Medical Terminology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the specialized language used in the healthcare field. The course focuses on the structure, meaning, and correct usage of medical terms rooted in Greek and Latin, as well as the pronunciation, spelling, and application of these terms in a clinical setting. Students will learn to construct and deconstruct complex medical words, understand common prefixes, suffixes, and root words, and analyze terms associated with anatomy, physiology, diseases, diagnostic procedures, and treatments. The knowledge gained will facilitate effective communication among healthcare professionals and enhance comprehension of medical documents, charts, and reports.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Patton
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48 Chapters
7538 Verified Questions
7538 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/905 Page 2
Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17815
Sample Questions
Q1) Circulatory system and lymphatic system
A)Reproduction and development
B)Processing, regulation, and maintenance
C)Outer protection
D)Support and movement
E)Communication, control, and integration
F)Transportation and defense
Answer: F
Q2) From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are:
A) organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle.
B) chemical, microscopic, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism.
C) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical.
D) chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism.
Answer: D
Q3) Metabolism refers to:
A) the chemical basis of life.
B) the sum of all the physical and chemical reactions occurring in the body.
C) an organization of similar cells specialized to perform a certain function.
D) a subdivision of physiology.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease?
A) Environment
B) Stress
C) Lifestyle
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) A tiny, primitive cell that lacks a nucleus and can cause infection
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: E
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemical Basis of Life
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164 Verified Questions
164 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17817
Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a:
A) hydrogen bond.
B) synthesis reaction.
C) decomposition reaction.
D) None of the above is correct.
Answer: B
Q2) AB + C AD + CB is an example of a(n) _____ reaction.
A) synthesis
B) exchange
C) decomposition
D) reversible
Answer: B
Q3) An ionic bond forms crystals whereas a covalent bond forms molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Explain what is meant by anabolism and catabolism, and name a process that is an example of each.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steroids are often called tissue hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Q3) The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Q4) Enzymes that are exposed to high heat or low pH solutions lose their ability to function. What causes this to happen? Be specific.
Q5) The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component.
A) a lipid and a protein; the lipid
B) carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate
C) a lipid and a protein; the protein
D) carbohydrate and protein; protein
Q6) Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.
Q7) List the types of lipids, and give a function for each type.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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171 Verified Questions
171 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A specialized cell structure that propels the sperm is the:
A) flagellum.
B) cilium.
C) microvillus.
D) microtubule.
Q2) Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow?
A) Microvilli
B) Primary cilium
C) Cilia
D) Flagella
Q3) Joanne, a 75-year-old patient, has an active peptic ulcer. Describe the cellular organelles involved in synthesizing digestive enzymes for the stomach.
Q4) In order for the Golgi apparatus to function correctly, both the ribosomes and the rough endoplasmic reticulum must be functioning also.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the function of the centrosome, and by what other name is it known?
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enzyme is a catalyst.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Add or remove carbon dioxide
A)Hydrases
B)Hydrolases
C)Phosphorylating enzymes
D)Mutases or isomerases
E)Carboxylases or decarboxylases
F)Oxidases and hydrogenases
Q3) The electron transport system makes ATP by the movement of electrons through the inner mitochondrial membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gated membrane channels can be opened and closed only by chemical stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. What energy molecules are produced, and how many of each are produced?
Page 8
Q6) Explain the classification system and naming system for enzymes.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This nitrogen base is found only in RNA.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Intron
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Transcription
H)tRNA
I)Thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)Haploid
O)Diploid
P)Translation
Q2) Gamete is the result of a somatic cell undergoing mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of cells that performs a common function is called tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The serous membrane covering the stomach is called the:
A) visceral pleura.
B) visceral peritoneum.
C) parietal pleura.
D) parietal peritoneum.
Q3) Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body.
Q4) The membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity is the:
A) visceral pleura.
B) parietal pleura.
C) visceral peritoneum.
D) parietal peritoneum.
Q5) When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly describe serous membranes, and give their location in the body. Differentiate between visceral and parietal membranes, and give an example of each.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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158 Verified Questions
158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet shaped
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Simple columnar
D)Pseudostratified columnar
E)Stratified squamous
F)Transitional
Q2) Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium?
A) Protection
B) Secretion
C) Sensation
D) Excretion
Q3) Osteoblasts are specialized cells that build bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adhesive molecules called integrins help bind epithelial cells to the basement membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Skin
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241 Verified Questions
241 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shivering is a good example of the body's attempt to produce more heat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum:
A) basale.
B) lucidum.
C) corneum.
D) granulosum.
