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Medical Terminology Final Exam Questions - 2322 Verified Questions

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Medical Terminology

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Medical Terminology is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the language of medicine. It covers the structure, meaning, and correct usage of medical terms, including word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and abbreviations commonly used in healthcare professions. Students learn to analyze, construct, and interpret complex medical terms related to body systems, diseases, procedures, and treatments. By mastering medical terminology, students can enhance their communication skills and gain a solid basis for further study or careers in the health sciences.

Recommended Textbook

The Human Body in Health and Illness 5th Edition by Herlihy

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27 Chapters

2322 Verified Questions

2322 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body

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Sample Questions

Q1) Buccal,oral,and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the

A) neck.

B) head.

C) flank.

D) inguinal area.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?

A) Axillary

B) Brachial

C) Antecubital

D) Popliteal

Answer: C

Q3) Which word comes from the Greek word meaning "to dissect"?

A) Anatomy

B) Histology

C) Pathology

D) Physiology

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent?

A) Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared

B) Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped

C) Types of bonding

D) Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H<sup>+</sup> is produced

Answer: C

Q2) What do the following have in common: Pb,plumbism,and plumber? All terms refer to

A) persons who work with pipes.

B) toxic effects of a trace element.

C) toxic cations.

D) lead.

Answer: D

Q3) A solution that has a pH of 6.8

A) has a neutral pH.

B) is alkaline.

C) is basic.

D) is acidic.

Answer: D

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) An anticancer drug that interferes only with mitosis

A) is described as cell cycle M phase-specific.

B) is cell cycle phase-nonspecific.

C) is nontoxic.

D) stimulates neoplastic cell growth.

Answer: A

Q2) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to both water and Na and Cl<sup>-</sup>.At equilibrium,the

A) volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B.

B) volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.

C) concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments.

D) concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is (are)produced by the rapid and incomplete breakdown of fatty acids?

A) Acetone and ketoacids

B) Lactic acid

C) Amino acids

D) Urea

Q2) Gluconeogenesis

A) increases blood cholesterol.

B) increases urea synthesis.

C) increases blood glucose.

D) causes hypoglycemia.

Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of RNA but not DNA?

A) Deoxyribose

B) Adenine and thymine

C) Double stranded

D) Uracil and adenine

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6

Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The acid-fast bacillus is

A) most often spread through droplet infection.

B) eradicated by a single dose of penicillin.

C) pathogenic only in humans.

D) most often diagnosed by a urine culture.

Q2) This bacillus forms a large part of the normal flora within the large intestines.It also causes septic shock,food poisoning,and local infections and is a leading cause of nosocomial infection.

A) E. coli

B) a plasmodium

C) Herpes simplex

D) mycobacterium

Q3) Ectoparasites are most likely to cause

A) itching and discomfort.

B) high fever.

C) paralysis.

D) loss of consciousness.

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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g.,urinary bladder)?

A) Transitional epithelium

B) Loose connective tissue

C) Adipose tissue

D) Simple squamous epithelium

Q2) Intercellular matrix is

A) most abundant in connective tissue.

B) absent in blood and lymph.

C) always hard.

D) always elastic and stretchy.

Q3) In which type of tissue is plasma the interstitial matrix?

A) Simple squamous epithelium

B) Adipose tissue

C) Blood

D) Cartilage

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8

Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of the dermal layer?

A) It is nourished by blood vessels in the epidermal layer.

B) It sits on the subcutaneous layer.

C) It supports the epidermis.

D) It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and arrector pili muscles.

Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of the epidermal layer?

A) It is nourished by blood vessels in the dermal layer.

B) It sits on the subcutaneous layer.

C) It sits inferior to the stratum germinativum.

D) It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and arrector pili muscles.

Q3) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?

A) Shivering

B) Vasoconstriction

C) Cyanosis

D) Vasodilation

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Chapter 8: Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cancellous refers to a(n)

A) irregular bone.

B) cartilage.

C) spongy bone.

D) osteon.

Q2) The carpals,metacarpals,and phalanges

A) are part of the axial skeleton.

B) are facial bones.

C) form the hand.

D) include the hallux.

Q3) The symphysis pubis is a slightly movable joint associated with the A) coxal bones.

B) femur.

C) sacrum.

