Medical Terminology Question
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Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is an essential course designed to introduce students to the language used in the healthcare field. It covers the origins, structure, and meaning of medical terms, focusing on word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms. Through this course, students learn to accurately interpret, pronounce, spell, and utilize medical vocabulary related to human anatomy, physiology, diagnoses, procedures, and treatments. Mastery of medical terminology enables effective communication among healthcare professionals and lays a foundational skillset for further studies or careers in health-related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 5th Edition by Herlihy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity?
A) It contains the mediastinum.
B) It contains the brain and spinal cord.
C) It contains the thoracic cavity.
D) It is smaller than the cranial cavity.
Answer: B
Q2) Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?
A) Sagittal
B) Coronal
C) Transverse
D) Frontal
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?
A) Axillary
B) Brachial
C) Antecubital
D) Popliteal
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water is a(n)
A) molecule.
B) aqueous solvent.
C) compound.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby
A) forming an acid.
B) ionizing.
C) forming a molecule of water.
D) forming an anion and cation.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is an anion?
A) Sodium ion
B) Potassium ion
C) Chloride ion
D) Calcium ion
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rough ER is the site of
A) fatty acid and steroid synthesis.
B) Krebs cycle activity.
C) protein synthesis.
D) intracellular water storage.
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells?
A) Hypotonic
B) Isotonic
C) Hypertonic
D) Water
Answer: C
Q3) Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer?
A) Lysosome
B) Mitochondrion
C) Ribosome
D) Cell membrane
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Translation involves
A) ribose and deoxyribose.
B) thymine and uracil.
C) DNA and mRNA.
D) mRNA and tRNA.
Q2) Which of the following represents a base sequence of tRNA that will bind to mRNA UUU?
A) UUU
B) AAA
C) TTT
D) CCC
Q3) Which of the following represents base pairing?
A) CCGTTACTG
B) Sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate
C) Ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose
D) A-T, T-A, C-G, A-U
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence?
A) Arthropod
B) Pathogen
C) Parasite
D) Bacterium
Q2) Rickettsiae are
A) classified as fungi.
B) viruses.
C) often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice.
D) arthropod vectors.
Q3) With regard to infectious disease,arthropods most often act as A) parasites.
B) causative organisms of disease.
C) vectors.
D) fomites.
Q4) The acid-fast bacillus is
A) most often spread through droplet infection.
B) eradicated by a single dose of penicillin.
C) pathogenic only in humans.
D) most often diagnosed by a urine culture.
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of fascia?
A) Contractile
B) Fatty
C) Tough and supportive
D) Glandular
Q2) In which of the following are intercalated discs found?
A) Blood
B) Ligaments
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Neurons
Q3) Stratified and squamous refer to
A) layered and striped.
B) solid and liquid.
C) layered and flat.
D) columnar and cube shaped.
Q4) Which of the following membranes secretes serous fluid?
A) Membrane that lines the respiratory tract
B) Membrane that lines the digestive tract
C) Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity
D) Membrane that lines the urinary tract
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name of the yellow pigment found in skin is
A) keratin.
B) collagen.
C) carotene.
D) vitamin D.
Q2) Which of the following describes exfoliation and desquamation?
A) The sloughing off by the stratum corneum of dead cells
B) The elimination of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism
C) The conservation of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism
D) Tanning as a protective mechanism from ultraviolet radiation
Q3) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?
A) Shivering
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Cyanosis
D) Vasodilation
Q4) Melanocytes
A) secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight.
B) secrete bilirubin and cause jaundice.
C) are located only in the external ear and secrete cerumen.
D) secrete carotene, giving the skin a yellow tint.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis
B) Types of ribs: true, false, floating
C) Bones of the upper extremities: humerus, radius, ulna
D) Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, clavicle
Q2) Which of the following is least true of the occipital bone?
