Medication Administration for Nurses Exam Materials - 1439 Verified Questions

Medication Administration for Nurses

Exam Materials

Course Introduction

This course provides nursing students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills in the safe administration of medications. Topics include drug classifications, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, dosage calculations, and the principles of safe medication practices. Emphasis is placed on the "Five Rights" of medication administration (right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time), documentation, and the prevention of medication errors. Students also learn about legal and ethical considerations, patient education, and the management of adverse reactions. Clinical simulations and case studies help students apply theoretical concepts to real-world nursing scenarios.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum

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110 Chapters

1439 Verified Questions

1439 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome?

A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect

B) Decreased motivation to take the drug

C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen

D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose

Answer: C

Q2) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse consults a drug manual before giving a medication to an 80-year-old patient. The manual states that older adult patients are at increased risk for hepatic side effects. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to discuss an order for pretreatment laboratory work.

B) Ensure that the drug is given in the correct dose at the correct time to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

C) Notify the provider that this drug is contraindicated for this patient.

D) Request an order to give the medication intravenously so that the drug does not pass through the liver.

Answer: A

Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about home administration of insulin to treat diabetes mellitus. As part of the teaching, the patient and nurse identify goals to maintain specific blood glucose ranges. This represents which aspect of the nursing process?

A) Assessment

B) Evaluation

C) Implementation

D) Planning

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA) was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety?

A) Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses

B) Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use

C) Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly

D) Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market

Answer: B

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?

A) A loading dose was not given.

B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.

C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.

D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.

Q2) A patient is given a prescription for azithromycin [Zithromax] and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct?

A) "A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster."

B) "The first dose is larger to minimize the first-pass effect of the liver."

C) "The four smaller doses help the body taper the amount of drug more gradually."

D) "Tubular reabsorption is faster with initial doses, so more is needed at first."

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6

Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?

A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.

B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.

C) It gives the receptor a new function.

D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.

Q2) A patient reports becoming "immune" to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by:

A) antagonists produced by the body that compete with the drug for receptor sites.

B) decreased selectivity of receptor sites, resulting in a variety of effects.

C) desensitization of receptor sites by continual exposure to the drug.

D) synthesis of more receptor sites in response to the medication.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?

A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.

B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.

C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.

D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.

Q2) A patient taking oral contraceptives thinks she may be pregnant. As part of this patient's history, what will the nurse ask the patient?

A) "Do you drink grapefruit juice?"

B) "Do you take seizure medication?"

C) "Do you take your contraception with milk?"

D) "Do you use laxatives regularly?"

Q3) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?

A) Alcoholic beverages

B) Aged cheeses

C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage

D) Grapefruit juice

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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a drug that has known toxic side effects. What will the nurse do?

A) Discontinue the drug at the first signs of toxicity.

B) Ensure that complete blood counts are ordered periodically.

C) Monitor the function of all organs potentially affected by the drug.

D) Teach the patient how to treat the symptoms if they develop.

Q2) Which are effective ways to help prevent medication errors?

A) Developing nonpunitive approaches to track errors

B) Focusing on caregivers who make errors

C) Helping patients to be active, informed members of the healthcare team

D) Naming, blaming, and shaming those who make errors

E) Using electronic medical order entry systems

Q3) A nurse is preparing to give an antibiotic to a patient who reports being allergic to antibiotics. Before giving the medication, what will the nurse do first?

A) Ask whether the patient has taken this antibiotic for other infections.

B) Question the patient about allergies to other medications.

C) Request an order for a lower dose of the antibiotic.

D) Request an order for an antihistamine.

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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is assessing a newly admitted older patient who has recently lost 15 lb. The nurse notes that the patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory tests will the nurse discuss with this patient's provider?

A) Blood glucose and C-reactive protein

B) Complete blood count and hepatic function tests

C) Renal function tests and serum electrolytes

D) Serum albumin and coagulation studies

Q2) A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?

A) Altered bioavailability of the drug

B) Patient compliance with the therapeutic regimen

C) Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals

D) Placebo effects enhancing expectations of drug efficacy

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why more is not known about the teratogenic effects of maternal medication ingestion during pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Clinical trials to assess this risk would put the fetus at risk."

B) "It is safer to recommend that pregnant women avoid medications while pregnant."

C) "Most women are reluctant to admit taking medications while they are pregnant."

D) "The relatively new MEPREP study will allow testing of medications during pregnancy in the future."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?

A) Immediately before conception

B) During the first trimester

C) During the second trimester

D) During the third trimester

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11

Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered medication for a newborn. The medication is eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism. The nurse expects the prescriber to:

A) order a dose that is lower than an adult dose.

B) order a dose that is higher than an adult dose.

C) increase the frequency of medication dosing.

D) discontinue the drug after one or two doses.

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research?

A) Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children.

B) Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing.

C) Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children.

D) There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.

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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol.

B) Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching.

C) Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol].

D) Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach a forgetful older adult patient about a multiple drug regimen to follow after discharge from the hospital. To help promote adherence, what will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to share the teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge.

B) Give the patient detailed written information about each drug.

C) Cluster medication administration times as much as possible.

D) Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug.

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?

A) Bradycardia

B) Positive inotropic effects

C) Prolonged receptor activation

D) Tachycardia

Q2) A nursing student asks about drugs that interfere with the termination of transmitter action. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Drugs act on this process by altering the diffusion of the transmitter away from the synaptic gap."

B) "Drugs can interfere with termination by either increasing or decreasing reuptake of the transmitter."

C) "Drugs in this category lead to decreased activation by the transmitter in the synapse."

D) "These drugs reduce either reuptake or degradation of the transmitter, causing an increase in receptor activation."

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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is explaining activation of beta₂ receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "Beta₂ activation results in bronchodilation."

B) "Beta₂ activation results in contraction of uterine muscle."

C) "Beta₂ activation results in glycogenolysis."

D) "Beta₂ activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."

Q2) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased sweating

B) Bronchodilation

C) Increased cardiac output

D) Pinpoint pupils

Q3) What is the target organ when a beta₁ agonist is administered?

A) Heart

B) Kidney

C) Respiratory

D) Liver

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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?

A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV

B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]

C) An acetylcholinesterase activator

D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]

Q2) A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would expect the drug to have which action?

A) Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient

B) Lowering of intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma

C) Inhibition of muscular activity in the bladder

D) Prevention of hypertensive crisis

Q3) Bethanechol [Urecholine] is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition?

A) Gastric ulcers

B) Gastroesophageal reflux

C) Hypotension

D) Intestinal obstruction

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16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what?

A) Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases.

B) Be prepared to administer atropine and oxygen if muscle weakness increases.

C) Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen.

D) Give pralidoxime [Protopam] if cholinergic symptoms worsen.

Q2) Two nurses are discussing the major differences between physostigmine [Antilirium] and neostigmine [Prostigmin]. One nurse correctly makes which statement about physostigmine [Antilirium]?

A) "It is not effective for treating poisoning by muscarinic blocking drugs."

B) "It can readily cross the blood-brain barrier."

C) "It does not cause any side effects."

D) "It can be given by all routes."

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing nursing actions for emergency treatment of malignant hyperthermia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Analgesics should be given to help with muscle pain."