D) ischial tuberosity.

Q4) There is no intervertebral cartilage between

A) T12 and L1.

B) L3 and L4.

C) C7 and T1.

D) atlas and axis.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle is located in the upper back and posterior neck region (contraction of this muscle causes you to look up at the sky)?

A) Pectoralis major

B) Sternocleidomastoid

C) Trapezius

D) Diaphragm

Q2) This muscle group attaches to the linea alba.

A) Hamstrings

B) Adductors

C) Abdominal

D) Muscles of respiration

Q3) On which large muscle do you sit?

A) Latissimus dorsi

B) Gastrocnemius

C) Gluteus maximus

D) Rectus femoris

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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) To which of the following are the words blood-brain barrier and glia most related?

A) Saltatory conduction

B) Nodes of Ranvier

C) Action potentials

D) Astrocytes

Q2) Which group is incorrect?

A) Parts of the brain: cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum

B) Meninges: pia mater, corpus callosum, dura mater

C) Protective structures of the CNS: bone, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, blood-brain barrier

D) Types of glia: astrocytes, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, microglia

Q3) The corpus callosum

A) connects the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord.

B) is a band of gray matter that lines the ventricles.

C) is the point at which all motor fibers decussate.

D) connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is described: cervical (8),thoracic (12),lumbar (5),sacral (5),and coccygeal (1)?

A) Number of nerve plexi

B) Sensory nerves of the peripheral nervous system

C) Levels at which most motor neurons decussate

D) Spinal nerves

Q2) Damage to which nerve causes crutch palsy?

A) Sciatic

B) Radial

C) Axillary

D) Pudendal

Q3) Which of the following is least related to CN VIII?

A) Vestibular branch

B) Primary auditory cortex

C) Cochlear branch

D) Wernicke's area

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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A vagolytic effect

A) is a fight-or-flight response.

B) is achieved by beta blockade.

C) increases heart rate.

D) refers to muscarinic activation.

Q2) Which group is incorrect?

A) Adrenergic receptors: alpha, beta

B) Cholinergic receptors: muscarinic, nicotinic

C) Neurotransmitters: norepinephrine, ACh, dopamine

D) Sympathetic responses: decreased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, anxiety

Q3) Paravertebral ganglia

A) are part of the craniosacral outflow.

B) "drive" the vagus nerve.

C) are located within the organs of innervation.

D) are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.

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14

Chapter 13: Sensory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the function of the vestibule and the semicircular canals?

A) Hearing

B) Smell

C) Balance

D) Touch and pressure

Q2) An increase of intraocular pressure is most likely to cause

A) cataracts.

B) damage to the retina, leading to blindness.

C) macular degeneration.

D) night blindness.

Q3) What is another name for the tympanic membrane?

A) Stirrup

B) Oval window

C) Eardrum

D) Organ of Corti

Q4) Refracted light should focus on the

A) lens.

B) optic chiasm.

C) optic disc.

D) retina.

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Chapter 14: Endocrine System

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116 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most critical need for the child with newly diagnosed cretinism?

A) Thyroidectomy

B) Administration of a radioactive cocktail of <sup>131</sup>I (radioactive iodine)

C) Replacement dose of thyroid hormones

D) Replacement dose of calcitonin

Q2) Which gland secretes two hormones,one that elevates blood glucose levels and another that decreases blood glucose levels?

A) Pancreas

B) Adenohypophysis

C) Thyroid

D) Adrenal cortex

Q3) The islets of Langerhans

A) are cells found in the adenohypophysis.

B) secrete insulin and glucagon.

C) secrete steroids.

D) secrete releasing hormones.

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Chapter 15: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term best describes the following: A,B,AB,and O?

A) Antibodies

B) Megakaryocyte fragments

C) Fibrin strands

D) Antigens

Q2) Heme contains

A) albumin.

B) plasma.

C) iron.

D) erythropoietin.

Q3) Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell?

A) Granulocyte

B) Erythrocyte

C) Thrombocyte

D) Eosinophil

Q4) Which of the following is least associated with hemostasis?

A) Coagulation

B) Platelet plug

C) Phagocytosis

D) Blood vessel spasm

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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which layer of the heart has actin,myosin,and intercalated discs?