A) Contains condyles that articulate with C1
B) Contains the mastoid process and the external auditory meatus
C) Contains the foramen magnum
D) Is a cranial bone
Q3) Which bone is found in the skull but not in the cranium?
A) Occipital
B) Parietal
C) Sphenoid
D) Mandible
Q4) The lateral malleolus
A) articulates with the proximal tibia.
B) articulates with the medial malleolus.
C) is a process on the distal tibia.
D) is a process on the distal fibula.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least related to the platysma?
A) Pouting muscle
B) Squinting
C) Inserts on the mandible
D) "Close your mouth," says the dentist
Q2) Where are the pronators and supinators located?
A) Thigh
B) Abdomen
C) Lower back
D) Upper extremities
Q3) Which structure is an extension of the sarcolemma or cell membrane,which penetrates the interior of the muscle and carries the electrical signal to the deepest part of the muscle?
A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) T tubule
C) Z line
D) Tendon
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emetic center
A) receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
B) is located in the vertebra prominens.
C) is the target of antipyretics.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following is true of myelination?
A) Occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier
B) Increases the speed of the action potential along the axon
C) Is responsible for the gray appearance of gray matter
D) Increases the synthesis of neurotransmitters
Q3) The occipital lobe
A) is a brain stem structure.
B) performs the "executive" functions.
C) is called the vital center.
D) contains the primary visual cortex.
Q4) The repolarizing phase of the action potential
A) means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive.
B) is caused by the movement of sodium (Na+) into the cell.
C) is caused by the movement of potassium (K+) out of the cell.
D) is caused by the Na+/ K+ pump located in the membrane.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory nerve fibers travel from the periphery to the spinal cord through the A) dorsal root.
B) efferent branch .
C) pyramidal tracts
D) descending tracts.
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) Cranial nerves: olfactory, optic, oculomotor
B) Spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, sciatic, vagus
C) Plexuses: cervical, brachial, lumbosacral
D) States of paralysis: paraplegia, quadriplegia, hemiplegia
Q3) To achieve spinal anesthesia,a -caine drug is injected into the A) lateral ventricle.
B) central canal.
C) subarachnoid space.
D) dorsal root ganglia.
Q4) Damage to which nerve causes crutch palsy?
A) Sciatic
B) Radial
C) Axillary
D) Pudendal
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least related to the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Vagomimetic effect
B) Adrenergic fibers
C) Alpha and beta receptors
D) Paravertebral ganglia
Q2) Which of the following is most characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) Adrenergic
B) Norepinephrine
C) Fight-or-flight response
D) Feed-and-breed system
Q3) A vagolytic effect
A) is a fight-or-flight response.
B) is achieved by beta blockade.
C) increases heart rate.
D) refers to muscarinic activation.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which condition is the eyelid not completely raised,thereby making the person appear sleepy?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataracts
C) Ptosis of the lid
D) Lid lag
Q2) Which ossicle picks up vibrations from the tympanic membrane?
A) Stapes
B) Malleus
C) Stirrup
D) Incus
Q3) Pinpoint pupils
A) describe the size of the pupils in a darkened room.
B) are caused by the contraction of the circular muscles of the iris.
C) are caused by mydriatic drugs.
D) are caused by the contraction of the radial muscles of the iris.
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor of the adrenal medulla
A) causes life-threatening low blood pressure.
B) is called a pheochromocytoma.
C) causes Addison's disease.
D) causes excess secretion of cortisol.
Q2) Growth hormone
A) is secreted by the adenohypophysis.
B) stimulates growth of the musculoskeletal system.
C) is also called somatotropic hormone.
D) All of the above are true.
Q3) Glucagon,growth hormone,cortisol,and epinephrine
A) are all secreted by the adrenal gland.
B) expand blood volume.
C) raise blood glucose levels.
D) stimulate osteoclastic activity.
Q4) Which of the following is not under the direct control of the pituitary gland?
