Medical Terminology for Surgical Technologists Midterm Exam - 1684 Verified Questions

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Medical Terminology for Surgical Technologists

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

This course introduces students to the foundational medical terminology essential for surgical technologists. Emphasizing the language commonly used in surgical settings, the course covers the structure and meaning of medical words, including prefixes, suffixes, root words, abbreviations, and acronyms. Students will learn to accurately interpret, pronounce, spell, and utilize terms related to anatomy, pathology, surgical procedures, instruments, pharmacology, and sterile technique. Mastery of medical terminology enhances communication among surgical team members and supports the delivery of safe, effective patient care in the operating room environment.

Recommended Textbook

Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical

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24 Chapters

1684 Verified Questions

1684 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Overview of career objectives, qualifications, experience, education and skills; used as reference in employment search

A)Resume

B)Surgical assistant

C)Job description

D)Organizational structure

E)Career ladder

F)Role

G)Allied Health

H)Feedback

I)Intraoperative case management

J)Problem-solving skills

Answer: A

Q2) The ARC/STSA administers the national certification examination for surgical technologists and owns the CST and CSFA credentials.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues

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70 Verified Questions

70 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Specimen loss, mislabeling, and improper preparation are examples of which of the following?

A) battery

B) defamation

C) intentional tort

D) negligence

Answer: D

Q2) Which type of consent applies when emergency circumstances exist when reasonable providers believe that a patient would agree to treatment, even if no form was signed or verbal permission given?

A) direct

B) implied

C) informed

D) general

Answer: B

Q3) Errors in chart documentation should be erased to prevent confusion by subsequent caregivers.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 4

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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following terms represents a positive physical and psychological state of a patient?

A) distress

B) dyspnea

C) eustress

D) euthanasia

Answer: C

Q2) Which of the following religions typically prohibits its followers from receiving blood transfusions?

A) Roman Catholic

B) Jehovah's Witness

C) Mormon

D) Protestant

Answer: B

Q3) In general, a surgical procedure represents a physical, psychological, social, and spiritual event to the patient.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Special Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) In what way can the surgical technologist who is setting up his or her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old patient's anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia?

A) Wave to and joke with patient, while maintaining distance from unsterile areas.

B) Break scrub and hold patient down on bed during IV placement.

C) Leave room when patient enters to reduce number of persons in room, returning after anesthesia induction.

D) Perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quiet as possible for induction.

Q2) Which position enhances a bariatric patient's total lung volume and aids in ventilation?

A) lateral chest

B) low-lithotomy

C) Trendelenburg

D) reverse Trendelenburg

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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy?

A) laser mask and laser goggles

B) arthroscopy boots and impervious apron

C) plastic face shield and N-95 respirator mask

D) lead apron and thyroid shield

Q2) All of the following are articulating breakpoints or removable sections of an operating table EXCEPT:

A) head

B) knee

C) side

D) waist

Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of a three-prong plug?

A) active (hot) wire/prong

B) ground pin/prong

C) bipolar wire/prongs

D) inactive (neutral) wire/prong

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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the property of the gel portion of the patient return electrode (ground pad) that completes the ESU circuit?

A) conductivity

B) impedance

C) insulated

D) resistance

Q2) Which of the following modes or settings of the electrosurgical unit (ESU) would NOT require use of a patient return electrode (ground pad)?

A) bipolar

B) blended

C) coagulation

D) cutting

Q3) What is the term for the object in an electrical circuit (e.g., surgical light or ESU) that receives and can modify the amount of power from the source?

A) conductor

B) field

C) load

D) terminal

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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?

A) antiseptic

B) disinfectant

C) emulsifier

D) enzymatic

Q2) Which types of instruments must be cleaned with bristle-brushes on wires, pipe cleaners, or handheld pressure guns?

A) microsurgical scissors

B) self-retaining retractors

C) suction tip lumens

D) tissue forceps

Q3) When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer?

A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them

B) fold side down with tape holding them together securely

C) facing upright with a towel used to separate them

D) facing upright with tape holding them together securely

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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The 20101 AHA Guidelines for CPR stress activation of the ERS and follow:

A) CAB (chest compressions, airway, breathing)

B) ABC (airway, breathing, chest compressions)

C) BCA (breathing, chest compressions, airway)

D) none of the above

Q2) Which member of the U.S.government makes a federal disaster declaration and mobilizes FEMA?

A) governor

B) president

C) secretary of state

D) surgeon general

Q3) Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?

A) heat cramps

B) heat exhaustion

C) heat stroke

D) heat wave

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fluid component of blood containing blood clotting factors removed from one unit of whole blood

A)Induction agents

B)Ringer's solution

C)Volatile agents

D)Pharmacokinetics

E)Narcotic antagonists

F)Histamine antagonists

G)Indications

H)Calibrations

I)Depolarizing agents

J)Benzodiazepines

K)Over-the-counter

L)Inhalation agents

M)Pharmacodynamics

N)Drug actions

O)Fresh frozen plasma

Q2) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.

A)True

B)False

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies

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61 Verified Questions

61 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:

A) dilators

B) dissectors

C) drains

D) dressings

Q2) All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments EXCEPT:

A) operating

B) oscillating

C) reciprocating

D) rotary

Q3) The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?

A) arthroscopy

B) craniotomy

C) laparotomy

D) tonsillectomy

Q4) Syringes can be made of plastic, glass, metal, rubber, or a combination of any of these.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound

Closure

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88 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a genetic clotting deficiency?

A) anaphylaxis

B) aplastic anemia

C) hemophilia

D) hyperthermia

Q2) Which of the following sutures has comparatively inconsistent tensile strength and rapid absorption rate in vivo with moderate tissue reaction?