Q3) Name and describe what occurs in the cells in each of the layers of the epidermis.
Q4) An increase in the enzyme tyrosinase will lead to the destruction of pigment and result in albinism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Surgical incisions that are made perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to heal with less of a scar.
A)True B)False
Q6) Describe the formation of hair, and describe the parts of a hair follicle.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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180 Verified Questions
180 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Internal table is the term used to describe the spongy bone on the interior of the skull.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both compact and spongy, or cancellous, bone have canaliculi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bone tissue is also called osseous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As the amount of calcitonin in the blood increases, the amount of calcium:
A) in the blood increases.
B) released from the bone increases.
C) in the blood decreases.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q6) Explain the steps in the healing of a bone fracture.
Q7) Compare and contrast osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes.
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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139 Verified Questions
139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appendicular skeleton consists of _____ bones.
A) 102
B) 118
C) 126
D) 137
Q2) The extrinsic muscles of the tongue attach to the base of the mandible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two bones of the face that are not paired are the:
A) maxilla and mandible.
B) maxilla and vomer.
C) nasal and maxilla.
D) mandible and vomer.
Q4) Damage to the cribriform plate may also injure the olfactory nerves and cause a loss of the sense of smell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The number of thoracic vertebra is the same as the number of ribs.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layman's name for the clavicle is the:
A) collarbone.
B) kneecap.
C) shinbone.
D) elbow.
Q2) What are the differences between the male and female skeleton that have clinical importance? Explain your answer.
Q3) There are two arches of the foot-one lengthwise and one crosswise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true?
A) The pubic arch in the male is less than a 90-degree angle.
B) The pelvic cavity is narrower in the male than in the female.
C) The coccyx is less flexible in the male.
D) All of the above are true.
Q5) Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Beginning at the hip, name the bones of the lower extremity from proximal to distal.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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178 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule
A)Articular cartilage
B)Synovial membrane
C)Joint cavity
D)Menisci
E)Joint capsule
F)Ligaments
G)Bursae
Q2) When a joint is in anatomical position, a goniometer should read 0°.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The largest and most frequently injured joint is the:
A) hip.
B) knee.
C) shoulder.
D) ankle.
Q4) A "pulled elbow" is more common in older adults, because the disk-shaped head of the radius begins to erode away.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a group of pennate muscles?
A) Bipennate
B) Tripennate
C) Multipennate
D) All of the above are groups of pennate muscles.
Q2) Antagonist muscles oppose the movement of the agonist muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pectoralis major is an example of a convergent muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Groups of muscle cells held together by the perimysium are called fascia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Muscles are sometimes named to reflect their function.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized?
A) Triceps brachii
B) Biceps brachii
C) Deltoid
Q3) The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the:
A) deltoid.
B) latissimus dorsi.
C) trapezius.
D) pectoralis minor.
Q4) Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh?
A) Adductor longus
B) Gracilis
C) Iliopsoas
D) Sacrospinalis
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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226 Verified Questions
226 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myofilament that can be described as a globular protein strung together like beads to form two intertwined strands is:
A) troponin.
B) actin.
C) myosin.
D) tropomyosin.
Q2) Protein that has active sites for cross-bridge heads
A)Troponin
B)Myosin
C)Actin
D)T-tubules
E)ATP
F)Calcium
G)Cross-bridges
H)Tropomyosin
I)Acetylcholine
Q3) An accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle is the result of an oxygen debt.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what is meant by the graded strength principle of muscle contraction.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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157 Verified Questions
157 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interneurons reside in the:
A) CNS and peripheral nervous system (PNS).
B) CNS only.
C) PNS only.
D) None of the above is correct.
Q2) Microglia are associated with the formation of the blood-brain barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the _____ pathway of the _____ nervous system.
A) afferent; somatic
B) afferent; autonomic
C) efferent; somatic
D) efferent; autonomic
Q4) Neurons have:
A) complete regeneration capacity.
B) no regeneration capacity.
C) very limited capacity to repair themselves.
D) none of the above.
Q5) Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the process of impulse conduction across a synapse.
Q2) In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotransmitter
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical synapse
G)Synaptic cleft
Q4) Name and briefly describe the different types of neurotransmitters used by the nervous system.
Q5) Myelinated axons without gaps in the myelin (nodes of Ranvier) conduct impulses more efficiently than axons with nodes of Ranvier.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe resting potential, including the position of potassium and sodium ions.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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245 Verified Questions
245 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus plays an important role in maintaining proper body temperature. A)True
B)False
Q2) Give the location of the pineal gland and its most likely function.
