptine [Parlodel] to treat dyskinesias. The nurse notes that the patient is agitated,and the patient reports having frequent nightmares. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) adding an antipsychotic medication.

B) changing from bromocriptine to cabergoline [Dostinex].

C) reducing the dose of bromocriptine.

D) reducing the dose of levodopa/carbidopa.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about Parkinson's medications. The nurse is correct to state that one side effect associated with pramipexole [Mirapex] that is less likely to occur with other dopamine agonists is:

A) sleep attacks.

B) dizziness.

C) hallucinations.

D) dyskinesias.

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23

Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The spouse of a patient who is newly diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease asks the nurse if medications will prevent the need for nursing home care. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Drugs to treat Alzheimer's disease may slow the progression of memory loss."

B) "Drugs may be effective to stop the progression of the disease if they are initiated early in the disease."

C) "Medications to treat Alzheimer's disease are effective for treating core symptoms of the disease."

D) "Medications for Alzheimer's disease are effective in reducing cognitive impairment."

Q2) A nurse is caring for an older adult man who has Alzheimer's disease (AD). The patient's daughter wants to know if testing can be done to determine her risk for developing the disease. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Female gender is known to increase the risk.

B) Genetic testing can provide a definitive measure of the risk.

C) Patients with the apolipoprotein E2 gene (apoE2) are more likely to develop the disease.

D) Advancing age and family history are known risk factors.

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS)for 10 years and has a history of 3 periods of neurologic dysfunction lasting several weeks separated by long periods of full recovery. In the past 6 months,the patient has had a prolonged period of neurologic dysfunction without remission. The nurse understands that the patient may have which MS subtype?

A) Primary progressive MS

B) Progressive-relapsing MS

C) Relapsing-remitting MS

D) Secondary progressive MS

Q2) A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL three times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site,despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do?

A) Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection.

B) Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL.

C) Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider.

D) Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].

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25

Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking an antiepileptic drug for several weeks. The nurse asks the patient if the therapy is effective. The patient reports little change in seizure frequency. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to complete a seizure frequency chart for the past few weeks.

B) Contact the provider to request an order for serum drug levels.

C) Reinforce the need to take the medications as prescribed.

D) Request an order to increase the dose of the antiepileptic drug.

Q2) A patient with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial convulsive episode shortly after arriving on the unit. The patient has been taking phenytoin [Dilantin] 100 mg three times daily and oxcarbazepine [Trileptal] 300 mg twice daily for several years. The patient's phenytoin level is 8.6 mcg/mL,and the oxcarbazepine level is 22 mcg/mL. The nurse contacts the provider to report these levels and the seizure. What will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) A decreased dose of oxcarbazepine

B) Extended-release phenytoin

C) An increased dose of phenytoin

D) Once-daily dosing of oxcarbazepine

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

Q2) A patient who has a lower back injury exhibits muscle spasms. The provider orders cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril] 10 mg three times a day. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug?

A) "This drug carries some risk of developing hallucinations and psychotic symptoms."

B) "This medication may cause your urine to turn brown, black, or dark green."

C) "You may experience blurred vision, dry mouth, or constipation."

D) "You will need to have liver function tests performed while taking this medication."

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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?

A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand

B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site

C) Nervousness and tachycardia

D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound

Q2) Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for which reasons? (Select all that apply.)

A) To enhance absorption

B) To reduce the risk of toxicity

C) To prevent bradycardia

D) To shorten the duration of action

E) To prolong anesthesia

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A surgical nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isoflurane [Forane]. Which is true about this inhalation anesthetic?

A) Patients receiving isoflurane will not require mechanical ventilation.

B) Postoperative nausea and vomiting are greater with isoflurane than with other inhalation anesthetics.

C) Propofol is used for induction to minimize cough prior to administering isoflurane.

D) This drug promotes greater relaxation of skeletal muscle than other inhalation anesthetics.

Q2) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?

A) Bethanechol

B) Droperidol

C) Promethazine

D) Ondansetron

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Chapter 28:

Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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Q1) A patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe,chronic pain of several months' duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] and states that it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?

A) Fentanyl [Duragesic] transdermal patch

B) Hydrocodone [Vicodin] PO

C) Meperidine [Demerol] PO

D) Pentazocine [Talwin] PO

Q2) A nurse is preparing a pediatric patient for surgery and is teaching the patient and the child's parents about the use of the patient-controlled analgesia pump. The parents voice concern about their child receiving an overdose of morphine. What will the nurse do?

A) Instruct the parents not to activate the device when their child is sleeping.

B) Reassure the parents that drug overdose is not possible with PCA.

C) Suggest that the child use the PCA sparingly.

D) Tell the patient that the pump can be programmed for PRN dosing only.

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Agonist-antagonist opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only."

B) "Agonist-antagonist opioids are effective for treating cancer pain."

C) "Agonist-antagonist opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists."

D) "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."

Q2) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will ____ ibuprofen.

A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered two sprays at 1400,1600,and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?

A) Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief.

B) Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort.

C) Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication.

D) Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.

Q2) A prescriber orders sumatriptan [Imitrex] for a patient for a migraine headache. Before administration of this drug,it would be most important for the nurse to assess whether the patient:

A) has a family history of migraines.

B) has taken acetaminophen in the past 3 hours.

C) has taken ergotamine in the past 24 hours.

D) is allergic to sulfa compounds.

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32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse in a mental health hospital finds a patient with schizophrenia who takes haloperidol [Haldol] lying rigid in bed with a temperature of 41.3°C. A cardiac monitor shows cardiac dysrhythmias. What will be included in the treatment of this patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) Anticholinergic medications

B) Beta blockers

C) Dantrolene

D) Intravenous fluids

E) Withdrawal of haloperidol

Q2) A patient with schizophrenia receives a dose of risperidone [Risperdal Consta] IM. The nurse teaching this patient about this medication will make which statement?

A) "You will experience therapeutic levels of this drug in 1 to 2 weeks."

B) "You will need injections of this drug every 6 weeks."

C) "You will need to take an oral antipsychotic drug for 3 weeks."