A) Adrenal cortical secretion of glucocorticoid
B) Parathyroid secretion of PTH
C) Thyroid gland secretion of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>
D) Ovarian secretion of estrogen and progesterone
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the end of 120 days,the red blood cell
A) is removed from the circulation and broken down.
B) becomes known as a "poly."
C) becomes known as a reticulocyte.
D) is converted to fibrin.
Q2) Leukopenia,granulocytopenia,and neutropenia
A) define pancytopenia.
B) cause jaundice.
C) develop in response to erythropoietin.
D) are terms that refer to a deficiency of white blood cells.
Q3) A patient has had a (+)Guaiac test (stools)for 1 year.He is most apt to present to his primary care physician (PCP)with
A) low hematocrit and hematuria.
B) vitamin B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia.
C) low hematocrit and iron-deficiency anemia.
D) hypoxemia and secondary polycythemia.
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which layer of the heart has actin,myosin,and intercalated discs?
A) Myocardium
B) Endocardium
C) Epicardium
D) Pericardium
Q2) Which of the following semilunar valves "sees" oxygenated blood?
A) Mitral
B) Bicuspid
C) Aortic
D) Pulmonic
Q3) Describe the valvular response to the relaxation of the right ventricle.
A) The tricuspid valve opens
B) The right AV snaps closed
C) The pulmonic valve opens
D) The semilunar valve in the right heart opens
Q4) The heart
A) lies within the mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral cavities.
B) beats only in response to stimulation by the autonomic nerves.
C) is located within the pleural cavity.
D) is located between the fifth and twelfth ribs in the left thoracic region.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+)inotropic effect,a (+)dromotropic effect,and a (+)chronotropic effect?
A) Vagomimetic
B) Sympathomimetic
C) Antimuscarinic
D) Vagolytic
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a very rapid heart rate?
A) Decreased ventricular filling (with blood)
B) Failure of the AV valves to open
C) Failure of the SA node to fire
D) Failure of the cardiac impulse to enter the His-Purkinje system
Q3) With which term is preload synonymous?
A) Cardiac reserve
B) End-diastolic volume
C) Afterload
D) Ejection fraction
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the aorta?
A) It is the blood vessel into which all veins drain.
B) It is usually color-coded blue.
C) It is the largest artery from which most other arteries originate.
D) It extends from the upper thorax to the diaphragm, at which point it bifurcates into the common iliac arteries.
Q2) Elevated pressure of the right atrium is most apt to cause
A) pulmonary edema.
B) stenosis or narrowing of the aortic valve.
C) elevation of systemic blood pressure.
D) distension of the jugular veins.
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to cause portal vein hypertension?
A) Carotid artery occlusion
B) Defective valves in the deep veins of the legs
C) Cirrhosis of the liver
D) Ruptured aortic aneurysm
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) ANP and BNP are secreted by the heart in response to A) distension of the heart walls.
B) low blood pressure.
C) tachycardia.
D) low blood volume.
Q2) A patient takes a drug that immediately causes a reflex tachycardia.What is the most likely explanation for this effect on heart rate?
A) The drug causes a sudden decline in blood pressure, thereby activating the baroreceptor reflex.
B) The drug spikes or elevates the blood pressure, thereby activating the baroreceptor reflex.
C) The drug causes venoconstriction, thereby increasing preload.
D) The drug stimulates the alpha1 receptors, causing an increase in SVR (systemic vascular resistance).
Q3) A drug that activates alpha -adrenergic receptors
A) causes a vasodepressor effect.
B) is classified as a (-) inotropic drug.
C) elevates blood pressure.
D) is classified as an antihypertensive drug.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drains into the A) thoracic duct.
B) vena cava.
C) right atrium.
D) right lymphatic duct.
Q2) Thymosin
A) is a hormone.
B) is the fluid within the lymph nodes.
C) is secreted by all lymph nodes.
D) plays no known role.
Q3) Which lymphoid organ is located in the ventral cavity,thoracic cavity,and mediastinum?
