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Medical Terminology is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the language of medicine used in healthcare professions. This course covers the structure, meaning, and pronunciation of medical terms, including roots, prefixes, suffixes, and abbreviations commonly encountered in medical records, communication, and literature. Through studying anatomical terms, disease names, medical procedures, and diagnostic tools, students develop the essential vocabulary needed to accurately describe the human body, its functions, and its disorders. The course emphasizes practical application, enabling students to interpret and use medical terminology effectively in a clinical or academic setting.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 2nd Edition by Susan M. Turley
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form arthr/o- means ____________.
Answer: joint
Q2) The suffix -megaly means :
A) inflammation of.
B) enlargement.
C) swelling.
D) process of recording.
Answer: B
Q3) The prefix hyper- means below; deficient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A healthcare facility can release a patient's medical record information only to:
A) an authorized healthcare provider.
B) the patient's insurance company.
C) a healthcare quality monitoring organization.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
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Q1) The prefix mid- means ____________.
Answer: middle
Q2) Lying with the anterior section of the body down is being in the ____________ position.
Answer: prone
Q3) The prefix de- means reversal of or ____________.
Answer: without
Q4) The abbreviation for dentist is D.P.M.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) A physician who has the letters O.D.after his name is a Doctor of ____________. Answer: Optometry
Q6) A cavity is a hollow space that is surrounded by bones or muscles. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q7) A/An ____________ is the specialist who specializes in ENT medicine. Answer: otolaryngologist
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gastrointestinal system is also known as the gastrointestinal tract,the digestive system or digestive tract,and the ____________ canal.
Answer: alimentary
Q2) The word deglutition refers to:
A) chewing, grinding, and tearing food.
B) swallowing food.
C) contractions of the esophagus.
D) partially undigested food.
Answer: B
Q3) Telescoping of one segment of the intestine into the lumen of an adjacent segment is known as a/an:
A) hernia.
B) diverticulum.
C) intussusception.
D) ileus.
Answer: C
Q4) A patient who suffers from ____________ has inflammation of the esophagus.
Answer: esophagitis
Q5) The combining form abdomin/o- means ____________.
Answer: abdomen

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Sample Questions
Q1) Each lung contains ____________,large divisions whose dividing lines are visible on the surface of the lung.
A) alveoli
B) bronchioles
C) lobes
D) sections
Q2) Which of these would cause an abnormal ABG result?
A) rhonchi
B) hemoptysis
C) hypercapnia
D) expectoration
Q3) The combining form pharyng/o- means ____________.
A) pharynx (food tube)
B) pharynx (throat)
C) pharynx (voice box)
D) pharynx (windpipe)
Q4) The respiratory control center sends nerve impulses to the ____________ nerve,causing the diaphragm to contract and initiate inspiration.
Q5) What is the medical word that means throat?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arteries,capillaries,and veins are categorized as blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means procedure to puncture (the membrane) around the heart?
A) -ion, hyper-, tens/o-
B) -centesis, peri-, cardi/o-
C) -ator, de-, fibrill/o-
D) -graphy, ultra-, son/o-
Q3) After the AV node,an electrical impulse travels through the ____________.
A) chordae tendineae
B) bundle of His
C) Purkinje fibers
D) sinoatrial node
Q4) The heart muscle gets the oxygenated blood it needs from the blood within its four chambers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A patient who has a period of bradycardia has a state of a ____________ heart.
Page 7
Q6) A patient diagnosed with cardiomegaly has ____________ of the heart.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means excessive flow or discharge of blood?
A) -lysis, hypo-, erythr/o-
B) -rrhage, hem/o-
C) -oma, macr/o-, hemat/o-
D) -cyte, thromb/o-, rrag/o-
Q2) Both protease inhibitor drugs and reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs are antiviral drugs used to combat HIV or AIDS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The suffix -penia means condition of ____________.
A) infection
B) bleeding
C) deficiency
D) substance in the blood
Q4) The process by which all blood cells are formed is known as ____________.
Q5) Petechiae are small,pinpoint ____________ of blood seen under the skin.
Q6) When erythrocytes are mature,they do not have a nucleus.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mole is also known as a verruca.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient undergoing a rhytidectomy is having a surgical excision of her
Q3) Which is a congenital abnormality in which there are extra fingers or toes?
A) syndactyly
B) polydactyly
C) senile lentigo
D) papilloma
Q4) A lipoma is a tumor of fat cells,which are known as ____________ .
Q5) Freckles or age spots are:
A) furuncles.