B) "Dantrolene helps to slow the metabolic activity in skeletal muscles."

C) "If malignant hyperthermia occurs, the succinylcholine must be stopped immediately."

D) "The patient may need an intravenous infusion of cold saline."

Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:

A) has fallen asleep.

B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.

C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.

D) may need mechanical ventilation.

Q3) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why epinephrine, and not other adrenergic agonists, is used to treat anaphylactic shock. What will the nurse tell the student?

A) "Epinephrine is the only adrenergic agonist that may be given parenterally."

B) "Epinephrine has the ability to activate multiple types of adrenergic receptors."

C) "Other adrenergic agonists have more severe adverse effects and are not safe in the doses needed to treat anaphylaxis."

D) "Other adrenergic agonists have little or no effects on beta₂-adrenergic receptors."

Q2) A nursing student asks why albuterol, which is selective for beta₂ receptors, causes an increased heart rate in some patients. How should the nurse respond?

A) "Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."

B) "Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia."

C) "Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects."

D) "Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."

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19

Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 day after delivery. The infant's mother used betaxolol during pregnancy. The nurse will expect to monitor this infant for which condition?

A) Hyperglycemia

B) Hyperthyroidism

C) Respiratory distress

D) Tachycardia

Q2) A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

A) Alfuzosin [Uroxatral]

B) Prazosin [Minipress]

C) Silodosin [Rapaflo]

D) Tamsulosin [Flomax]

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Severe pain

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the pharmacology of methyldopa. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Methyldopa results in alpha₂ agonist activation, but it is not itself an alpha₂ agonist."

B) "Methyldopa is not effective until it is converted to an active compound."

C) "Methyldopa reduces blood pressure by reducing cardiac output."

D) "Methyldopa's principal mechanism is vasodilation, not cardiosuppression."

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults?

A) Blood-brain barrier

B) First-pass effect

C) Gastrointestinal absorption

D) Renal filtration

Q2) A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs, it means the patient:

A) has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug.

B) may need increased amounts of the drug over time.

C) will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly.

D) will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.

Q3) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?

A) Analgesia

B) Anesthesia

C) Depression

D) Euphoria

E) Seizure control

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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking rotigotine [Neupro] to treat Parkinson disease. What will the nurse include in teaching?

A) "If you develop nausea and vomiting, you should stop taking the medication."

B) "If you need to stop this drug, your provider will order a gradual withdrawal."

C) "You will start this drug regimen with a higher than usual loading dose."

D) "You will take this medication by mouth with food."

Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease (PD) and begins treatment with levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. After several months of therapy, the patient reports no change in symptoms. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) add a dopamine agonist.

B) discuss the "on-off" phenomenon.

C) increase the dose of Sinemet.

D) re-evaluate the diagnosis.

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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine [Namenda] for Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease."

B) "Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."

C) "Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves their function."

D) "Memantine and donepezil combined may stop progression of Alzheimer's disease."

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer memantine [Nemanda] to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Adding sodium bicarbonate to the patient's drug regimen

B) Continuing the memantine as ordered

C) Discontinuing the memantine

D) Reducing the dose of memantine

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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Q1) A patient is about to begin therapy with fingolimod [Gilenya] to treat multiple sclerosis. The nurse learns that the patient has not had chickenpox or the varicella zoster virus (VZV) vaccine. What will the nurse do?

A) Advise the patient to avoid individuals with chickenpox.

B) Give the VZV vaccine with the initial dose of fingolimod.

C) Give the VZV vaccine and tell the patient to begin using fingolimod in 1 month.

D) Obtain an order for a VZV antibody test.

Q2) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what?

A) Preventing the development of MS

B) Primary progressive MS

C) Progressive-relapsing MS

D) Relapsing-remitting MS

E) Secondary progressive MS

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Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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Q1) A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid [Depakote] for seizures. After a week of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient if she is taking the valproic acid with food, because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects.

B) Contact the provider to request an order for a blood ammonia level, because hyperammonemia can occur with valproic acid therapy.

C) Suggest that the patient perform a home pregnancy test, because valproic acid can reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives.

D) Suspect that hepatotoxicity has occurred, because this is a common adverse effect of valproic acid.

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?

A) Preparing to support respirations

B) Administering an antidote to baclofen

C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures

D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram

Q3) A patient with cerebral palsy who has been receiving baclofen [Lioresal] via gastrostomy tube for 3 months is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of new-onset seizures. What may the nurse suspect to be the cause of these seizures?

A) Baclofen toxicity

B) Common adverse effect of baclofen

C) Idiopathic causes related to disease process

D) Missed doses of baclofen

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered?

A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure

B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects

C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region

D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater

E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?

A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."

B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."

C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."

D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."

Q3) A nurse is teaching a patient who has a second-degree burn on one arm about the use of a topical anesthetic for pain. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I will apply a thin layer of the medication to a small area of skin."

B) "I will cover the burn with a dressing after applying the medication."

C) "I will make sure to apply the medication to the entire burn area."

D) "I will use the medication only on the most painful, blistered areas."

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Page 28

Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse caring for a patient after a cesarean section learns that the patient received isoflurane [Forane] during the surgery. What will the nurse monitor most closely in this patient?

A) Hypertension

B) Nausea and vomiting

C) Constipation

D) Uterine tone

Q2) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?

A) Bethanechol

B) Droperidol

C) Promethazine

D) Ondansetron

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

29

Chapter

28:

Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.

B) changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.

C) confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.

D) withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.

Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who report finding the patient difficult to awaken. The friends report removing two fentanyl transdermal patches from the patient's arm. On admission to the emergency department, the patient has pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute. A few minutes after administration of naloxone, the respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and the patient's pupils are dilated. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as signs of:

A) a mild opioid overdose.

B) decreased opioid drug levels.

C) improved ventilation.

D) worsening hypoxia.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30

Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking a fixed-dose combination drug with an opioid and acetaminophen for cancer pain reports increased muscular pain. The patient asks the nurse if the pain medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) An adjuvant analgesic medication will probably be used to help with this pain.

B) An additional dose of acetaminophen can be used to enhance pain relief.

C) Increasing the dose is possible, because there is no ceiling to opioid pain relief.

D) The provider will prescribe separate dosing of the opioid and acetaminophen.

Q2) An 8-year-old child with advanced cancer has an order for oxycodone [OxyContin] PO, PRN for moderate to severe pain. The nurse notes that the child is constantly playing computer games and repeatedly denies having pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the oxycodone at regular intervals around the clock.

B) Contact the provider to discuss using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA).

C) Reassure the child's parent that the child will ask for pain medication as needed.

D) Tell the child to notify the nurse when pain is present.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches. The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and/or risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include what?

A) Female gender

B) Male gender

C) Complaints of nausea and vomiting

D) Short duration (15 minutes to 2 hours)

E) Auras before the onset of headache pain

F) Throbbing, sometimes piercing pain

Q2) A young woman with migraine headaches who has recently begun taking sumatriptan [Imitrex] calls the nurse to report a sensation of chest and arm heaviness. The nurse questions the patient and determines that she feels pressure and not pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about any history of hypertension or coronary artery disease.

B) Determine whether the patient might be pregnant.