Q3) A lesion or tumor in the hypothalamus may cause overeating and result in substantial weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Formation of the cerebrospinal fluid occurs mainly in the choroid plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fourth ventricle is located:
A) in the left cerebral hemisphere. B) in the right cerebral hemisphere.
C) below and medial to the lateral ventricles.
D) where the cerebellum attaches to the brainstem.
Q6) Explain how the cerebrum and cerebellum are similar to a negative-feedback mechanism in terms of controlling the movement of skeletal muscles.
Q7) Explain the functions of the thalamus.
Q8) How are the cerebral nuclei involved in Parkinson disease?
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) It would be normal to find a functioning Babinski reflex in an infant as young as 4 months old.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the _____ plexus.
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) coccygeal
D) thoracic
Q3) Efferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ system.
A) central
B) autonomic
C) somatic
D) Both B and C are correct.
Q4) Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.
Q5) The cochlear nerve is composed of axons that originate in the organ of Corti.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta receptors:
A) are cholinergic.
B) bind acetylcholine.
C) bind norepinephrine.
D) bind the toxin muscarine.
Q2) Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) nicotinic
D) both alpha and beta
Q3) An effect of sympathetic stimulation on the eye is constriction of the pupil.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List four ways the body adapts itself for maximum energy expenditure during stress conditions.
Q5) Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain why the cells of the adrenal medulla can be considered sympathetic postganglionic neurons with no specific effector organ.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types of receptors are important in stimulating the thirst center?
A) Mechanoreceptors
B) Osmoreceptors
C) Chemoreceptors
D) Thermoreceptors
Q2) Proprioceptors can be found in:
A) the urinary bladder.
B) major blood vessels of the body.
C) skeletal muscles.
D) both A and C.
Q3) Identify the sensation or function of the following somatic sense receptors: free nerve endings, Meissner corpuscles, Krause end bulbs, Ruffini corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, muscle spindles, and Golgi tendon receptors.
Q4) Tactile disks adapt rapidly to make sure current information is being sent to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Olfactory receptors and taste buds are chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refraction means the deflection, or bending, of light rays.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true of the eye?
A) The anterior cavity is filled with vitreous fluid.
B) The anterior cavity is divided into anterior and posterior chambers.
C) The posterior cavity is larger than the anterior cavity.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Q3) Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition.
A) tectorial
B) basilar
C) vestibular
D) cochlear
Q4) Which of the following structures is not a component of the external ear?
A) Auricle
B) Cerumen-secreting glands
C) Eustachian tube
D) External auditory meatus
Q5) What is the function of the eustachian tube?
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melatonin
A)Steroid
B)Protein
C)Glycoprotein
D)Peptide
E)Amine
Q2) Endocrine glands can be made up of:
A) glandular epithelium.
B) neurosecretory tissue.
C) ducts leading to major arteries
D) both A and B.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of steroid hormones?
A) They are lipid-soluble.
B) They are derived from a fatty acid molecule.
C) They can pass through the cell membrane.
D) All of the above are true about steroid hormones.
Q4) Both the endocrine system and nervous system are important in regulation of body function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin and glucagon affect the body's use of:
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) glucose.
D) calcium.
Q2) Glucocorticoids have a hypoglycemic effect on blood sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormones of the neurohypophysis are actually made by cells of the supraoptic or sella turcica nuclei.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Insulin:
A) tends to lower blood concentrations of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids.
B) promotes metabolism of glucose by tissue cells.
C) is produced by beta cells.
D) All of the above are true of insulin.
Q5) Growth hormone is also called somatotropin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conditions that result in decreased red blood cell numbers are called anemias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The polymorphonuclear leukocytes are granulocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the ways platelets assist in blood homeostasis is to release chemicals that cause vasoconstriction in the blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The survival of red blood cells depends on their ability to change their shape.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Some white blood cells are named based on the types of substances that stain them for microscopic study.
A)True
B)False
Q6) People with type AB blood are considered universal donors.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not cause an ectopic beat?
A) Bundle of His
B) Purkinje fibers
C) SA node
D) AV node
Q2) The lower part of the heart forms a blunt point known as the base.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Draw a normal ECG. Identify the physiological activity within the heart during each ECG deflection and interval.
Q4) Most of the blood vessels of the heart return to the heart via the coronary sinus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The valve that guards the left atrioventricular orifice is called the _____ valve.
A) bicuspid
B) mitral
C) tricuspid
D) Both A and B are correct.
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liver
A)Axillary
B)Carotid
C)Coronary
D)Femoral
E)Gastric
F)Hepatic
G)Radial
H)Renal
I)Suprarenal
J)Tibial
Q2) One function of elastic fibers is to help maintain blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?