D) "You probably will not have extrapyramidal symptoms with this drug."

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A provider has indicated that a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)will be prescribed for a patient who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history,the nurse learns that the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient?

A) Desvenlafaxine [Pristiq]

B) Duloxetine [Cymbalta]

C) Escitalopram [Lexapro]

D) Venlafaxine [Effexor SR]

Q2) An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to:

A) divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart.

B) take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects.

C) take the medication once daily in the late afternoon.

D) take the medication once daily in the morning.

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34

Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient,who has a history of seasonal allergies,is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid],which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."

B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."

C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."

D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."

Q2) A patient is admitted to a hospital for treatment for first-time symptoms of mania and is exhibiting euphoric mania. Which medication will the provider order?

A) Lithium [Lithobid]

B) Olanzapine [Zyprexa]

C) Risperidone [Risperdal]

D) Divalproex sodium [Valproate]

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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam:

A) does not depress the central nervous system.

B) shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses.

C) mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter.

D) potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.

Q2) A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be:

A) alternative medications.

B) improved sleep hygiene. C) short-term barbiturates.

D) triazolam [Halcion].

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

C) Panic disorder

D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."

B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."

C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."

D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adult patient will begin taking atomoxetine [Strattera] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Appetite suppression does not occur, because this drug is not a stimulant.

B) Stopping the drug abruptly will cause an abstinence syndrome.

C) Suicidal thoughts may occur and should be reported to the provider.

D) Therapeutic effects may not be felt for 1 to 3 weeks after beginning therapy.

Q2) A parent thinks a school-aged child has ADHD. The nurse asks the parent to describe the child's behaviors. Which behaviors are characteristic of ADHD? (Select all that apply.)

A) Anxiety

B) Compulsivity

C) Hyperactivity

D) Inattention

E) Impulsivity

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about drug abuse. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Patients who experience physical dependence will show compulsive drug-seeking behavior."

B) "People who are addicted to a drug do not necessarily have tolerance to that drug."

C) "Physical dependence means that abstinence syndrome will occur if a drug is withdrawn."

D) "Physical dependence often contributes to addictive behavior but does not cause it."

Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."

B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."

C) "Preexisting psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."

D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a health history,the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?

A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."

B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."

C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."

D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."

Q2) An alcoholic patient's spouse asks a nurse about recovery from chronic alcoholism. The patient is confused and has abnormal eye movements and nystagmus. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "The symptoms your spouse shows are partly reversible in most people."

B) "These symptoms can be reversed with vitamin therapy and good nutrition."

C) "Your spouse has symptoms of an irreversible encephalopathy."

D) "Your spouse will probably recover completely after detoxification."

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping."

B) "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns."

C) "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds."

D) "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."

Q2) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation class in the community and is discussing the physiologic effects of nicotine. The nurse is correct to teach that these effects include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Increased blood pressure

B) Decreased gastric acid

C) Vomiting

D) Suppression of nausea

E) Increased alertness

F) Suppression of appetite

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is a heroin addict is admitted to a methadone substitution program. After administering the first dose of methadone,the nurse notes that the patient shows signs of euphoria and complains of nausea. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer nalmefene [Revex].

B) Contact the provider to obtain an order for naloxone [Narcan].

C) Question the patient about heroin use that day.

D) Suspect that the patient exaggerated the amount of heroin used.

Q2) A patient who has a long-term addiction to opioids takes an overdose of barbiturates. The nurse preparing to care for this patient will anticipate:

A) a severe abstinence syndrome when the effects of the barbiturates are reversed.

B) minimal respiratory depression, because the patient has developed a tolerance to opioids.

C) observing pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and possibly coma in this patient.

D) using naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the barbiturates, because cross-tolerance is likely.

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Diuretics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

B) Oxygen saturation of 90%

C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L

Q2) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally,and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Furosemide [Lasix]

C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

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43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which order for potassium (KCl)would the nurse question? (Select all that apply.)

A) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids

B) \( D_{5} 1 / 2 \) NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L

C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis

D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water

E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push

Q2) A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who has a nasogastric tube with continuous suction. The nurse notes that the patient has shallow respirations and suspects that this patient has developed:

A) metabolic acidosis.

B) metabolic alkalosis.

C) respiratory acidosis.

D) respiratory alkalosis.

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44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a beta₁-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:

A) cardiac afterload.

B) cardiac preload.

C) myocardial contractility.

D) venous return.

Q2) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases,which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Increased heart rate

C) Decreased blood pressure

D) Syncope

Q3) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.

B) expect bradycardia for a few days.

C) notify the provider if headache occurs.

D) report shortness of breath.

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient who is not taking any other medications is prescribed aliskiren [Tekturna],a direct renin inhibitor (DRI). The nurse reviews medication information with the patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I get pregnant, I should stop taking this drug by the second trimester."

B) "If I take this drug with a high-fat meal, it will be more effective."

C) "I should restrict my potassium intake while taking this drug."

D) "I should take this medication 1 hour before sitting down to a meal."

Q2) A patient begins taking an ACE inhibitor and complains of a dry cough. What does the nurse correctly tell the patient about this symptom?

A) It indicates that a serious side effect has occurred.

B) It is a common side effect that occurs in almost all patients taking the drug.

C) It may be uncomfortable enough that the drug will need to be discontinued.

D) It occurs frequently in patients taking the drug but will subside over time.

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia],along with metoprolol,to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:

A) reduce flushing.

B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.

C) prevent constipation.

D) prevent reflex tachycardia.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for:

A) AV blockade.

B) gingival hyperplasia.

C) migraine headaches.

D) reflex tachycardia.

Q3) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)

A) Angina of effort

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Essential hypertension

D) Sick sinus syndrome

E) Suppression of preterm labor

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient?

A) Decrease in cardiac work

B) Increase in cardiac output

C) Increase in tissue perfusion

D) Increase in venous return

Q2) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:

A) cyanide poisoning.

B) fluid retention.

C) rebound hypertension.

D) reflex tachycardia.

Q3) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?