C) Reassure the patient that this is a transient, reversible side effect of sumatriptan.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the medication immediately.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse and a nursing student are discussing the plan of care for a patient with schizophrenia. The patient, who has been taking a high-potency FGA for 2 months, has become restless and constantly needs to be in motion. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?

A) "Anticholinergic medications may help control these symptoms."

B) "Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA."

C) "The provider may try a low-potency FGA instead of the high-potency FGA."

D) "This patient may need to take a benzodiazepine or a beta blocker."

Q2) Which side effects are more common in second-generation antipsychotic medications than in first-generation antipsychotic medications?

A) Agranulocytosis

B) Anticholinergic effects

C) Extrapyramidal symptoms

D) Metabolism by CYP3A4

E) Prolactin elevation

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 33

Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after taking a handful of TCA pills. The nurse will expect to provide what when caring for this patient?

A) Cardiac monitoring

B) Cholinesterase inhibitors

C) Gastric lavage and activated charcoal

D) Sedative medications

E) Procainamide

Q2) A patient who has been taking an SSRI tells the nurse that the drug has caused reduced sexual performance, weight gain, and sedation. The nurse will suggest that the patient ask the provider about using which drug?

A) Bupropion [Wellbutrin]

B) Imipramine [Tofranil]

C) Isocarboxazid [Marplan]

D) Trazodone [Oleptro]

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34

Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who wants to minimize the need for drug therapy asks the nurse what else can be done to treat the disorder. The nurse will recommend which measures?

A) Electroconvulsive therapy

B) Moderate use of alcohol to reduce stress

C) Psychotherapy

D) Regular sleep and exercise

E) Using a chart to monitor mood changes

Q2) A patient recently was diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The patient, who has a history of seasonal allergies, is an athlete who participates in track. The nurse is teaching the patient about lithium [Lithobid], which the prescriber has just ordered. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "I can continue to use ibuprofen as needed for muscle pain."

B) "I should drink extra fluids before and during exercise."

C) "I should not use antihistamines while taking lithium."

D) "I should report muscle weakness and tremors to my provider."

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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient?

A) Flurazepam

B) Trazodone [Desyrel]

C) Zaleplon [Sonata]

D) Zolpidem [Ambien]

Q2) Which sedative-hypnotics are useful for both difficulty falling asleep and difficulty maintaining sleep?

A) Eszopiclone [Lunesta]

B) Flurazepam [Dalmane]

C) Temazepam [Restoril]

D) Triazolam [Halcion]

E) Extended-release zolpidem [Ambien CR]

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

C) Panic disorder

D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Q2) A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Buspirone [Buspar]

C) Deep brain stimulation

D) Fluoxetine [Paxil]

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder about methylphenidate [Concerta]. Which statement by the child's parents indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "The effects of this drug will wear off in 4 to 6 hours."

B) "The tablet needs to be swallowed whole, not crushed or chewed."

C) "This medication has fewer side effects than amphetamines."

D) "We should call the provider if we see parts of the medicine in our child's stools."

Q2) A nurse is providing education to a group of patients regarding amphetamines. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks a participant what effects amphetamines would have on her. The participant shows that she understands the effects of these drugs if she gives which answers?

A) "Amphetamines increase fatigue."

B) "Amphetamines suppress the perception of pain."

C) "Amphetamines increase appetite."

D) "Amphetamines increase the heart rate."

E) "Amphetamines elevate mood."

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38

Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a class on addiction. Which statement by one of the class participants indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Addictive drugs lead to dopamine release in amounts similar to those released by normal reward circuits."

B) "Neural remodeling leads to decreased dopamine release, leaving users with feelings of lifelessness and depression."

C) "Over time, the brain will develop reduced responses to many addictive drugs."

D) "With the use of a drug over time, the brain undergoes synaptic remodeling."

Q2) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:

A) addiction.

B) psychologic dependence.

C) tolerance.

D) withdrawal syndrome.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is an alcoholic is prescribed disulfiram [Antabuse] to help prevent relapse and the nurse provides teaching about the use of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may use alcohol in cooking since heating foods destroys the alcohol."

B) "I should avoid shaving lotion and mouthwashes that contain even small amounts of alcohol."

C) "If I decide to drink, I should stop taking the disulfiram at least one week prior to consuming alcohol."

D) "If I use alcohol, the effects will be uncomfortable but are not dangerous."

Q2) A patient who is an active alcoholic is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The nurse reviewing orders for this patient would be correct to question which postoperative medication for this patient?

A) Acetaminophen

B) Diazepam

C) Morphine

D) Thiamine

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation class in the community and is discussing the physiologic effects of nicotine. The nurse is correct to teach that these effects include which of the following?

A) Increased blood pressure

B) Decreased gastric acid

C) Vomiting

D) Suppression of nausea

E) Increased alertness

F) Suppression of appetite

Q2) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."

B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."

C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."

D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934

Sample Questions

Q1) A young adult patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of severe weight loss. The nurse admitting this patient notes that the patient has missing teeth and severe tooth decay. The patient's blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. The patient has difficulty answering questions and has trouble remembering simple details. The nurse suspects abuse of which substance?

A) Cocaine

B) Ecstasy

C) Marijuana

D) Methamphetamine

Q2) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."

B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."

C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."

D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 42

Chapter 41: Diuretics

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication, the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Elevated creatinine clearance

B) Elevated serum potassium level

C) Normal blood glucose level

D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

Q2) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Furosemide [Lasix]

C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of muscle weakness and drowsiness. The nurse notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram reveals an abnormal rhythm. The nurse will question the patient about which over-the-counter medication?

A) Antacids

B) Aspirin

C) Laxatives

D) Potassium supplements

Q2) A patient who was injured at home is brought to the emergency department. The nurse caring for this patient notes a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. The injuries are minor, but the patient is inconsolable and hysterical. The nurse expects that initial management will include:

A) administering a gas mixture of 5% carbon dioxide (CO₂).

B) providing 100% oxygen via nasal cannula.

C) giving sodium bicarbonate IV.

D) providing sedatives to calm the patient.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Increased heart rate

C) Decreased blood pressure

D) Syncope

Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication, the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats/ min and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?

A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days

B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days

C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days

D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week

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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient who is not taking any other medications is prescribed aliskiren [Tekturna], a direct renin inhibitor (DRI). The nurse reviews medication information with the patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I get pregnant, I should stop taking this drug by the second trimester."

B) "If I take this drug with a high-fat meal, it will be more effective."

C) "I should restrict my potassium intake while taking this drug."

D) "I should take this medication 1 hour before sitting down to a meal."

Q2) A female patient taking an ACE inhibitor learns that she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) The fetus most likely will have serious congenital defects.

B) The fetus must be monitored closely while the patient is taking this drug.

C) The patient's prescriber probably will change her medication to an ARB.

D) The patient should stop taking the medication and contact her provider immediately.

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?

A) "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine."

B) "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet."

C) "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia."

D) "I will need to take this drug once a day."

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for: A) AV blockade.

B) gingival hyperplasia.

C) migraine headaches.

D) reflex tachycardia.

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?

A) "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair."

B) "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate."

C) "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time."

D) "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."

Q2) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension?