B) vesicles.
C) macules.
D) pustules.
Q6) The English phrase bed sore means the same as the medical phrase _________ ________.
Q7) The adjective form of epidermis is ____________.
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Q8) The abbreviation SQ stands for ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________ joint is a fully movable joint that joins two bones whose ends are covered with articular cartilage.
Q2) Which of the following is not made of bone?
A) fossa
B) foramen
C) process
D) vomer
Q3) A joint is also known as a meniscus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combining form carp/o- means ____________.
Q5) ____________ is a surgical procedure that uses a scope inserted into a joint to visualize the inside of the joint and its structures.
Q6) The primary way to diagnose fractures and dislocations is with:
A) a blood test for uric acid.
B) a bone density test.
C) visual inspection.
D) an x-ray.
Q7) The combining form xiph/o- means ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A small,involuntary,sometimes jerky back-and-forth movement of the hands,neck,jaw,or extremities is known as:
A) a contracture.
B) a tremor.
C) dyskinesia.
D) ataxia.
Q2) The abbreviation IM stands for ____________.
Q3) The DTR is known as the ____________.
A) deep tendon reflex
B) knee jerk
C) patellar reflex
D) all of the above
Q4) Hyperkinesis is the opposite of:
A) tremor.
B) ataxia.
C) bursitis.
D) bradykinesia.
Q5) The combining form ____________ means sternum (breast bone).
Q6) The prefix tri- means ____________.
Q7) The prefix bi- means ____________.
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Q1) The brain and its surrounding structures fill the ____________ cavity.
Q2) Proprioception is the medical word for body ____________.
Q3) A nerve impulse travels electrically across a synapse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The presence of oligoclonal bands in the ____________ points to a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis.
A) blood
B) urine
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) All of the above.
Q5) Which of these activities is processed in the temporal lobe of the brain?
A) conscious control of muscle movements
B) vision
C) production of cerebrospinal fluid
D) hearing and smelling
Q6) A subdural hematoma would be located beneath the medulla oblongata.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The ____________ are four hollow chambers in the brain.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What tube connects the bladder to the outside of the body?
A) ureter
B) convoluted tubule
C) urethra
D) vesical
Q2) Why would a culture and sensitivity test be done on a sample of urine?
Q3) In addition to creating and excreting urine to rid the body of wastes,the kidney also influences:
A) red blood cell production.
B) blood pressure.
C) the pH of the blood.
D) all of the above
Q4) The proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron is a symptom of an abnormal condition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The total number of nephrons in the kidneys continues to decline with age and kidney function decreases proportionately.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In an uncircumcised male,the urethral meatus is covered by the prepuce.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The passageway in the groin through which the testis travels as it descends from the abdominal cavity to the scrotum is called the ____________ canal.
Q3) The combining form spermat/o- means :
A) reproductive.
B) flagellum.
C) spermatozoon; sperm.
D) to expel suddenly.
Q4) The epididymis destroys defective spermatozoa.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Surgical removal of the testis because of cancer is known as:
A) orchiectomy.
B) vasectomy.
C) balanitis.
D) TURP.
Q6) A seminoma is a malignant tumor of the ____________.
Q7) What is a digital rectal exam and how often should it be done? Page 15
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Q1) All of the following combining forms mean uterus except:
A) uter/o-.
B) hyster/o-.
C) metri/o-.
D) lact/o-.
Q2) If a fetus has died in the uterus and is then delivered,its Apgar score would be:
A) 0.
B) 3.
C) 6.
D) 9.
Q3) Peau d'orange is a sign of possible breast cancer and appears as a:
A) large mass felt in the upper outer quadrant of the breast.
B) retracted nipple.
C) yellow-orange fluid aspirated from the breast nipple.
D) dimpling of the skin of the breast.
Q4) The spontaneous loss of a pregnancy prior to 20 weeks' gestation is called a spontaneous ____________ or miscarriage.
Q5) The ____________ is the name of the body of the uterus.
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Q6) A nuchal cord is one that is wrapped around the ____________ of the fetus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adjective form of pancreas is ____________.
Q2) The pituitary gland in females produces FSH to stimulate the follicles of the ovary,but the pituitary gland in males does not produce FSH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process by which two hormones exert opposite effects is known as:
A) stimulation.
B) inhibition.
C) synergism.
D) antagonism.
Q4) Hypersecretion of the growth hormone during adulthood causes:
A) gigantism.
B) Cushing's syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) acromegaly.