A) Captopril PO

B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO

C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO

D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is in labor. The woman reports having had mild preeclampsia with a previous pregnancy. The nurse notes that the woman has a blood pressure of 168/102 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which drug?

A) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

B) Hydralazine (Apresoline)

C) Magnesium sulfate

D) Sodium nitroprusside

Q2) A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:

A) ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications.

B) the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise.

C) increased calcium and potassium supplements.

D) thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with heart failure who has been taking an ACE inhibitor,a thiazide diuretic,and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient,the nurse will expect the provider to evaluate:

A) complete blood count.

B) ejection fraction.

C) maximal exercise capacity.

D) serum electrolyte levels.

Q2) A patient with heart failure who has been given digoxin [Lanoxin] daily for a week complains of nausea. Before giving the next dose,the nurse will:

A) assess the heart rate (HR) and give the dose if the HR is greater than 60 beats per minute.

B) contact the provider to report digoxin toxicity.

C) request an order for a decreased dose of digoxin.

D) review the serum electrolyte values and withhold the dose if the potassium level is greater than 3.5 mEq/L.

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will be taking amiodarone [Cordarone]. Which baseline tests are necessary before this medication is started? (Select all that apply.)

A) Chest radiograph and pulmonary function tests

B) Complete blood count with differential

C) Ophthalmologic examination

D) Renal function tests

E) Thyroid function tests

Q2) The nurse educator is providing patient education about the Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial (CAST). The nurse correctly explains that the trial demonstrated what effect from the pharmacologic suppression of dysrhythmias?

A) It reduced mortality by 50% but increased morbidity.

B) It significantly reduced the risk of a second myocardial infarction (MI).

C) It doubled the risk of a second MI.

D) It should be used in all patients who have had an MI, regardless of rhythm.

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is instructing a patient receiving a cholesterol-lowering agent. Which information should the nurse include in the patient education?

A) "This medication will replace other interventions you have been trying."

B) "It is important for you to double your dose if you miss one to maintain therapeutic blood levels."

C) "Stop taking the medication if you experience constipation."

D) "You should continue your exercise program to increase your HDL serum levels."

Q2) A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor. Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?

A) "Statins reduce the risk of morbidity from influenza."

B) "You should come into the clinic for liver enzymes in 1 month."

C) "Statins reduce the risk of coronary events in people with normal LDL levels."

D) "You should maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid high-fat foods."

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52

Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with asthma and depression develops stable angina. In addition to organic nitrites,which other medications will be used to treat this condition? (Select all that apply.)

A) ACE inhibitors

B) Antiplatelet drugs

C) Beta blockers

D) Calcium channel blockers

E) Cholesterol-lowering drugs

Q2) A hospitalized patient complains of acute chest pain. The nurse administers a 0.3-mg sublingual nitroglycerin tablet,but the patient continues to complain of pain. Vital signs remain stable. What is the nurse's next step?

A) Apply a nitroglycerin transdermal patch.

B) Continue dosing at 10-minute intervals.

C) Give a second dose of nitroglycerin in 5 minutes.

D) Request an order for intravenous nitroglycerin.

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking warfarin [Coumadin] for atrial fibrillation. The provider has ordered dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to replace the warfarin. The nurse teaches the patient about the change in drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may need to adjust the dose of dabigatran after weaning off the warfarin."

B) "I should continue to take the warfarin after beginning the dabigatran until my INR is greater than 3."

C) "I should stop taking the warfarin 3 days before starting the dabigatran."

D) "I will stop taking the warfarin and will start taking the dabigatran when my INR is less than 2."

Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain in the left lower extremity. The nurse notes swelling in the lower leg,which feels warm to the touch. The nurse will anticipate giving which medication?

A) Aspirin

B) Clopidogrel [Plavix]

C) Enoxaparin [Lovenox]

D) Warfarin [Coumadin]

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Page 54

Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in the emergency department has severe chest pain. The nurse administers morphine intravenously. The patient asks the nurse why morphine is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Morphine helps by reducing anxiety and relieving pain."

B) "Morphine helps by reducing pain and dissolving clots."

C) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and lowering blood pressure."

D) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and reducing the cardiac oxygen demand."

Q2) A patient has undergone a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with a stent placement. The provider has ordered a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin and clopidogrel. The patient asks the nurse how long the medications must be taken. What will the nurse tell this patient about the medication regimen?

A) This drug regimen will continue indefinitely.

B) The clopidogrel will be discontinued in one year and the aspirin will be given indefinitely.

C) The aspirin will be discontinued in one year and the clopidogrel will be given indefinitely.

D) Both drugs will be discontinued in one year.

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Page 55

Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records,the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap)vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine. The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give:

A) both vaccines intramuscularly.

B) both vaccines subcutaneously.

C) the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously.

D) the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.

Q2) A patient with epistaxis and a history of hemophilia A is admitted to the unit and is scheduled for replacement therapy. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?

A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]

B) Aminocaproic acid [Amicar]

C) Desmopressin [Stimate]

D) Factor VIII

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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital. The patient's initial laboratory results reveal megaloblastic anemia. The patient complains of tingling of the hands and appears confused. The nurse suspects what in this patient?

A) Celiac disease

B) Folic acid deficiency

C) Iron deficiency anemia

D) Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency

Q2) A patient who has recently immigrated to the United States from an impoverished country appears malnourished. The patient's folic acid levels are low,and the vitamin B₁₂ levels are normal. The nurse expects this patient's treatment to include:

A) a diet high in folic acid.

B) intramuscular folic acid.

C) oral folic acid and vitamin B_12.

D) oral folic acid supplements.

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a hemoglobin of 7.2 gm/dL begins therapy with an ESA. Two weeks later the patient's hemoglobin is 8.3 gm/dL. The nurse anticipates that the provider will:

A) reduce the ESA dose.

B) discontinue the ESA.

C) order a blood transfusion.

D) order heparin.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?

A) Epoetin alfa

B) Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)

C) Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)

D) Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has type 2 diabetes will begin taking glipizide [Glucotrol]. Which statement by the patient is concerning to the nurse?

A) "I will begin by taking this once daily with breakfast."