A) Minoxidil

B) Diltiazem [Cardizem]

C) Prazosin [Minipress]

D) Captopril [Capoten]

E) Losartan [Cozaar]

Q3) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?

A) Captopril PO

B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO

C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO

D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha₁ blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug.

B) Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug.

C) Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug.

D) Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.

Q2) A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:

A) ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications.

B) the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise.

C) increased calcium and potassium supplements.

D) thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with heart failure who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the nurse will expect the provider to evaluate:

A) complete blood count.

B) ejection fraction.

C) maximal exercise capacity.

D) serum electrolyte levels.

Q2) A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic for hypertension and quinidine to treat a dysrhythmia. The prescriber orders digoxin 0.125 mg to improve this patient's cardiac output. The nurse should contact the provider to request:

A) adding spironolactone [Aldactone].

B) reducing the dose of digoxin.

C) discontinuing the quinidine.

D) giving potassium supplements.

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking procainamide [Procanbid] for long-term suppression of a dysrhythmia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I need to take this drug at evenly spaced intervals around the clock."

B) "I may have increased bruising, but this is a temporary side effect."

C) "I should report pain and swelling in my joints when taking this drug."

D) "I will need to have blood tests at regular intervals while taking this drug."

Q2) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and quinidine to treat sustained ventricular tachycardia. Before giving medications, the nurse reviews the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) and notes a QRS complex that has widened by 50% from the baseline ECG. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medications as ordered, because this indicates improvement.

B) Contact the provider to discuss reducing the digoxin dose.

C) Contact the provider to request an increase in the quinidine dose.

D) Withhold the quinidine and contact the provider to report the ECG finding.

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medications and realizes that gemfibrozil [Lopid] and warfarin [Coumadin] are to be administered concomitantly. Which effect will the nurse anticipate in this patient?

A) Increased levels of gemfibrozil

B) Decreased levels of gemfibrozil

C) Increased anticoagulant effects

D) Reduced anticoagulant effects

Q2) A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor. Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?

A) "Statins reduce the risk of morbidity from influenza."

B) "You should come into the clinic for liver enzymes in 1 month."

C) "Statins reduce the risk of coronary events in people with normal LDL levels."

D) "You should maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid high-fat foods."

Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?

A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels

B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke

C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients

D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with new-onset exertional angina has taken three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals, but the pain has intensified. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats/min and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink, and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing:

A) an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.

B) intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker.

C) ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine.

D) supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.

Q2) A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states, "Nitroglycerin:

A) dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart."

B) increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle."

C) increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output."

D) promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."

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53

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking warfarin [Coumadin] for atrial fibrillation. The provider has ordered dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to replace the warfarin. The nurse teaches the patient about the change in drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may need to adjust the dose of dabigatran after weaning off the warfarin."

B) "I should continue to take the warfarin after beginning the dabigatran until my INR is greater than 3."

C) "I should stop taking the warfarin 3 days before starting the dabigatran."

D) "I will stop taking the warfarin and will start taking the dabigatran when my INR is less than 2."

Q2) A patient will begin taking dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to prevent stroke. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient?

A) Dabigatran should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

B) It is important not to crush, chew, or open capsules of dabigatran.

C) The risk of bleeding with dabigatran is less than that with warfarin [Coumadin].

D) To remember to take dabigatran twice daily, a pill organizer can be useful.

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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is evaluating a patient admitted to the emergency department with an evolving STEMI for possible administration of thrombolytic therapy. Which information, identified during history taking, would contraindicate this type of therapy?

A) The patient just completed her last menstrual cycle.

B) The patient states that the chest pain started 1 hour ago.

C) The patient has a history of a small cerebral aneurysm.

D) The patient has hypertension that is well controlled by diuretic therapy.

Q2) A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin, a beta blocker, and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m², and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) An antihypertensive medication

B) Counseling about a weight loss diet

C) Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor

D) High-dose statin therapy

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55

Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives, a low-grade temperature elevation, and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to:

A) administer subcutaneous epinephrine.

B) give an antipyretic medication.

C) give oral diphenhydramine.

D) provide respiratory support.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records, the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine. The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give:

A) both vaccines intramuscularly.

B) both vaccines subcutaneously.

C) the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously.

D) the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.

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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with vitamin B₁₂ deficiency is admitted with symptoms of hypoxia, anemia, numbness of hands and feet, and oral stomatitis. The nurse expects the prescriber to order which of the following therapies?

A) IM cyanocobalamin and folic acid

B) IM cyanocobalamin and antibiotics

C) PO cyanocobalamin and folic acid

D) PO cyanocobalamin and blood transfusions

Q2) What are the indications for administration of a parenteral iron preparation?

A) Blood loss of 750 mL/week

B) Celiac disease with anemia

C) History of alcoholism

D) Intestinal disease impairing absorption

E) Megaloblastic anemia

Q3) A patient tells a nurse that she is thinking about getting pregnant and asks about nutritional supplements. What will the nurse recommend?

A) A balanced diet high in green vegetables and grains

B) 400 to 800 mg of folic acid per day

C) A multivitamin with iron

D) Vitamin B₁₂ supplements

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Page 57

Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who has chronic renal failure and will begin receiving epoetin alfa [Epogen] about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug."

B) "Taking this drug will not eliminate my need for blood transfusions."

C) "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future."

D) "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."

Q2) A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA) is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion.

B) Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication.

C) Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly.

D) Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.

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58

Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include?

A) Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis

B) Cranial nerve testing for peripheral neuropathy

C) Pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency

D) Auscultation of the carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes expresses concern about losing her vision. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care to reduce this risk?

A) Initiation of reliable contraception to prevent pregnancy

B) Ways to reduce hyperglycemic episodes

C) Use of a prokinetic drug (eg, metoclopramide)

D) Smoking cessation

E) Emphasis on the importance of taking antihypertensive drugs consistently

Q3) What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period?

A) Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report

B) Patient's report

C) Fasting blood glucose level

D) Glycosylated hemoglobin level

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole [Tapazole] for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests."

B) "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs."

C) "I will need a complete blood count every few months."

D) "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."

Q2) A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the patient has a heart rate of 62 beats/min, a blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg, and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss tests for which condition?

A) Cretinism

B) Graves' disease

C) Hypothyroidism

D) Plummer's disease

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Conivaptan [Vaprisol]

B) Desmopressin [DDAVP]

C) Tolvaptan [Samsca]

D) Vasopressin [Pitressin]

Q2) A patient with acromegaly asks the nurse about treatments for this condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Drugs are generally used after surgical and radiation therapies have been tried.

B) Drug therapy is easy to administer.

C) Drug therapy is inexpensive.

D) Drug therapy is generally short term.

Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males?

A) Breast development

B) Decreased libido

C) Delayed puberty

D) Galactorrhea

E) Infertility

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is given 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11:00 PM; a plasma cortisol level recorded at 8:00 PM the next day is normal. The nurse knows that this is an indication that the patient has what condition?

A) Addison's disease

B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

C) Cushing's syndrome

D) Secondary adrenal insufficiency

Q2) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should move from sitting to standing slowly."

B) "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet."

C) "I should report weight loss to my provider."

D) "I should report excessive urine output."