Q5) Which is the eponym for a form of thyroiditis classified as autoimmune?
A) Hashimoto
B) Cushing
C) Addison
D) Langerhans

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Q1) The eye can move in all directions because of the many different extraocular muscles attached to the sclera.How many different muscles control each eye?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Q2) The ____________ chamber is a small area between the cornea and the iris.
Q3) Which medical procedure is performed to test the ability of the ciliary muscles and ligaments to contract and flex the lens as demonstrated on near and distance visual acuity tests?
A) retinopexy
B) tonometry
C) convergence
D) accommodation
Q4) Xerophthalmia is also known as ____________ ____________ .
Q5) ____________ ____________ is a clear,watery fluid that is continuously produced by the ciliary body.
Q6) A patient whose best visual acuity is 20/200 is legally ____________.
Q7) Describe fluorescein staining and what it is used for.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is bilateral hearing loss due to aging?
A) conductive
B) presbycusis
C) anacusis
D) sensorineural
Q2) During a radical neck dissection,all of the following may be performed except:
A) myringotomy.
B) glossectomy.
C) removal of the jaw bone.
D) laryngectomy.
Q3) Glossitis is an inflammation of the tongue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are inhaled antigens that cause allergic rhinitis except ____________.
A) polyp
B) pollen
C) animal dander
D) mold
Q5) The adjective form for nose is ____________.
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Q1) A person with a/an ____________ personality has a disregard for written and unwritten rules and standards of conduct of society and shows lying,stealing,and a disregard for others.
Q2) The patient admitted to binging on food,and purging with laxatives because she was driven by the fear of getting fat.This eating disorder is known as ____________.
Q3) What does it mean if a psychiatrist documented that the patient had a flat affect?
A) There is no outward display on the face of any of the patient's emotions or thoughts.
B) The patient is not able to feel guilt or shame.
C) The patient does not receive any sexual arousal from images of the opposite sex.
D) The patient is in a stuporous, fixed position like a statue.
Q4) Oppositional defiant disorder is the inability to bond emotionally and form intimate relationships with others because of severe abuse or neglect of the patient's basic needs before age two.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the causes and characteristics of posttraumatic stress disorder.
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Q1) A ____________ is the return of symptoms or signs of cancer after a period of improvement or even remission.
Q2) Which is a process by which cancerous cells break off from a tumor and move through the blood vessels or lymphatic vessels to other sites in the body?
A) metastasis
B) mitosis
C) mutation
D) angiogenesis
Q3) ____________ __________ is used to stage cervical cancer.
A) Dukes Classification
B) TNM system
C) Bethesda System
D) Alpha fetoprotein
Q4) What is a sarcoma?
Q5) The process of cancer cells spreading from the original site to other sites in the body is known as ____________.
Q6) Excision of a cancerous tumor as well as excision of all nearby lymph nodes,soft tissue,and muscle is a ____________ resection.
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Q1) The radiopharmaceutical drug indium-111 combined with monoclonal antibodies is used during scintigraphy to:
A) detect cancerous cells.
B) measure organ metabolism.
C) create an image of the bones.
D) estimate the gestational age of the fetus.
Q2) An imaging study that uses injected contrast dye to visualize the gallbladder is called a ____________.
Q3) Which of the following is allowed during a magnetic resonance imaging study?
A) hearing aid
B) cloth hospital gown
C) insulin pump
D) pierced earring
Q4) An open MRI is more comfortable for a person who suffers from a fear of:
A) heights.
B) water.
C) being in close spaces.
D) needles.
Q5) What is a light box and how is it used?
Q6) Briefly explain the purpose of a film badge.
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Q1) The abbreviation PMH might be seen in:
A) an EHR.
B) a paper medical record.
C) a CPR.
D) all of the above.
Q2) To form the plural of a singular Latin noun that ends in -is,you change the -is to
Q3) The combining form trache/o- means trachea (windpipe).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The suffixes -ac,-ar,and -al,mean pertaining to.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The abbreviation HIPAA means :
A) Health Improvement for Pediatric and Adults Act.
B) Healthcare Improvement for Performance, Accountability, and Assessment.
C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
D) Health Insurance Performance and Accuracy Act.
Q6) The prefix that means slow is ____________.
Q7) Dermatology is the ____________ of the skin.
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Q1) A doctor who specializes in ____________ treats conditions related to the lungs.
Q2) The combining form therap/o- means :
A) physician; medical treatment.
B) medicine; drug.
C) recover.
D) treatment.