B) "It is safe to drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug."

C) "I may continue to have a glass of wine with dinner."

D) "I will need to check my blood sugar once daily or more."

Q2) An elderly patient who has type 2 diabetes has a history of severe hypoglycemia. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the optimum A1c level is for the patient. Which is correct?

A) Between 6.5 and 7.0

B) Below 7.0

C) Below 8.0

D) Between 7.0 and 8.5

Q3) Insulin glargine is prescribed for a hospitalized patient who has diabetes. When will the nurse expect to administer this drug?

A) Approximately 15 to 30 minutes before each meal

B) In the morning and at 4:00 PM

C) Once daily at bedtime

D) After meals and at bedtime

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in her twenties with Graves' disease who takes methimazole [Tapazole] tells a nurse that she is trying to conceive and asks about disease management during pregnancy. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Methimazole is safe to take throughout pregnancy.

B) Propylthiouracil should be taken throughout her pregnancy.

C) The patient should discuss changing to propylthiouracil from now until her second trimester with her provider.

D) The patient should discuss therapy with iodine-131 instead of medications with her provider.

Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital and will begin taking levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse learns that the patient also takes warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse will notify the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.

A) reducing; levothyroxine

B) reducing; warfarin

C) increasing; levothyroxine

D) increasing; warfarin

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) avoid grapefruit juice.

B) increase sodium intake.

C) monitor blood pressure.

D) reduce fluid intake.

Q2) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale,dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?

A) Diabetes insipidus

B) Diabetes mellitus

C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

D) Water intoxication

Q3) A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Conivaptan [Vaprisol]

B) Desmopressin [DDAVP]

C) Tolvaptan [Samsca]

D) Vasopressin [Pitressin]

Page 61

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is explaining congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)to a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "CAH is caused by a deficiency of ACTH production."

B) "CAH is the result of an inability to synthesize glucocorticoids."

C) "Newborn screening provides a definitive diagnosis for CAH"

D) "The enzyme 21-alpha-hydroxylase increases the production of androgens."

Q2) A patient who has been taking 25 mg of hydrocortisone each morning for several months reports feeling fatigued late in the day each day. What will the nurse tell the patient to discuss with the provider?

A) Adding a mineralocorticoid to the drug regimen

B) Assessing serum electrolytes to check for toxicity

C) Increasing the dose to 50 mg daily

D) Splitting the daily dose into a morning and an afternoon dose

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:

A) waistline and shoulders."

B) abdomen and arms."

C) breasts and abdomen."

D) thighs and calves."

Q2) A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT)for menopause asks the nurse why she can't take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy,has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease,and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to:

A) decrease her risk of endometrial cancer.

B) increase bone resorption to prevent fractures.

C) lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI).

D) prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

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63

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient calls the nurse to report that she forgot to take a combination OC pill during the third week of her cycle. She tells the nurse that she missed another pill earlier that week. The nurse will tell her to:

A) continue the pack, skip the inert pills, and use an additional form of contraception for 7 days.

B) not to worry, because up to 7 days can be missed without an increased risk of pregnancy.

C) take a pill immediately, continue the pack, and use an additional form of contraception for 1 month.

D) take a pill now, continue the pack, skip the placebo pills, and start a new pack on week 4.

Q2) A patient asks about the effectiveness of various birth control methods. The nurse should inform her that the most effective methods are what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

B) Spermicides

C) Intramuscular medroxyprogesterone acetate

D) Etonogestrel subdermal implants

E) Male or female sterilization

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Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:

A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.

B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.

C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.

D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.

Q2) A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease."

B) "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications."

C) "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels."

D) "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."

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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a woman who is taking tranexamic acid [Lysteda] for menorrhagia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience back pain or muscle cramps while taking this drug."

B) "I may take two tablets 3 times daily for up to 5 days with each period."

C) "I should take an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy while taking this drug."

D) "I should take this medication with food to improve absorption of the drug."

Q2) Which are indications for early induction of labor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Abruptio placentae

B) Active genital herpes infection

C) Gestational hypertension

D) Premature rupture of the membranes

E) Umbilical cord prolapse

Q3) Which drugs are useful for preventing preterm labor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antibiotics

B) Hydroxyprogesterone

C) Indomethacin

D) Magnesium sulfate

E) Terbutaline

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 14-year-old male patient who plays football is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient has short stature for his age according to a standard growth chart. The patient is muscular,has a deep voice,and needs to shave. The nurse notifies the provider of these findings. Which test will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Coagulation studies

B) Complete blood count (CBC) with differential C) Liver function tests and serum cholesterol

D) Serum glucose and hemoglobin A_1c

Q2) An adolescent male patient is beginning androgen therapy for delayed puberty. His parents ask the nurse when this treatment may be stopped. The nurse will offer which response?

A) After 3 to 4 years of therapy

B) If acne and facial hair develop

C) When complete sexual maturation has occurred

D) When testicular enlargement occurs

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks about medications to treat this disorder,but tells the nurse he doesn't want to have to plan sexual activity several hours in advance. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Avanafil [Stendra]

B) Sildenafil [Viagra]

C) Tadalafil [Cialis]

D) Vardenafil [Levitra]

Q2) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil [Viagra] would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern?

A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

B) Mild hypertension

C) Occasional use of nitroglycerin

D) Taking finasteride

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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antibodies. The nurse correctly explains that which type of response is triggered when antigens bind to antibodies on mast cells or basophils?

A) Acquired immune response

B) Autoimmune response

C) Hypersensitivity reaction

D) Transplant rejection

Q2) A patient has a Type IV hypersensitivity (delayed-type hypersensitivity)response to an infection. The nurse understands that which two types of cells are necessary for this response?

A) Antigen-presenting cells and mast cells

B) Cytolytic T lymphocytes and target cells

C) Immunoglobulin cells and dendritic cells

D) Infected macrophages and CD4 helper T cells

Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

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Page 69

Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP,Hepatitis A,Hepatitis B,and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib,the Rotavirus,and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s)will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?