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:

A) waistline and shoulders."

B) abdomen and arms."

C) breasts and abdomen."

D) thighs and calves."

Q2) According to studies of estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT), what are its known benefits?

A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients

B) Decreased osteoporosis risk

C) Glycemic control

D) Improved wound healing

E) Prevention of colorectal cancer

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63

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient calls a family planning clinic and tells the nurse that her vaginal ring, which has been in place for 2 weeks, came out sometime during the night while she was sleeping. The nurse will instruct her to:

A) clean the ring with warm water, reinsert it, and use condoms for 7 days.

B) discard the ring and insert a new ring after 1 week has passed.

C) discard the ring and insert a new one to begin a new cycle.

D) wash the ring in hot, soapy water and reinsert it.

Q2) A patient has been experiencing side effects with a combination oral contraceptive, and her provider has ordered a different combination product. The nurse will instruct the patient to do what?

A) Begin taking the new product immediately.

B) Change products at the beginning of her next cycle.

C) Stop taking the old OC 1 week before starting the new OC.

D) Use an alternate method of contraception for 1 month before starting the new OC.

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64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infertile couple begins treatment with menotropins. To enhance the therapeutic effects of the medication, the nurse will advise the patients to have intercourse:

A) before hCG injection and the following 2 to 3 days.

B) the morning of the hCG injection and later that evening.

C) the evening of the injection and the following day.

D) the evening of the injection and the following morning.

Q2) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:

A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.

B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.

C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.

D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.

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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient is being induced with oxytocin, which has been infusing for 1 hour. The initial rate was 6 milliunits/min, and the rate now is 18 milliunits/min. The nurse notes regular contractions occurring every 3 minutes, each lasting 35 seconds. The nurse will:

A) increase the rate of infusion by 1 to 2 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes.

B) increase the rate of infusion by 3 to 6 milliunits/min every 15 to 40 minutes.

C) interrupt the infusion and continue to monitor the patient before restarting.

D) interrupt the infusion and notify the provider of potential oxytocin toxicity.

Q2) Which are indications for early induction of labor?

A) Abruptio placentae

B) Active genital herpes infection

C) Gestational hypertension

D) Premature rupture of the membranes

E) Umbilical cord prolapse

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is obtaining a history and reviewing the chart of an adult male patient who has been taking oral androgens. Which assessment would warrant notifying the provider?

A) Acne and increased facial hair

B) Breast enlargement

C) Increased libido

D) Nausea, anorexia, and fatigue

Q2) A 14-year-old male patient has not begun puberty. His parents tell the nurse that their son does not want to go to school, because he gets teased. The nurse learns that the boy's father did not begin puberty until age 16 years. Laboratory tests on this child do not reveal true hypogonadism. What will the nurse tell these parents when they ask what can be done for their son?

A) "A limited course of androgen therapy may be prescribed, but it is not necessary."

B) "He will eventually begin puberty, so this is nothing to worry about."

C) "He will probably have to receive injections of androgens for 3 to 4 years."

D) "The risk of accelerated growth plate closure is too great to warrant androgen therapy."

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are contraindications for taking sildenafil [Viagra]?

A) Patients who are taking nitroglycerin for angina pectoris

B) Patients with nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION) in one eye

C) Patients with BPH who are taking alpha₁-adrenergic antagonists

D) Patients with a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg

E) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) in the past 6 months

Q2) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks about medications to treat this disorder, but tells the nurse he does not want to have to plan sexual activity several hours in advance. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Avanafil [Stendra]

B) Sildenafil [Viagra]

C) Tadalafil [Cialis]

D) Vardenafil [Levitra]

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68

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

Q2) A nurse is discussing the role of antibodies in the complement system with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student is correct?

A) "Antibodies activate the complement cascade by turning on the alternative pathway."

B) "Antibodies that are free in solution can activate the complement system."

C) "Antibodies flag target cells to be lysed by membrane attack complexes."

D) "Antibody receptors are nonspecific to antigenic determinants."

Q3) Which immune responses can result in harm to the body?

A) Activation of the complement system

B) Autoimmune response

C) IgE binding to mast cells and basophils

D) Opsonization

E) Recognition of MHC molecules as nonself

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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 4¹/ -year-old child who has been receiving high-dose systemic glucocorticoids for several months comes to a clinic for school immunizations, which usually include the DTaP vaccine; varicella virus vaccine [Varivax]; the measles, mumps, and rubella virus (MMR) vaccine; and the inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV). The clinic nurse will expect to administer which vaccines to this child?

A) All four school immunizations

B) DTaP and IPV only

C) DTaP, OPV, and Varivax only

D) DTaP and IPV, along with immunoglobulins

Q2) The parent of a child who attends day care questions the need for Varivax. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) "Chickenpox is not as contagious as other communicable diseases."

B) "The child will be protected by herd immunity and does not need the vaccine."

C) "Varicella is an uncomfortable disease, but it is not that serious."

D) "Varicella in adults can have serious consequences."

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer vaccines to a 1-year-old child. The parents ask the nurse to give the child acetaminophen before administering the vaccine to reduce the pain. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Children don't remember pain, so it isn't necessary to give acetaminophen."

B) "The small needles used to inject the vaccines cause hardly any discomfort."

C) "You can apply a topical anesthetic when you get home to reduce pain from the injection."

D) "Your child's immune response may not be as effective if I give acetaminophen before the vaccine."

Q2) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration?

A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.

B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.

C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.

D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.

E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders hydroxyzine [Vistaril] for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug?

A) The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema.

B) This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation.

C) The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.

D) The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.

Q2) A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. The child is uncoordinated and agitated. The nurse observes that the child's face is flushed, the temperature is 37.1°C, and the heart rate is 110 beats per minute. The nurse will expect to:

A) administer atropine to reverse the adverse effects.

B) apply ice packs to stop the flushing.

C) give activated charcoal to absorb the drug.

D) prepare to provide mechanical ventilation.

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who reports regular consumption of two or three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day."

B) "Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day."

C) "Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day."

D) "Do not take a fixed-dose preparation with opioid analgesics."

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking low-dose aspirin for several days. The nurse notes that the patient has copious amounts of watery nasal secretions and an urticarial rash. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) administering epinephrine.

B) changing to a first-generation NSAID.

C) reducing the dose of aspirin.

D) giving an antihistamine.

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73

Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis reports feeling bloated. The nurse notes edema of the patient's hands and feet. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Ask the patient about sodium intake.

B) Obtain a blood glucose level.

C) Suggest the patient limit potassium intake.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

Q2) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.

B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.

C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

Q3) A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child."

B) "Ask your provider about every other day dosing."

C) "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression."

D) "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."

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Page 74

Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking etanercept [Enbrel] for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The patient has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks if the etanercept is stronger than the methotrexate. The nurse will tell the patient that etanercept ____ methotrexate.

A) has synergistic effects with B) helps reduce adverse effects associated with C) is better at delaying progression of joint damage than D) has fewer adverse effects than

Q2) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of: A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests. B) limiting folic acid consumption.

C) reporting alopecia and rash.

D) taking the medication on a daily basis.

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?

A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.

B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.

D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.