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Thymus gland
D) Adenoids
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis
A) is a function only of the T cell.
B) is a form of specific immunity.
C) does not require a specific antigen.
D) is mediated through antibodies.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is most common in people with AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)?
A) Anaphylaxis
B) Autoimmune diseases
C) Infections
D) Hypertension
Q3) Plasma cells
A) refer to T cells.
B) are the same as NK cells.
C) are B-cell clones.
D) secrete interferons.
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23
Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trachea branches into the right and left
A) alveoli.
B) bronchi.
C) nares.
D) pulmonary arteries.
Q2) Which of the following best describes eupnea?
A) Kussmaul respirations
B) Vital capacity
C) Normal, quiet breathing
D) Hypoxemia
Q3) The trachea is
A) "the problem" in asthma.
B) the site of gas exchange.
C) composed primarily of smooth muscle.
D) a large airway that splits into two bronchi.
Q4) The epiglottis,glottis,and vocal cords
A) vibrate on exhalation, causing sound.
B) prevent the entrance of food and water into the respiratory passages.
C) are structures of the larynx.
D) are composed of tough cartilage.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antacid drug exerts its effect in the
A) buccal cavity.
B) common bile duct.
C) hepatic portal circulation.
D) stomach.
Q2) Chemical digestion of protein begins in the ______ and is completed in the _______.
A) stomach, small intestine
B) small intestine, large intestine
C) small intestine, liver
D) stomach, large intestine
Q3) Which of the following is not true of bile?
A) It functions as an emulsifying agent.
B) It is secreted by the liver lobules into the hepatic portal system.
C) It helps absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
D) It is secreted in response to CCK.
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urea is
A) transported from the liver to the kidneys by the blood.
B) made in the liver.
C) excreted by the kidneys.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) Angiotensin II
A) causes vasodilation.
B) is secreted by the JGA.
C) elevates blood pressure.
D) activates angiotensinogen.
Q3) Creatinine is
A) completely reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries.
B) a waste product that is filtered and not reabsorbed.
C) a renal enzyme that activates angiotensinogen.
D) a renal hormone that stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow.
Q4) The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)is located near the A) collecting duct.
B) afferent arteriole.
C) ureter.
D) renal pelvis.
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) Anions: bicarbonate, chloride, phosphate
B) Lines of defense against acid-base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys
C) Transcellular fluids: aqueous humor, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid
D) Hormones: aldosterone, ADH, ANP, urea
Q2) A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of sodium
A) decreases the renal excretion of Na+.
B) increases the amount of urine.
C) decreases the excretion of bicarbonate.
D) always increases the reabsorption of K+.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of metabolic acidosis with a respiratory compensation?
A) Morphine overdose and diuresis
B) Persistent vomiting and hypoventilation
C) Ketoacidosis and Kussmaul respirations
D) Hypocalcemic tetany and hyperventilation
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) To which organ do these terms refer: womb,hysterectomy,and hystera?
A) Vagina
B) Ovary
C) Uterus
D) Oviduct
Q2) The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
A) is responsible for menstruation.
B) is responsible for the uterine secretory phase.
C) elevates plasma levels of estrogen, progesterone, and hCG.
D) precedes the LH surge.
Q3) Implantation of the trophoblast occurs within which organ?
A) Ovaries
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Oviducts
D) Uterus
Q4) Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam?
A) An enlarged prostate gland
B) Cystitis
C) Sterility
D) Gonorrhea
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is formed when the chorionic villi burrow into the endometrial lining?
A) Yolk sac
B) Placenta
C) Umbilical cord
D) Ductus venosus
Q2) Which cream cheese-like substance is secreted by baby's sebaceous glands and protects the skin from the amniotic fluid?
A) Lanugo
B) Colostrum
C) Vernix caseosa
D) Meconium
Q3) Which of the following is most associated with organogenesis?
A) Embryonic period
B) Implantation
C) Third trimester
D) Neonatal period
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