A) Hib and Rotavirus vaccines

B) PCV13

C) PCV13 and Hib

D) Rotavirus

Q2) The public health nurse is teaching a group of parents about immunizations. The nurse tells the parents that after receiving the varicella virus vaccine,children should temporarily avoid close contact with whom? (Select all that apply.)

A) Neonates

B) Siblings

C) Relatives older than 65 years

D) Pregnant women

E) Individuals infected with HIV

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a liver transplant has been receiving cyclosporine [Sandimmune] for 6 months. The nurse reviews this patient's laboratory results and notes a sharp increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and serum creatinine. Vital signs are normal,and the patient reports no discomfort. What does the nurse suspect?

A) Hepatotoxicity

B) Infection

C) Organ rejection

D) Nephrotoxicity

Q2) A patient has undergone liver transplantation. The provider orders cyclosporine [Sandimmune],prednisone,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. What will the nurse do?

A) Question the order for sirolimus.

B) Request an order for a serum glucose level.

C) Request an order for a macrolide antibiotic.

D) Suggest changing the cyclosporine to tacrolimus.

Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?

A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]

B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]

C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]

D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone

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Page 71

Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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Sample Questions

Q1) A family is preparing for travel and the parents report that their 5-year-old child has frequent motion sickness. The nurse will tell the parents to ask the provider about which antihistamine to help prevent symptoms?

A) Desloratadine [Clarinex]

B) Dimenhydrinate [Dramamine]

C) Hydroxyzine [Vistaril]

D) Promethazine [Phenergan]

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.

C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.

D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older male patient with an increased risk of MI is taking furosemide [Lasix] and low-dose aspirin. The patient is admitted to the hospital,and the nurse notes an initial blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. The patient has had a 10-pound weight gain since a previous admission 3 months earlier. The patient has voided only a small amount of concentrated urine. The serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) adding an antihypertensive medication.

B) obtaining serum electrolytes.

C) ordering a potassium-sparing diuretic.

D) withdrawing the aspirin.

Q2) A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL,and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do?

A) Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache.

B) Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity.

C) Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose.

D) Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who has taken glucocorticoids for over a year about glucocorticoid withdrawal. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I should reduce the dose by half each day until I stop taking the drug."

B) "I will need to have cortisol levels monitored during the withdrawal process."

C) "The withdrawal schedule may take several months."

D) "If I have surgery, I may need to take the drug for a while, even after I have stopped."

Q2) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?

A) 8:00 AM

B) 12:00 PM

C) 4:00 PM

D) 9:00 PM

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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?

A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective

B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept

C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept

D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective

Q2) A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate.

A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than

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75

Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?

A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.

B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug.

C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.

D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.

Q2) A patient is admitted for treatment of gout that has been refractory to treatment with allopurinol and probenecid. The patient is taking colchicine,and the prescriber orders pegloticase [Krystexxa]. Before administering this drug,the nurse will expect to:

A) administer an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid.

B) discontinue the colchicine.

C) increase the dose of colchicine.

D) prepare to administer a bronchodilator if needed.

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient reports experiencing weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and nocturia. Total serum calcium is 10.5 mg/dL. A dipstick urinalysis shows a positive result for protein. When questioned, the patient reports taking vitamin D and calcium supplements. The nurse will counsel the patient to:

A) reduce the amount of vitamin D and stop taking the calcium.

B) discuss taking calcitonin-salmon [Fortical] with the provider.

C) stop both supplements and discuss the use of a diuretic with the provider.

D) stop taking vitamin D, reduce the amount of calcium, and increase the fluid intake.

Q2) A patient with metastatic cancer has had several fractures secondary to bone metastases. The provider orders denosumab [Xgeva]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Denosumab may delay healing of these fractures.

B) Denosumab should be given subcutaneously every 12 months.

C) Denosumab will improve hypocalcemia.

D) Unlike bisphosphonates, denosumab does not increase osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ).

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with stable COPD receives prescriptions for an inhaled glucocorticoid and an inhaled beta₂-adrenergic agonist. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen?

A) "I should use the glucocorticoid as needed when symptoms flare."

B) "I will need to use the beta₂-adrenergic agonist drug daily."

C) "The beta₂-adrenergic agonist suppresses the synthesis of inflammatory mediators."

D) "The glucocorticoid is used as prophylaxis to prevent exacerbations."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the different formulations of beta₂-adrenergic agonist medications. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Beta₂-adrenergic agonists provide quick relief via any formulation."

B) "Long-acting beta₂ agonists may be used alone to prevent attacks."

C) "Short-acting beta₂ agonists are usually given by nebulizer."

D) "Oral beta₂ agonists are not useful for short-term treatment."

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used."

B) "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old."

C) "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays."

D) "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."

Q2) Which medication used for asthma has off-label uses to treat allergic rhinitis?

A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]

B) Fexofenadine/pseudoephedrine [Allegra-D]

C) Guaifenesin [Mucinex]

D) Omalizumab [Xolair]

Q3) A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms."

B) "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms."

C) "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms."

D) "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The patient is otherwise healthy. The nurse learns that the patient does not smoke and that he drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine with meals each week. The nurse anticipates that the provider will prescribe which drugs?

A) Amoxicillin [Amoxil], clarithromycin, and omeprazole [Prilosec]

B) Amoxicillin [Amoxil], metronidazole [Flagyl], and cimetidine [Tagamet]

C) Clarithromycin, metronidazole [Flagyl], and omeprazole [Prilosec]

D) Tetracycline, cimetidine [Tagamet], and lansoprazole [Prevacid]

Q2) Which non-pharmaceutical intervention can be used to reduce symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease? (Select all that apply.)

A) Avoiding late-night meals

B) Consuming a glass of wine with meals

C) Drinking soft drinks

D) Losing weight

E) Stopping smoking

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.

B) Give another dose of the psyllium.

C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.

D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.

Q2) The nurse is caring for an older adult patient after a right hip open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The patient is taking an opioid every 6 hours as needed for pain. The nurse discusses obtaining an order from the prescriber for which medication?

A) Docusate sodium [Colace]

B) GoLYTELY

C) Lactulose

D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is discussing with a nurse the plan of care for a patient about to undergo a third round of chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which statement by the nursing student about the treatment of CINV is correct?