A) Aorta
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Pulmonary vein
D) Inferior vena cava
Q4) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following blood vessels has the largest total cross-sectional area?
A) Capillary
B) Aorta
C) Vena cava
D) Arteriole
Q2) If the stroke volume remains constant, parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in cardiac output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true of the cardiovascular system?
A) For the body to survive, all parts of the body must be equally supplied with blood.
B) The cardiovascular system contains much less blood than the system could hold.
C) Blood must be directed to the cells that need it most.
D) Blood must move constantly through the cardiovascular system.
Q4) What are two functions that circulation control mechanisms must accomplish?
Q5) Stroke volume and systolic discharge mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to main lymphatic ducts may cause death from the loss of serum proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Small aggregates on lymphatic tissue are found throughout the body, especially in connective and muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The valves in the lymphatics are more numerous in the larger vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Superficial cubital lymph nodes
A)In the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B)In the floor of the mouth
C)In the groin
D)Just above the bend of the elbow
E)Clustered deep within the underarm and upper chest regions
Q5) Even though some lymph nodes occur as single nodes, most occur in clusters.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferon production is stimulated by the presence of double-stranded DNA in a cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the inflammation response?
A) The release of histamine
B) The increase in vascular permeability
C) The stimulation of fibroblast growth
D) All of the above are part of the inflammation response.
Q3) Adaptive immunity is also called _____ immunity.
A) innate
B) specific
C) nonspecific
D) species
Q4) Which substance can destroy pathogens by chemically hydrolyzing them?
A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Mucus
C) Enzymes
D) Sebum
Q5) Explain how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism.
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interleukins are cytokinins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person without a functioning immune system would not benefit from an injection of antibodies developed by someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contact points between immune cells are sometimes called immunological synapses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) CD4 and CD8 T cell subsets are clinically important in diagnosing AIDS.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the terms natural immunity, artificial immunity, active immunity, and passive immunity. Give an example of natural passive immunity.
Q6) Adaptive immunity requires two signals: antigen and chemical.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the structure of an antibody molecule.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The level of glucocorticoids would be at their lowest during which stage of stress?
A) Exhaustion
B) Alarm
C) Resistance
D) Recovery
Q3) Both social isolation and overcrowding can cause stress.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stressors differ in different individuals and in one individual at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Selye stage of exhaustion immediately follows the alarm phase.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How is type A behavior related to stress, and what, if anything, may result?
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tubes that supply the respiratory bronchioles
A)Alveoli
B)Primary bronchi
C)Secondary bronchi
D)Tertiary bronchi
E)Trachea
Q2) The changing shape of the pharynx allows the production of different vowel sounds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech?
Q4) Name the three divisions of the pharynx, starting with the most superior.
Q5) The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition, the conchae, dividing it into a right cavity and a left cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Unlike the trachea, parts of the primary bronchi have complete cartilage rings.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is surfactant and what is its function?
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quiet expiration is normally a passive process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise?
A) Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO , which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate.
B) Decreased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO , which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate.
C) Exercise causes a decrease in cellular respiration by shifting peripheral chemoreceptors in the heart to cause retention of oxygen.
D) Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a decrease in plasma PCO , which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause a decrease in respiration rate.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many carbon dioxide molecules?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Eight
D) Hemoglobin cannot carry carbon dioxide molecules.
Q2) Carbonic acid forms when carbon dioxide reacts with water in the blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hemoglobin is made up of four polypeptide chains: an alpha, a beta, a gamma, and a delta.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many oxygen molecules?
A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Eight
Q5) Identify the major factors that help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute.
Q6) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharynx functions in two systems. Name the systems and explain the function in each system.
Q2) Most enamel is made up of inorganic materials.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The parotid salivary gland drains into the mouth through the parotid (Stensen) ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mucosa is made up of three layers: the mucous epithelium, the lamina propria, and the muscularis mucosae.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gingivitis is the general term for inflammation or infection of the gums. A)True
B)False
Q6) Most of the stomach lies to the left of the midline, below the diaphragm, and in the abdominal cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the pancreas, alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the wall of the small intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips called haustra.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) The gallbladder can hold between 30 and 50 ml of bile.
B) The gallbladder lies on the undersurface of the liver.
C) The walls of the gallbladder have rugae similar to the ones found in the stomach wall.
D) The gallbladder empties bile into the stomach to assist in fat digestion.
Q4) Lymph vessels in the villi of the small intestine are called plicae.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is an anatomical reason that aged individuals have a lower incidence of appendicitis than do children and young adults?