Q2) A patient with gout who has increasingly frequent acute gouty attacks will begin receiving allopurinol [Zyloprim] and colchicine. The nurse will include which statement when teaching the patient about this drug regimen?

A) "Allopurinol helps reduce the gastrointestinal side effects of colchicine."

B) "Allopurinol reduces the likelihood of gouty episodes that usually occur with initial colchicine therapy."

C) "The colchicine is given to enhance the effects of the allopurinol."

D) "You will take both drugs initially and then stop taking the colchicine."

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with metastatic cancer has had several fractures secondary to bone metastases. The provider orders denosumab [Xgeva]. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) Denosumab may delay healing of these fractures.

B) Denosumab should be given subcutaneously every 12 months.

C) Denosumab will improve hypocalcemia.

D) Unlike bisphosphonates, denosumab does not increase osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ).

Q2) A patient taking risedronate IR [Actonel] for osteoporosis reports experiencing diarrhea and headaches. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) These are common side effects of this drug.

B) These symptoms indicate serious toxicity.

C) The patient should discuss taking risedronate DR [Atelvia] with the provider.

D) The medication should be taken after a meal to reduce symptoms.

Q3) Which drugs are approved for treating osteoporosis in men?

A) Alendronate [Fosamax]

B) Calcitonin

C) Raloxifene [Evista]

D) Teriparatide [Forteo]

E) Zoledronate [Reclast]

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the results of using glucocorticoid drugs to treat asthma?

A) Reduced bronchial hyperreactivity

B) Reduced edema of the airway

C) Reduced number of bronchial beta₂ receptors

D) Increased responsiveness to beta₂-adrenergic agonists

E) Increased synthesis of inflammatory mediators

Q2) A young adult woman will begin using an inhaled glucocorticoid to treat asthma.

The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of which action?

A) Lowering her calcium intake and increasing her vitamin D intake

B) Participating in weight-bearing exercises on a regular basis

C) Taking oral glucocorticoids during times of acute stress

D) Using two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy

Q3) A patient with asthma will be using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for delivery of an inhaled medication. The provider has ordered 2 puffs to be given twice daily. It is important for the nurse to teach this patient that:

A) the patient should inhale suddenly to receive the maximum dose.

B) the patient should activate the device and then inhale.

C) the patient should store the MDI in the refrigerator between doses.

D) the patient should wait 1 minute between puffs.

Page 78

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is ipratropium bromide [Atrovent]?

A) A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis

B) An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds

C) A medication that is used only in patients with asthma

D) A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis

Q2) A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms."

B) "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms."

C) "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms."

D) "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."

Q3) A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used."

B) "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old."

C) "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays."

D) "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is taking sucralfate [Carafate] and ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Sucralfate adheres to the ulcer and blocks the back-diffusion of hydrogen ions."

B) "Sucralfate and ciprofloxacin should be administered 1 hour apart."

C) "Sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects."

D) "Sucralfate has a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity."

Q2) Which are potentially worrisome adverse effects associated with proton pump inhibitor use in older patients?

A) Gastric cancer

B) Headaches

C) Medication interactions

D) Osteoporosis

E) Vitamin and mineral deficiencies

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient reports taking an oral bisacodyl laxative [Dulcolax] for several years. The provider has suggested discontinuing the laxative, but the patient is unsure how to do this. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) stop taking the oral laxative and use a suppository until normal motility resumes.

B) stop taking the laxative immediately and expect no stool for several days.

C) switch to a bulk-forming laxative, such as methylcellulose [Metamucil].

D) withdraw from the laxative slowly to avoid a rebound constipation effect.

Q2) Which laxatives may be used safely in infants?

A) Castor oil

B) Docusate sodium (Colace)

C) Glycerin suppositories

D) Lactulose

E) Milk of magnesia

Q3) Which condition would cause the nurse to withhold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide?

A) Chronic renal failure

B) Cirrhosis

C) Hemorrhoids

D) Prostatitis

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Page 81

Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse caring for a patient who is undergoing a third round of chemotherapy is preparing to administer ondansetron [Zofran] 30 minutes before initiation of the chemotherapy. The patient tells the nurse that the ondansetron did not work as well the last time as it had the first time. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the ondansetron at the same time as the chemotherapy.

B) Contact the provider to suggest using high-dose intravenous dolasetron [Anzemet].

C) Request an order to administer dexamethasone with the ondansetron.

D) Suggest to the provider that loperamide [Lomotil] be given with the ondansetron.

Q2) A patient is preparing to travel to perform missionary work in a region with poor drinking water. The provider gives the patient a prescription for ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to take on the trip. What will the nurse instruct this patient to do?

A) Combine the antibiotic with an antidiarrheal medication, such as loperamide.

B) Start taking the ciprofloxacin 1 week before traveling.

C) Take 1 tablet of ciprofloxacin with each meal for best results.

D) Use the drug if symptoms are severe or do not improve in a few days.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975

Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about the recommendations for vitamin supplements to prevent cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Foods rich in antioxidant vitamins may confer protection by other means."

B) "Observational studies provide clear proof that some antioxidants reduce the risk of cancer."

C) "Randomized controlled studies have not demonstrated cancer prevention benefits."

D) "Some vitamins have an increased cancer risk associated with too low and too high amounts."

Q2) A patient who is malnourished has scaling, cracked skin on the arms and face. The patient is irritable, anxious, and has difficulty sleeping. The patient complains of soreness of the tongue and mouth. When teaching this patient about vitamin therapy for this disorder, the nurse will tell the patient to report which side effects?

A) Abdominal cramps and diarrhea

B) Flushing, dizziness, and nausea

C) Migraine headaches

D) Numbness of feet and hands

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is counseling a group of patients who are beginning a weight-loss diet. The nurse discusses the role of exercise in weight management. Which statement by a patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Exercise has a greater role in weight-loss maintenance than in weight loss itself."

B) "Exercise helps by reducing abdominal fat and improving cardiovascular fitness."

C) "Once I lose weight, I can reduce the amount of time per week I exercise."

D) "I should begin with at least 30 minutes of exercise per day, 5 days per week."

Q2) A nurse is working with a group of patients. One patient states, "My goal is to reduce my weight from 280 to 230 lb in 6 months." What response by the nurse would be most appropriate for this patient?

A) "Most weight loss occurs in the first 6 months, so you should try to reduce your weight to 200 lb."

B) "Safe and maintainable weight loss should be about 10% of body weight in 6 months."

C) "That is a realistic goal for your weight-reduction program."

D) "Weight loss of more than 20 lb in 6 months could be dangerous."

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25977

Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse to clarify the differences between the mechanisms of spontaneous mutation and conjugation in acquired resistance of microbes. What will the nurse say?

A) Conjugation results in a gradual increase in resistance.

B) Conjugation results in random changes in the microbe's DNA.

C) Spontaneous mutation leads to resistance to only one antimicrobial agent.

D) Spontaneous mutation can transfer DNA from one organism to another.

Q2) Which patients should be given antibiotics prophylactically?

A) Children who attend day care with other children who have strep throat

B) Children undergoing chemotherapy who have mild neutropenia

C) Patients with certain congenital heart defects at risk for bacterial endocarditis

D) Patients with compound fractures undergoing surgical repair

E) Postoperative patients who have undergone emergency cesarean sections

Q3) Which are benefits of using a combination of two or more antibiotics?