A) "Aprepitant [Emend] will be necessary to treat CINV caused by cisplatin."

B) "Antiemetics are most effective if given just as the chemotherapy is finished."

C) "Lorazepam probably would not be helpful for this patient."

D) "This patient will need intravenous antiemetics for best effects."

Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient with ulcerative colitis who is being treated with sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]. What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the action of sulfasalazine?

A) "It treats the infection that triggers the condition."

B) "It reduces the inflammation."

C) "It enhances the immune response."

D) "It increases the reabsorption of fluid."

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is known to be a heavy drinker is brought to the emergency department with ataxia and confusion. The patient cannot remember the events of the previous day. The examination reveals nystagmus,and the patient reports having double vision. The nurse will expect to administer which vitamin to this patient?

A) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) IV

B) Intramuscular pyridoxine (vitamin B₆)

C) Intravenous thiamine (vitamin B₁)

D) Nicotinic acid (niacin) PO

Q2) A pregnant patient is discussing nutrition and vitamin supplements with the nurse. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the use of nutrition and supplements during pregnancy?

A) "I can get adequate folic acid by consuming foods fortified with synthetic folate."

B) "I need reduced amounts of vitamin C while pregnant to lower my risk of hemorrhage."

C) "I should take vitamin K so my baby won't be vitamin K deficient at birth."

D) "Excessive amounts of vitamin A [retinol] can cause birth defects in my baby."

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8475

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] for 6 months for weight loss. The nurse weighs the patient and notes a 3% weight loss since beginning the drug. The nurse will expect the prescriber to:

A) continue the current dosage for 4 more weeks.

B) discontinue the drug.

C) increase the drug dosage.

D) switch to another nonamphetamine agent.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of patients about weight management options. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Although some drugs often show benefits, these benefits do not outweigh the risks."

B) " Antiobesity drugs should be used only as adjuncts to a comprehensive weight loss program of diet and exercise."

C) "Most patients regain lost weight when antiobesity drugs are discontinued."

D) "The side effects of most of these drugs are too uncomfortable to maintain compliance."

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8476

Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients should be given antibiotics prophylactically? (Select all that apply.)

A) Children who attend day care with other children who have strep throat

B) Children undergoing chemotherapy who have mild neutropenia

C) Patients with certain congenital heart defects at risk for bacterial endocarditis

D) Patients with compound fractures undergoing surgical repair

E) Postoperative patients who have undergone emergency cesarean sections

Q2) A patient has a localized skin infection,which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available,the nurse will expect the provider to order a ____-spectrum ____ agent.

A) broad; systemic

B) broad; topical

C) narrow; systemic

D) narrow; topical

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8477

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history,the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin.

B) Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time.

C) Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.

D) Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.

Q2) A nursing student wants to know the differences between hospital-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (HA-MRSA)and community-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). Which statements about CA-MRSA are true? (Select all that apply.)

A) 20% to 30% of the general population are colonized with CA-MRSA.

B) Boils caused by CA-MRSA can be treated without antibiotics.

C) CA-MRSA is less dangerous than HA-MRSA.

D) CA-MRSA does not cause necrotizing fasciitis.

E) CA-MRSA is transmitted by airborne droplets.

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Page 86

Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin

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13 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing,rash,pruritus,and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:

A) allergic reaction.

B) red man syndrome.

C) rhabdomyolysis.

D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

Q2) A patient is to undergo orthopedic surgery,and the prescriber will order a cephalosporin to be given preoperatively as prophylaxis against infection. The nurse expects the provider to order which cephalosporin?

A) First-generation cephalosporin

B) Second-generation cephalosporin

C) Third-generation cephalosporin

D) Fourth-generation cephalosporin

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87

Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking linezolid [Zyvox] for 6 months develops vision problems. What will the nurse do?

A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect of this drug.

B) Tell the patient that blindness is likely to occur with this drug.

C) Tell the patient that this symptom is reversible when the drug is discontinued.

D) Tell the patient to take tyramine supplements to minimize this effect.

Q2) Which side effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] causes the most concern and may warrant discontinuation of the drug?

A) Diarrhea

B) Headache

C) Nausea

D) Vomiting

Q3) A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection?

A) Chloramphenicol

B) Clindamycin [Cleocin]

C) Linezolid [Zyvox]

D) Vancomycin

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients may receive gentamicin safely? (Select all that apply.)

A) A 6-day-old newborn

B) A 5-year-old child

C) A pregnant woman

D) A woman breast-feeding an infant

E) An elderly patient with renal disease

Q2) A patient who is taking gentamicin and a cephalosporin for a postoperative infection requests medication for mild postsurgical pain. The nurse will expect to administer which of the following medications?

A) Acetaminophen

B) Aspirin

C) Ibuprofen

D) Morphine

Q3) A nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient receiving an aminoglycoside. The report reveals an anaerobic organism as the cause of infection. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to discuss an increased risk of aminoglycoside toxicity.

B) Continue giving the aminoglycoside as ordered.

C) Request an order for a different class of antibiotic.

D) Suggest adding a penicillin to the patient's drug regimen.

Page 89

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ,160/800 mg orally,twice daily. Before administering the third dose,the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash,a temperature of 103°F,and a heart rate of 100 beats per minute. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication.

B) Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash.

C) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.

D) Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.

Q2) A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]. A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide [Sulfamylon],because the two are similar products,and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine?

A) It causes increased pain when the medication is applied.

B) It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity.

C) It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver.

D) It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin] is prescribed for an adolescent female patient with acute cystitis. What should the nurse include in the teaching for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Make sure you tell your prescriber if you might be pregnant."

B) "If you experience any tingling or numbness, stop taking the drug and call the clinic immediately."

C) "Headaches and drowsiness can occur and are mild side effects."

D) "You should not take sulfonamides while taking this medication."

E) "Your urine may have a brown tinge while you are taking this drug."

Q2) A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will:

A) begin a 2-week course of antibiotics.

B) evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract.

C) initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics.

D) treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.

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Chapter

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex

Infection

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21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to begin treatment with isoniazid. The nurse learns that the patient also takes phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) increasing the phenytoin dose.

B) reducing the isoniazid dose.

C) monitoring isoniazid levels.

D) monitoring phenytoin levels.

Q2) A patient who has drug-sensitive tuberculosis has completed 2 months of the standard four-drug therapy and asks the nurse how long he will have to take medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "As long as you remain symptomatic, you will not have to take more medication."

B) "The four-drug regimen will continue for 3 more months."

C) "You will have to take maintenance drugs indefinitely."

D) "You will need to take only two drugs for the next 4 months."

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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11 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]

D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

E) Ofloxacin

Q2) A patient who is taking calcium supplements receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a urinary tract infection. The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) consume extra fluids while taking the ciprofloxacin to prevent hypercalciuria.

B) stop taking the calcium supplements while taking the ciprofloxacin.

C) take the two medications together to increase the absorption of both.

D) take the calcium either 6 hours before or 2 hours after taking the ciprofloxacin.

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8485

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking oral ketoconazole [Nizoral] for a systemic fungal infection. The nurse reviews the medication administration record and notes that the patient is also taking omeprazole [Prilosec] for reflux disease. What action should the nurse take?

A) Administer the omeprazole 1 hour before the ketoconazole.

B) Administer the omeprazole at least 2 hours after the ketoconazole.

C) Confer with the prescriber about a potential hazardous interaction.

D) The nurse should not administer omeprazole to a patient receiving ketoconazole.

Q2) A patient is being treated with amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. After several weeks of therapy,the provider orders flucytosine [Ancobon] in addition to the amphotericin. The nurse understands that the rationale for this combination is that it:

A) broadens the antifungal spectrum.

B) improves the effectiveness of the amphotericin B.

C) lowers the dose of amphotericin B and reduces toxicity.

D) treats fungal central nervous system (CNS) infection.

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94

Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral

Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient with cytomegalovirus (CMV)retinitis who will receive the ganciclovir ocular implant [Vitrasert]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "My vision may be blurred for 2 to 4 weeks after receiving the implant."

B) "Surgical placement of the implant is an outpatient procedure."

C) "The implant will remain in place permanently."

D) "The implant will slow progression of CMV retinitis."

Q2) A patient who is pregnant has a history of recurrent genital herpesvirus (HSV). The patient asks the nurse what will be done to suppress an outbreak when she is near term. The nurse will tell the patient that:

A) antiviral medications are not safe during pregnancy.

B) intravenous antiviral agents will be used if an outbreak occurs.

C) oral acyclovir [Zovirax] may be used during pregnancy.

D) topical acyclovir [Zovirax] must be used to control outbreaks.

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95

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8487

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse asks a graduate nurse,"When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed,which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) Respiratory distress

B) Fever

C) Myalgia

D) Lymphadenopathy

E) Insomnia

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and has a previous history of drug and alcohol abuse. The patient is being treated with combination therapies,including didanosine [Videx]. Which laboratory findings would most concern the nurse?

A) Increased serum amylase and triglycerides and decreased serum calcium

B) Decreased serum amylase and serum triglycerides and increased serum calcium

C) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

D) Increased serum amylase, decreased triglycerides, and increased platelets

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96

Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8488

Sample Questions

Q1) During a routine screening,an asymptomatic,pregnant patient at 37 weeks' gestation learns that she has an infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug?

A) Azithromycin

B) Doxycycline

C) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

D) Sulfisoxazole

Q2) A female patient has come to the STD clinic and has been diagnosed with a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. What education should be provided to this patient?

A) Male partners should always be treated, even if they are asymptomatic.

B) The applicator for the vaginal gel should be washed after each application.

C) The infection is not completely eliminated with the medication.

D) The medication should be taken twice daily for 2 weeks.

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department after a bicycle-automobile accident with multiple dirty abrasions. Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?

A) Hydrogen peroxide

B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)

C) Povidone iodine [Betadine]

D) Soap and water

Q2) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted,the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:

A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.

B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.

C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.

D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.

Q3) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?

A) A patient with a systemic infection

B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess

C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate

D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis

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Page 98

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count,which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?

A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)

B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)

C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)

D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)

Q2) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

A) Fever

B) Nausea and vomiting

C) Rash with pruritus

D) Blurred vision

E) Bone and joint pain

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has contracted falciparum malaria has received a prescription for artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem] and tells the nurse she thinks she may be pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Ask your provider about taking only the artemether component."

B) "The medication should be taken with food to prevent nausea."

C) "This drug is safe during the first trimester of pregnancy."

D) "You should talk to your provider about a different medication."

Q2) A patient who is a missionary has returned from Africa to the United States and has completed treatment for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The provider has determined that clinical cure has been achieved. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:

A) beginning medications for a radical cure.

B) beginning suppressive therapy.

C) reporting visual disturbances and headaches.

D) using insect repellents and mosquito netting.

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100

Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8492

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving an inhalation treatment with pentamidine [NebuPent]. The patient begins to cough and states that he is having trouble breathing. What is the best action by the nurse?

A) Administer a PRN dose of a bronchodilator.

B) Discontinue the inhalation treatment.

C) Nothing, because these are expected adverse effects of pentamidine.

D) Reduce the rate of the inhalation treatment.

Q2) A patient taking metronidazole [Flagyl] for asymptomatic intestinal amebiasis complains of tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Encourage the patient to exercise to improve circulation.

B) Inform the patient that numbness is a common and reversible side effect.

C) Stress the need to avoid constrictive clothing and crossing the legs.

D) Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber.

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child is seen in a clinic with a chief complaint of itching,especially at night. The nurse observes small ridges and dotted lines of erythema on the child's neck and buttocks. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication initially?

A) Benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]

B) Ivermectin [Stromectol]

C) Malathion [Ovide]

D) Permethrin [Elimite]

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with head lice. The nurse practitioner orders malathion [Ovide] for treatment. What information should be provided to the patient?

(Select all that apply.)

A) "Scalp irritation could occur."