Q6) List the functions of the liver.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of peristalsis is to:
A) break apart chunks of food and mix it in digestive juices.
B) propel food forward along the GI tract.
C) absorb food.
D) enable swallowing.
Q2) Enzyme that works on cane sugars
A)Amylase
B)Bile
C)Lactase
D)Maltase
E)Pepsin
F)Peptidase
G)Sucrase
H)Trypsin
I)Lipase
Q3) The enzyme amylase is produced by the:
A) stomach.
B) pancreas.
C) salivary glands.
D) Both B and C are correct.
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the types of carbohydrates ingested as food? What are the sources of each type? What role does cellulose play in the functioning of the digestive system?
Q2) Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be absorbed directly into the cells?
A) Cellulose
B) Polysaccharides
C) Disaccharides
D) None of the above carbohydrates can be absorbed directly into the cells.
Q3) Which process begins with acetyl CoA and produces high-energy electrons and hydrogen carrier molecules?
A) Krebs cycle
B) Anaerobic pathway
C) Glycolysis
D) Electron transport chain
Q4) Name and explain three factors that influence the basal metabolic rate.
Q5) The most common lipids in the diet are:
A) phospholipids.
B) cholesterol.
C) triglycerides.
D) prostaglandins.
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidney and bladder are the principal organs of the urinary system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The descending limb of the loop of Henle is usually in osmotic equilibrium with the interstitial fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When compared with most other capillaries in the body, the capillaries in the glomerulus have many more pores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The capsular space is a microscopic space between the glomerulus and the parietal layer of Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Podocytes on the parietal walls of Bowman capsule help support the slit diaphragms that allow filtrate to leave the blood and enter Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanisms for controlling water movement between the fluid compartments of the body constitute the slowest-acting fluid balance devices.
A)True B)False
Q2) Because fat tissue contains the least amount of water of any tissue in the body, obese people tend to have a lower percentage of body water.
A)True B)False
Q3) The milliequivalent is a measure of the weight of an electrolyte.
A)True B)False
Q4) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
Q5) Ringer solution is often described as normal saline solution modified by the addition of:
A) sodium and potassium. B) potassium and calcium.
C) sodium and calcium.
D) glucose.
Q6) Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located?
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Chapter 44: Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the pH scale, as the value moves from 14 toward 7, the concentration of hydroxide ions increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cranberries are said to direct acid-forming foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) High-protein foods are referred to as acid forming.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ammonia excretion causes the body to retain sodium ions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Phosphoric acid accumulates when what is broken down in the body?
A) Fats
B) Amino acids
C) Ribonucleotides
D) Carbohydrates
Q6) Identify the main buffer pairs present in body fluids. How do these buffer pairs function to limit large changes in pH?
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the masses of erectile tissue in the penis
A)Semen
B)Androgen
C)Testes
D)Prostate
E)Gamete
F)Testosterone
G)Gonads
H)Spermatogenesis
I)Bulbourethral
J)Spermatozoon
K)Vas deferens
L)Seminal vesicles
M)Sustentacular cells
N)Epididymis
O)Penis
P)Scrotum
Q)Genitalia
R)Corpus cavernosum
Q2) List and describe the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clitoris is homologous to the corpora cavernosa and the glans of the penis in the male.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle, the blood level of estrogen is high because of the secretion from the developing follicle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Breast size basically determines the functional ability of the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following functions is not usually associated with the uterus?
A) Menstruation
B) Fertilization
C) Gestation
D) All of the above functions are associated with the uterus.
Q5) Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spike in estrogen on about day 12 of the menstrual cycle stimulates the LH surge, which triggers ovulation.
A)True B)False
Q2) The perineum has great clinical importance because of the danger of it being torn during childbirth.
A)True B)False
Q3) Another name for the primary follicle is the graafian follicle.
A)True B)False
Q4) Bartholin gland is homologous to the bulbourethral gland in the male. A)True B)False
Q5) The granulose cells secrete the zona pellucida, which is a clear, gel-like shell that surrounds the oocyte.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain the theories of aging discussed in this chapter.
Q7) Describe (or diagram) the hormone levels during pregnancy.
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene recessive trait?
A) Huntington disease
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) PKU
D) All of the above are single-gene recessive traits.
Q2) Disease genes never provide biological advantages for human populations, regardless of the circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sperm containing a Y chromosome swims faster than a sperm containing an X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of a karyotype would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition? The use of a pedigree would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition?
Q5) Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.
Q6) Discuss genetic counseling. Include in your discussion an explanation of a pedigree, the Punnett square, and a karyotype.
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