Q3) A physician who is on the medical staff of a hospital and admits a patient to the hospital is a/an:
A) consulting physician.
B) attending physician.
C) physician extender.
D) primary care physician.
Q4) A physician who has the letters O.D.after his name is a Doctor of ____________.
Q5) Which indicates a disease that does not respond well to treatment?
A) remission
B) sequela
C) refractory
D) recuperation
Q7) The prefix hypo- means below or ____________. Page 25
Q6) The combining form intern/o- means ____________.
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Q1) ____________ is the semisolid mixture of partially digested food,saliva,and digestive juices in the stomach.
Q2) The ____________ is a lidlike structure that seals the larynx when food is swallowed and directs food into the esophagus.
Q3) The esophagus is a flexible tube that connects the ____________.
A) rectum to the outside of the body
B) pharynx to the stomach
C) stomach to the duodenum
D) small intestine to the large intestine
Q4) The combining form cheil/o- means :
A) abdomen.
B) chewing.
C) stomach.
D) lip.
Q5) The combining form appendic/o- means appendage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Both gloss/o- and lingu/o- mean mouth.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A surgeon performing a lung resection is going to perform an action to cut out part of the lung.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Empyema is:
A) extra air filling the alveoli.
B) bluish discoloration of the skin.
C) an occupational lung disease.
D) pus in the thoracic cavity.
Q3) Pleurisy affects the ____________.
A) alveoli
B) hilum
C) mediastinum
D) pleura
Q4) Which of these would cause an abnormal ABG result?
A) rhonchi
B) hemoptysis
C) hypercapnia
D) expectoration
Q5) ____________ is the medical word for the windpipe.
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Q1) The adjective form of ventricle is ____________.
Q2) The purpose of the coronary arteries is to bring oxygenated blood to the: A) aorta.
B) myocardium.
C) lungs.
D) mediastinum.
Q3) In the medical word depolarization,the combining form polar/o- means positive or negative charge.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medical language definition of the word ____________ is an instrument used to measure the pressure of the pulse by using a thin,inflatable cuff.
A) arteriosclerosis
B) electrophysiology
C) sphygmomanometer
D) stethoscope
Q5) When the heart is in diastole,the heart chambers are constricting.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means excessive flow or discharge of blood?
A) -lysis, hypo-, erythr/o-
B) -rrhage, hem/o-
C) -oma, macr/o-, hemat/o-
D) -cyte, thromb/o-, rrag/o-
Q2) The ____________ is the organ that serves as a storage area for reserve supplies of blood.
Q3) All of the following are opportunistic infections that attack patients with HIV/AIDS except ____________.
A) splenomegaly
B) cytomegalovirus retinitis
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
D) oral candidiasis
Q4) All of the following are abnormal conditions that involve red blood cells except ____________.
A) anisocytosis
B) sickle cell
C) AIDS
D) transfusion reaction

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Q1) The use of a rapidly spinning wire brush or diamond surface to mechanically scrape the epidermis is known as:
A) microdermabrasion.
B) chemical peel.
C) laser skin resurfacing.
D) dermabrasion.
Q2) In which disease are oily areas interspersed with patches of dry,scaly skin and dandruff.
A) seborrheic dermatitis
B) anhidrosis
C) diaphoresis
D) alopecia
Q3) Large,raised blisters filled with fluid that occur after a burn are called:
A) wheals.
B) lacerations.
C) bullae.
D) ulcers.
Q4) The subcutaneous tissue is a type of nervous tissue beneath the dermis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Prednisone is a corticosteroid drug used to treat minor musculoskeletal injuries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The combining form cost/o- means ____________.
A) coccyx
B) rib
C) bone
D) clavicle
Q3) The combining form malac/o- means :
A) bending.
B) hardening.
C) softening.
D) weakening.
Q4) All of the following statements about osteoarthritis are true except:
A) it affects the large weightbearing joints.
B) it is worse if the patient is underweight.
C) it causes pain and stiffness in the joints.
D) it usually begins in middle age.
Q5) The combining form calcane/o- means ____________ or heel bone.
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Q1) The combining form pector/o- means ____________.
Q2) ____________ is inflammation of a tendon from injury or overuse.
Q3) An athletic injury that had pain and inflammation in the flexor muscles over the anterior tibia would be located in the:
A) elbow.
B) wrist.
C) neck.
D) lower leg.
Q4) The masseter muscle is used for:
A) arm movements.
B) breathing.
C) leg movements.
D) chewing.