A) plain surgical gut

B) poliglecaprone

C) polyglyconate

D) polydioxanone

Q3) What is the chemical name for Dermabond or Indermil ?

A) cryoprecipitate

B) cyanoacrylate

C) fibrin glue

D) polymethyl methacrylate

Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management

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70 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions

A)Apical

B)Lateral recumbent

C)Auscultation

D)Impervious

E)Perineum

F)Neutral zone

G)Tachypnea

H)Perfusion

I)Depilatory

J)Torsion

Q2) What is the term used for the area beneath the fingernails that is cleaned with a pick during the surgical scrub?

A) subacromial

B) subdermal

C) sublingual

D) subungual

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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures

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55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Objective, observable evidence or manifestations of a pathological condition

A)Fluoroscopy

B)Rad

C)Pulse oximeter

D)Signs

E)Digital subtraction

F)Palpation

G)Retrograde

H)Urinalysis

I)CAT scan

J)Contrast

Q2) Which study assists a surgeon with determining the MOST effective antibiotic therapy for treatment of an SSI?

A) isotope scanning

B) plethysmography

C) culture and sensitivity

D) hemoglobin and hematocrit

Q3) EEG leads may be placed directly on the surface of the brain during craniotomy.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: General Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which stage of breast cancer is characterized by evidence of distal metastasis?

A) Stage I

B) Stage II

C) Stage III-b

D) Stage IV

Q2) The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine?

A) ascending

B) descending

C) sigmoid

D) transverse

Q3) End-to-end, end-to-side, side-to-side, and Roux-en-Y are techniques for:

A) bowel anastomosis

B) mastectomy wound closure

C) mesh placement in herniorrhaphy

D) surgical skin prep solution application

Q4) The Hasson technique for establishing pneumoperitoneum requires the use of a Verres needle.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery

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80 Verified Questions

80 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the anatomy of the vulva?

A) cervix

B) clitoris

C) labia

D) mons pubis

Q2) Extension of peritoneal cavity between the back wall of the uterus and the rectum, also called a cul-de-sac

A)LEEP

B)Fornix

C)Resectoscope

D)Primipara

E)Leiomyoma

F)Eclampsia

G)Cannulation

H)Meconium

I)Pouch of Douglas

J)Dyspareunia

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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery

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65 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where would a Veirs rod be placed to relieve or prevent obstruction?

A) canaliculus

B) choroid body

C) conjunctiva

D) crystalline lens

Q2) Cryotherapy uses which of the following to seal retinal tears and holes?

A) cold

B) heat

C) monopolar current

D) ultrasonic energy

Q3) Which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?

A) chalazion repair

B) dacryocystorhinostomy

C) entropian repair

D) recession/resection

Q4) Cataracts are categorized as a general condition of aging rather than a disease process.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery

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75 Verified Questions

75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in a radical neck dissection?

A) clavicle

B) fibula

C) humerus

D) radius

Q2) Which of the following is the MOST commonly used autograft in otologic procedures?

A) flexible cartilage

B) hyaline cartilage

C) temporalis fascia

D) transversalis fascia

Q3) Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age?

A) palatine

B) pharyngeal

C) laryngeal

D) lingual

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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Dental procedures require thorough cavity prepping due to possibility of surgical site infections.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following involves the highest portion of the midface and presents the most extensive damage?

A) Le Fort I

B) Le Fort II

C) Le Fort III

D) Le Fort IV

Q4) Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:

A) breasts

B) cheeks

C) eyes

D) nares

Q2) Before closure in augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size?

A) Permanent implants are placed, and the nipple-to-nipple distance is measured for symmetry.

B) Permanent implants are placed and filled with measured amount of saline to determine volume.

C) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with measured amounts of saline to determine volume.

D) Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance.

Q3) Which term describes the palmar surface of the hand?

A) dorsal

B) radial

C) volar

D) ulnar

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?

A) Bowman's capsule

B) cortex

C) medulla

D) renal pelvis

Q2) Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis?

A) Bougie

B) Hegar

C) Van Buren

D) Walther

Q3) What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope?

A) endoshears

B) wire loop snare

C) ESU loop electrode

D) #11 blade on #7 handle

Q4) The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

A) avascular necrosis

B) compartmental syndrome

C) delayed union

D) malunion

Q2) Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:

A) great toe

B) wrist

C) foot

D) hip

Q3) Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low?

A) estrogen

B) follicle stimulating

C) human growth

D) parathyroid

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery

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90 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute

A)Asystole

B)Electrocardiograph

C)Perfusion

D)Ventricular fibrillation

E)Bradycardia

F)Heart block

G)Echocardiography

H)Ventricular tachycardia

I)Atrial fibrillation

J)Ejection fraction

Q2) Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs?

A) ciliated mucosa

B) pericardium

C) parietal pleura

D) visceral pleura

Q3) The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the pleural cavity.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Balloon angioplasty performed in the cardiac catheterization lab is used to treat:

A) atherosclerotic thickening

B) stenotic dissection

C) venous insufficiency

D) valvular regurgitation

Q2) Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?

A) angiography

B) CT scan

C) radiography

D) PET scan

Q3) What is done with the aneurysm sac in AAA repair?

A) excised and discarded

B) excised and sent as specimen

C) inverted and tacked to back of graft

D) anterior wall sutured over the proximal graft

Q4) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery

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75 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the name of the dural fold that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum and may be used to delineate surgical approach in reference to it?

A) corpus callosum

B) falx cerebri

C) falx cerebella

D) tentorium

Q2) Inability to move the lower part of the body due to spinal trauma, disease, or disorder

A)Paraplegia

B)Brain stem

C)Exothermic

D)Radiculopathy

E)Collateral flow

F)CUSA

G)Bipolar

H)Tunneler

I)Brain abscess

J)Stereotaxis

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