A) Reduced cost

B) Reduced risk of superinfection

C) Reduced toxicity

D) Reduced resistance

E) Reduced risk in severe infection

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Page 85

Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I: Penicillins

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)?

A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) P. aeruginosa

D) S. pyogenes

E) T. pallidum

Q2) A nursing student wants to know the differences between hospital-associated methicillin-resistant S. aureus (HA-MRSA) and community-associated methicillin-resistant S. aureus (CA-MRSA). Which statements about CA-MRSA are true?

A) 20% to 30% of the general population are colonized with CA-MRSA.

B) Boils caused by CA-MRSA can be treated without antibiotics.

C) CA-MRSA is less dangerous than HA-MRSA.

D) CA-MRSA does not cause necrotizing fasciitis.

E) CA-MRSA is transmitted by airborne droplets.

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25979

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment?

A) Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.

B) Avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

C) Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs.

D) Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.

Q2) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefoxitin

D) Cefotaxime

Q3) A patient receiving a cephalosporin develops a secondary intestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile. What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Adding an antibiotic, such as vancomycin [Vancocin], to the patient's regimen

B) Discontinuing the cephalosporin and beginning metronidazole [Flagyl]

C) Discontinuing all antibiotics and providing fluid replacement

D) Increasing the dose of the cephalosporin and providing isolation measures

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25980

Sample Questions

Q1) Which side effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] causes the most concern and may warrant discontinuation of the drug?

A) Diarrhea

B) Headache

C) Nausea

D) Vomiting

Q2) A hospitalized patient who is taking demeclocycline [Declomycin] reports increased urination, fatigue, and thirst. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to report potential toxic side effects.

B) Notify the provider to discuss changing the medication to doxycycline.

C) Perform bedside glucometer testing to evaluate the serum glucose level.

D) Provide extra fluids and reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.

Q3) A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection?

A) Chloramphenicol

B) Clindamycin [Cleocin]

C) Linezolid [Zyvox]

D) Vancomycin

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25981

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time?

A) 4:00 AM

B) 7:00 AM

C) 7:45 AM

D) 8:45 AM

Q2) A patient is receiving gentamicin once daily. A nursing student asks the nurse how the drug can be effective if given only once a day. The nurse explains drug dosing schedules for aminoglycosides. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Gentamicin has a longer halflife than other aminoglycosides."

B) "Large doses given once daily yield higher peak levels."

C) "The postantibiotic effect lasts for several hours."

D) "There is less risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity with large daily doses."

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:

A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.

B) eat foods that are high in potassium.

C) take the medication with food.

D) take folic acid supplements.

Q2) A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]. A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide [Sulfamylon], because the two are similar products, and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine?

A) It causes increased pain when the medication is applied.

B) It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity.

C) It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver.

D) It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25983

Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient with fever, flank pain, and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her?

A) "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract."

B) "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance."

C) "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy."

D) "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."

Q2) The parent of a 5-year-old child who has had four urinary tract infections in the past year asks the nurse why the provider doesn't just order an antibiotic for the child's current symptoms of low-grade fever, flank pain, and dysuria since these are similar symptoms as before. Which is the most important reason given by the nurse?

A) "Your child may need to be hospitalized for treatment."

B) "Your child may need a urine culture before and after treatment."

C) "Your child may need tests to assess for urinary tract abnormalities."

D) "Your child may need additional medications, such as urinary tract antiseptics."

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Chapter

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex

Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospitalized patient is being treated for tuberculosis with a drug regimen that includes pyrazinamide. The patient complains of pain in the knee and shoulder joints. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for:

A) ibuprofen.

B) renal function tests.

C) discontinuation of the pyrazinamide.

D) measurement of uric acid levels.

Q2) A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis. The patient is an alcoholic, has difficulty complying with drug regimens, and has mild liver damage. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "You must stop drinking before adequate treatment can begin."

B) "You must take isoniazid with close monitoring of hepatic function."

C) "You must take rifampin daily for 4 months."

D) "You will begin a regimen of isoniazid and rifampin."

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92

Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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11 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who will begin receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro] to treat pyelonephritis. The nurse learns that the patient has a history of myasthenia gravis. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the ciprofloxacin and monitor the patient for signs of muscle weakness.

B) Ask the provider whether the ciprofloxacin can be given orally.

C) Request an order for concurrent administration of metronidazole [Flagyl].

D) Suggest that the provider order a different antibiotic for this patient.

Q2) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children?

A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]

D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

E) Ofloxacin

Q3) Which antibiotics may be administered topically?

A) Bacitracin

B) Daptomycin

C) Ofloxacin

D) Polymyxin B

E) Rifampin

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25986

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a superficial fungal infection and notes that the provider has ordered 200 mg of ketoconazole [Nizoral], 200 mg PO once daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the drug as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss twice daily dosing.

C) Discuss a 400-mg daily drug regimen with the provider.

D) Request an order for a different antifungal medication.

Q2) A child has ringworm on the scalp. A culture of the lesion reveals a dermatophytic infection. The nurse teaching the child's parents about how to treat this infection will include which statement?

A) "Adverse effects of the medication include itching, burning, and erythema."

B) "Apply the topical medication daily until at least 1 week after the rash is gone."

C) "Your child will need to take this oral medication for 6 to 8 weeks."

D) "You will use an antifungal shampoo to treat this infection."

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94

Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral

Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25987

Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient who has hepatitis C is being treated with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin [Ribasphere]. It will be important for the nurse to teach this patient that:

A) if she gets pregnant, she should use the inhaled form of ribavirin [Virazole].

B) if she is taking oral contraceptives, she should also take a protease inhibitor.

C) she should use a hormonal contraceptive to avoid pregnancy.

D) she will need a monthly pregnancy test during her treatment.

Q2) A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks, the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level.

B) Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose.

C) Request an order for a creatinine clearance level.

D) Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.

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95

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 14 Verified Questions 14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25988

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse asks a graduate nurse, "When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed, which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions?

A) Respiratory distress

B) Fever

C) Myalgia

D) Lymphadenopathy

E) Insomnia

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and has a previous history of drug and alcohol abuse. The patient is being treated with combination therapies, including didanosine [Videx]. Which laboratory findings would most concern the nurse?

A) Increased serum amylase and triglycerides and decreased serum calcium

B) Decreased serum amylase and serum triglycerides and increased serum calcium

C) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

D) Increased serum amylase, decreased triglycerides, and increased platelets

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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25989

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever, headache, malaise, joint pain, and enlarged lymph nodes. Blood cultures are positive for Treponema pallidum. The nurse recognizes this as which type of syphilis?

A) Congenital

B) Primary

C) Secondary

D) Tertiary

Q2) An adolescent patient with mild cervicitis is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug(s)?

A) Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 7 days

B) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, and azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once

C) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 125 mg IM once

D) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily for 12 days

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25990

Sample Questions

Q1) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?

A) A patient with a systemic infection

B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess

C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate

D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis

Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department with multiple dirty abrasions after a bicycle-automobile accident . Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?