Q5) Lateral epicondylitis is a repetitive strain injury known as: A) myositis.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) deep tendon reflex.
D) tennis elbow.
Q6) All of the muscles of the body or all of the muscles in one part of the body are referred to as the ____________. Page 33
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Q1) Mad cow disease is related to the human disease known as new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The meninges contain all of the following structures except ____________.
A) pia mater
B) epidural space
C) dura mater
D) arachnoid
Q3) The neurotransmitter ____________ is released by the sympathetic division of the nervous system during stress or danger.
A) acetylcholine
B) receptor
C) epinephrine
D) serotonin
Q4) A rhizotomy is performed to cut the:
A) spinal nerves.
B) ventricles.
C) neurons.
D) cerebellum.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A microscopic kidney stone is often referred to as sand or gravel.
B) Decreased caliber of the urinary stream can be caused by an enlarged prostate gland.
C) Calculogenesis and lithogenesis are both the process of forming kidney stones.
D) The treatment for polycystic kidney disease is a diuretic drug.
Q2) Polyuria is an indication of the presence of a urinary tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true about a renal scan?
A) It uses a radioactive isotope injected intravenously.
B) It uses radioactive particles and a scanner to create an image.
C) It is used to look for signs of rejection of a transplanted kidney.
D) all of the above
Q4) A urinometer or a refractometer is used to measure the ____________ of urine.
A) sediments
B) specific gravity
C) pH
D) color
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Q1) The prefix circum- means :
A) around.
B) painful.
C) surgical excision.
D) to cut.
Q2) Most cells in the body divide by the process of:
A) meiosis.
B) osmosis.
C) mitosis.
D) spermatogenesis.
Q3) Which one of the following laboratory tests is not used to diagnose syphilis?
A) TRUS
B) FTA-ABS
C) VDRL
D) RPR
Q4) The adjective form of testicle is ____________.
Q5) The hormone ____________ is the most abundant and biologically active of all the male sex hormones secreted by the testes.
Q6) A spermatozoon (or a female ovum) that has only half the usual number of chromosomes is known as a ____________.
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Q1) A fertilized ovum begins to produce human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) in the earliest stages of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The spontaneous loss of a pregnancy prior to 20 weeks' gestation is called a spontaneous ____________ or miscarriage.
Q3) A Pap smear is a cytology test that examines cells scraped from the ____________.
A) vagina
B) uterus
C) breast
D) cervix
Q4) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word oogenesis (oh-oh-jen-eh-sis)?
Q5) Leukorrhea is a sign of a possible yeast infection that is known as:
A) retroflexion.
B) candidiasis.
C) pyosalpinx.
D) polycystic ovary syndrome.
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Q1) Valium and Xanax belong to which category of drugs?
A) antianxiety
B) antipsychotic
C) antidepressant
D) drugs for alcoholism
Q2) Dementia causes all of the following except ____________.
A) inability to learn new things
B) masochism
C) personality changes
D) forgetfulness
Q3) Psychoanalysis is a therapeutic process developed by Sigmund Freud that includes dream analysis and hypnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bipolar disorder is characterized by chronic mood swings between mania and euphoria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A person who wears clothing that belongs to the opposite sex or poses as someone of the opposite sex is called a ____________
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Q1) Which abbreviation is for a catheter that delivers a chemotherapy drug to the entire body?
A) PICC
B) PR
C) DNA
D) BRCA
Q2) ____________ ____________ is used to stage cervical cancer.
A) Dukes Classification
B) TNM system
C) Bethesda System
D) Alpha fetoprotein
Q3) An example of brachytherapy would be:
A) insertion of radioactive substances intravenously for thyroid cancer.
B) insertion of radioactive substances into the lymphatic system for leukemia.
C) external beam radiation directed at the chest for lung cancer.
D) placing a radioactive implant directly into the bladder for bladder cancer.
Q4) The patient's biopsy revealed a cervical cancer in situ.This means that the cervical cancer has metastasized to a secondary site.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) In oral cholecystography,contrast dye is not injected but rather is taken orally in the form of a tablet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a mammogram,an x-ray is used to create an image of the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The combining form roentgen/o- means :
A) energy; power.
B) light.
C) picture; film.
D) x-rays; radiation.
Q4) Which ultrasonography produces still images in shades of brown?
A) magnetic resonance
B) three-dimensional
C) fluoroscopy
D) color flow duplex ultrasonography
Q5) Indium-111 is given intravenously for nuclear medicine imaging of the heart.
A)True
B)False
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