B) "The drug has a bad odor."

C) "The lotion contains alcohol; use caution around fire."

D) "Significant drug interactions can occur."

E) "After applying the lotion to the scalp and hair, allow it to dry naturally."

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102

Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has leukemia is receiving chemotherapy and develops severe anemia. The provider has ordered hospitalization and blood transfusions. The patient asks the nurse about using erythropoietin (epoetin alfa)instead. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Ask your provider about ordering erythropoietin instead of a transfusion."

B) "Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) can make your leukemia worse."

C) "Erythropoietin is used to prolong life in patients with myeloid malignancies."

D) "You will probably receive erythropoietin along with the transfusion."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about how cytotoxic anticancer drugs affect normal cells. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of this teaching?

A) "Cytotoxic drugs lack tissue specificity."

B) "Cytotoxic drugs have a high degree of selective toxicity."

C) "Differences between cancer cells and normal cells are qualitative."

D) "Neoplastic cells and normal tissue cells are very different."

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103

Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase-specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain?

A) Cell-cycle phase-nonspecific drugs are less toxic.

B) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs do not harm "resting" cells.

C) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs should be given at specific intervals.

D) Neither type is toxic to cells in the "resting" G₀ phase.

Q2) A patient who has urinary bladder cancer will begin receiving the chemotherapeutic agent valrubicin [Valstar]. What will the nurse do when administering this drug?

A) Administer the drug intravenously using a large bore needle and tubing.

B) Ensure that the tubing used to administer the drug does not contain polyvinyl chloride.

C) Monitor the patient closely for a variety of systemic drug adverse effects.

D) Use a normal saline or sterile water diluent to dilute the medication.

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?

A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."

B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."

C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."

D) "This drug must be given intravenously."

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a second infusion of trastuzumab [Herceptin] to a patient who has breast cancer. The patient tells the nurse that she experienced chills,fever,pain,and nausea after her first infusion. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request a CBC to assess for neutropenia.

B) Ensure that oxygen and respiratory support measures are readily available.

C) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will diminish with each infusion.

D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram.

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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin using a fixed-dose preparation of dorzolamide and timolol [Cosopt] for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Blurred vision, tearing, or eye dryness may occur with this medication."

B) "I may experience a bitter taste in my mouth after instilling these eye drops."

C) "I will need to instill two eye drops 3 times daily in each eye."

D) "If I notice redness in my eyes or eyelids, I should stop using these drops."

Q2) A patient begins using timolol [Timoptic] to treat primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). The nurse gives a dose and notes that the patient develops shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and auscultates wheezes in both lungs. The nurse will ask this patient about a history of which condition?

A) Asthma

B) Atrioventricular heart block

C) Pulmonary hypertension

D) Sinus bradycardia

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106

Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent has begun using benzoyl peroxide lotion twice daily to treat acne. The patient reports experiencing drying and burning of the skin. What will the nurse suggest?

A) Applying lotion to the skin after applying the drug

B) Reducing the frequency to one application a day

C) Discontinuing the medication, because this is likely an allergic reaction

D) Requesting a prescription for a gel formulation of the drug

Q2) A 50-year-old patient receives botulinum toxin type A [Botox] injections for the first time on her forehead and around her eyes. One week later,she calls the clinic to report that she is experiencing droopy eyelids. The nurse will tell the patient that this effect:

A) is normal and will resolve in a few days.

B) may persist for 3 to 6 months but will resolve.

C) may progress to cause drooling and dysphagia.

D) represents an adverse effect that may be permanent.

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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:

A) acidifying drops for 1 week.

B) antibiotic ear drops.

C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.

D) oral antibiotics.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a parent about the observation strategy for managing a 3-year-old child's ear infection. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should not give analgesics, because they may mask important symptoms."

B) "I will give ibuprofen or acetaminophen for pain or fever as needed."

C) "I will let my provider know if the symptoms are not better in 1 week."

D) "There is a slight risk of mastoiditis if antibiotic therapy is delayed."

Q3) Which are components of otitis externa management? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops

B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator

C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming

D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear

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Page 108

Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate [Xyrem] for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:

A) alcohol.

B) beta blockers.

C) caffeine.

D) nicotine.

Q2) A patient who has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)is receiving epoprostenol [Flolan] at a rate of 210 ng per minute using a portable pump. The patient weighs 70 kg. The patient calls the clinic to report headache,nausea,and vomiting. The nurse will counsel the patient to:

A) decrease the infusion to 100 ng per minute.

B) discuss these side effects with the provider.

C) prepare for a hospital admission.

D) stop the infusion and contact the provider.

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109

Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse how to know whether dietary supplements are safe. The nurse will tell this patient that:

A) any standards addressing safety merely regulate labeling and manufacturing processes.

B) manufacturers must provide the FDA with efficacy claims prior to marketing their supplements.

C) the DSHEA requires labeling that prohibits claims of treatment of specific diseases or conditions.

D) the FDA must approve dietary supplements prior to marketing them in the United States.

Q2) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Energizes and rejuvenates"

B) "Promotes pulmonary health"

C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis"

D) "Reduces stress"

E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause"

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Page 110

Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingestion of an unknown substance. The patient has been vomiting and complains of abdominal pain. The nurse observes that the patient's oral mucous membranes are dry,the heart rate is 88 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. The nurse will prepare to initially:

A) administer an antiemetic.

B) give activated charcoal.

C) infuse normal saline as an IV bolus.

D) obtain blood for toxicology testing.

Q2) An alert child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting gasoline. The nurse will prepare to administer which treatment to minimize poison absorption in this child?

A) Activated charcoal

B) Chelation therapy

C) Gastric lavage with aspiration

D) Whole bowel irrigation

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."

B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."

C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."

D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."

Q2) The nurse is providing smallpox vaccinations after determining that an individual who works for a local military laboratory was exposed. After administering the vaccine,how should the nurse instruct the individual to care for the site?

A) Cover the site with a bandage.

B) Leave the site open to the air.

C) Cover the site with a nonpermeable, occlusive dressing.

D) Cover the site with sterile gauze and tape the edges.

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