A) Hydrogen peroxide

B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)

C) Povidone-iodine [Betadine]

D) Soap and water

Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse why systemic antibiotics and not topical antiseptic agents are used to treat localized skin infections. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Systemic agents are not affected by wound exudates."

B) "Systemic agents penetrate to the site of infection."

C) "Topical agents can damage inflamed or abraded tissues."

D) "Topical agents work only against established local infections."

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Page 98

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated for trichinosis. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has ordered prednisone in addition to the anthelmintic medication. The nurse will tell this patient that this is ordered to:

A) prevent swelling of the legs caused by larval infestation of lymphatics.

B) reduce the inflammation that occurs during larval migration.

C) suppress the patient's allergic response to the anthelmintic agent.

D) suppress dermatologic symptoms that occur with heavy infestation.

Q2) A patient with strongyloidiasis is being treated with ivermectin [Stromectol]. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?

A) A Mazotti-type reaction is likely.

B) Hypotension is a common side effect of the drug.

C) The drug should be taken every 6 to 12 months until symptoms have cleared.

D) The drug should be taken with water for 1 to 2 days.

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25992

Sample Questions

Q1) A recent immigrant from the Middle East is being treated for P. falciparum malaria and has completed a course of chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the provider about genetic screening for this patient before starting the next medication.

B) Contact the provider to discuss nondrug methods to prevent reinfection, such as DEET insect repellents.

C) Teach the patient to notify the provider if symptoms recur so that relapse medication may be started.

D) Tell the patient that no further treatment is necessary, because relapse is unlikely.

Q2) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]

B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Artesunate

D) Quinine

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100

Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25993

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving an inhalation treatment with pentamidine [NebuPent]. The patient begins to cough and states that he is having trouble breathing. What is the best action by the nurse?

A) Administer a PRN dose of a bronchodilator.

B) Discontinue the inhalation treatment.

C) Nothing, because these are expected adverse effects of pentamidine.

D) Reduce the rate of the inhalation treatment.

Q2) A family has just returned from a camping trip, and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures, the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?

A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]

C) Miltefosine [Impavido]

D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with head lice. The nurse practitioner orders malathion [Ovide] for treatment. What information should be provided to the patient?

A) "Scalp irritation could occur."

B) "The drug has a bad odor."

C) "The lotion contains alcohol; use caution around fire."

D) "Significant drug interactions can occur."

E) "After applying the lotion to the scalp and hair, allow it to dry naturally."

Q2) Two days after a child is treated with permethrin [Nix] for head lice, a parent calls the clinic to report seeing nits and a few live lice on the child's scalp. The nurse will tell the parent to:

A) ask the provider about using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia].

B) cut the areas of the child's hair where nits are present.

C) retreat the child's hair with permethrin [Nix].

D) use a fine-toothed comb to remove nits and live lice.

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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25995

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm³. The nurse expects the provider to:

A) begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics.

B) obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics.

C) order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia.

D) reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.

Q2) A patient who has undergone surgical removal of a solid tumor has just begun chemotherapy. The patient experiences severe nausea and vomiting as well as alopecia. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) continue the chemotherapeutic agent at the same dose.

B) decrease the dose of chemotherapy to minimize side effects.

C) order lab tests to evaluate for the presence of residual cancer cells.

D) stop the chemotherapy because the tumor has been removed.

Q3) What contributes to drug resistance to chemotherapeutic agents?

A) Cellular production of P-glycoprotein

B) Creation of selection pressure by drugs

C) Drug-induced cellular mutation

D) Increased drug uptake by tumor cells

E) Reduced target molecule sensitivity

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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25996

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient receiving cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan]. To protect against the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis, the nurse would expect to administer which drug?

A) Decadron

B) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]

C) Leucovorin

D) Mesna [Mesnex]

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving vinorelbine [Navelbine] for about 5 days. Which assessment finding in this patient would cause the nurse to withhold the next dose and notify the prescriber?

A) Alopecia

B) Dyspnea and cough

C) Neutrophil count of 1200/mm³

D) Peripheral neuropathy

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:

A) kill existing cancer cells directly.

B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.

C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.

D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.

Q2) A 43-year-old patient with a strong family history of breast cancer considers taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. Which assessment finding is a possible contraindication?

A) History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

B) History of osteoporosis

C) Hyperlipidemia

D) Prior hysterectomy

Q3) A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen.

B) Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma.

C) Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole.

D) Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.

Page 105

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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25998

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing personal knowledge of the medications used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. The nurse would be correct to identify which medications as treatment?

A) Alpha₂ agonists

B) Prostaglandin analogs

C) Anticholinergics

D) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

E) Beta blockers

Q2) A patient with severe allergic conjunctivitis who has been using cromolyn ophthalmic drops for 2 days calls the nurse to report persistence of the symptoms. When the nurse explains that it takes several weeks for maximum benefit to occur, the patient asks if there is something else to use in the meantime. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which drug with the provider?

A) An ophthalmic demulcent

B) H1-receptor antagonists

C) Glucocorticoid drops

D) Ocular decongestants

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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25999

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."

B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."

C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."

D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."

Q2) A patient with actinic keratoses has received a prescription for fluorouracil [Carac]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?

A) "Healing should occur 6 weeks after beginning treatment."

B) "I will apply this drug twice daily."

C) "Severe inflammation is an indication for stopping treatment."

D) "Tissue ulceration and necrosis are desired effects."

Q3) A patient asks a nurse what a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 indicates. The nurse will tell the patient that an SPF of 15 indicates:

A) a 93% block of UVB radiation.

B) half the protection of a sunscreen with an SPF of 30.

C) low protection.

D) that it takes 15 minutes for the sun to burn.

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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000

Sample Questions

Q1) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?

A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen

B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals

C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear

Q2) A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is:

A) a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media.

B) an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear.

C) an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear.

D) fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection.

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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?

A) A beta blocker

B) A calcium channel blocker

C) Nitroglycerin

D) Warfarin

Q2) A patient who has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is receiving epoprostenol [Flolan] at a rate of 210 ng/min using a portable pump. The patient weighs 70 kg. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse will counsel the patient to:

A) decrease the infusion to 100 ng/min

B) discuss these side effects with the provider.

C) prepare for a hospital admission.

D) stop the infusion and contact the provider.

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Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002

Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse what companies are allowed to put on products which are considered alternative use drugs. Which general statements can be included on the label?

A) Energizes and rejuvenates.

B) Protects against cancer.

C) Improves symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.

D) Relieves menopausal hot flashes.

Q2) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?

A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.

B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.

C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.

D) It increases the risk of bleeding.

Q3) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements?

A) "Energizes and rejuvenates."

B) "Promotes pulmonary health."

C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis."

D) "Reduces stress."

E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause."

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 110

Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003

Sample Questions

Q1) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at the grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."

B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."

C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."

D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."

Q2) A patient will begin taking dimercaprol [BAL in Oil] for arsenic poisoning. The nurse performs a medical history on this patient. Which aspect of the patient's history would cause the most concern?

A) Anemia

B) Lead exposure

C) Peanut allergy

D) Peptic ulcer disease

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."

B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."

C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."

D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."

Q2) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department, nurses will prepare to:

A) administer antidotes.

B) give chelating agents.

C) provide respiratory support.

D) start hemodialysis.

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