A) Myocardium

B) Endocardium

C) Epicardium

D) Pericardium

Q2) What are the conducting fibers that rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the ventricles?

A) Bundle of His

B) Purkinje fibers

C) SA node

D) AV node

Q3) Which of the following is most true of S ?

A) Also known as dupp

B) Indicative of gallop rhythm

C) Occurs during the beginning of ventricular systole with the closure of the tricuspid and mitral valves

D) It is the heart sound caused by the rapid movement of the action potential along the His-Purkinje system.

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18

Chapter 17: Function of the Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle in one beat?

A) Cardiac output

B) Blood volume

C) Hematocrit

D) Stroke volume

Q2) Atropine is anticholinergic and antimuscarinic and therefore

A) causes a (+) inotropic effect.

B) increases the force of myocardial contraction.

C) decreases heart rate.

D) is used to treat bradydysrhythmias such as heart block and a prolonged P-R interval.

Q3) Systole and diastole describe the function of the A) pericardium.

B) SA node.

C) myocardium.

D) mediastinum.

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19

Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Arterioles spend most of their time

A) contracting and relaxing.

B) filtering water and solute at one end and reabsorbing water and waste at the other end.

C) absorbing lymph from the interstitium.

D) filtering clots out of the blood entering the capillaries.

Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause portal vein hypertension?

A) Carotid artery occlusion

B) Defective valves in the deep veins of the legs

C) Cirrhosis of the liver

D) Ruptured aortic aneurysm

Q3) What are the blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart?

A) Veins

B) Arteries

C) Capillaries

D) Venules

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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Coolness,pain,pallor,pulselessness,paresthesia,and paralysis are caused by

A) hypertension.

B) impaired blood flow.

C) decreased oncotic pressure.

D) edema.

Q2) A sphygmomanometer measures

A) blood flow.

B) hematocrit.

C) blood pressure.

D) oxygen saturation.

Q3) What do the baroreceptors regulate?

A) Blood volume

B) Hematocrit

C) Blood pressure

D) Rate of capillary filtration

Q4) In which direction does blood flow shift in response to exercise?

A) Increased blood flow to kidneys and digestive tract

B) Increased blood flow to skin and skeletal muscles

C) Increased blood flow to abdominal organs and kidneys

D) Decreased blood flow to the heart and skeletal muscles

21

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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is (are)the lymphoid structure(s)that is (are)generally removed during a mastectomy?

A) Spleen

B) Liver

C) Axillary lymph nodes

D) Adenoids

Q2) What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Thymus gland

C) Coronary sinus

D) Pericardium

Q3) Why does lymph contain protein?

A) Protein is synthesized by the lymph nodes.

B) Protein leaks out of the capillaries into the tissue spaces and is absorbed into the lymphatic capillaries.

C) The cells that line the lymphatic vessels synthesize protein.

D) Adenoids transport plasma protein into the lymphatic vessels.

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22

Chapter 21: Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) This is a group of proteins secreted by virally infected cells; the proteins prevent viral replication.

A) Pyrogens

B) Antigens

C) Complement protein

D) Interferons

Q2) Plasma cells

A) refer to T cells.

B) are the same as NK cells.

C) are B-cell clones.

D) secrete interferons.

Q3) What is the term that refers to the level of antibodies in your blood?

A) T cell count

B) Titer

C) White blood cell count

D) Hematocrit

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Chapter 22: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Kussmaul respirations

A) cause hypoxemia.

B) increase PCO<sub>2</sub>.

C) refer to an acidosis-induced increased respiratory activity.

D) are caused by a decrease in the plasma [H<sup>+</sup>].

Q2) Which substance greatly reduces the attractive forces among the water molecules lining the alveoli?

A) Lysozyme

B) Converting enzyme

C) Mucus

D) Surfactant

Q3) Which respiratory muscles are located between the ribs?

A) Diaphragm

B) Bronchiolar smooth muscle

C) Intercostals

D) Sternocleidomastoids

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Chapter 23: Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Obstruction of the common bile duct causes

A) pain in the RLQ.

B) GERD.

C) jaundice.

D) lactose intolerance.

Q2) Which of the following is true?

A) Lipases are emulsifying agents.

B) Amylases digest carbohydrates.

C) Pepsin is an amylase.

D) Trypsin is a lipase.

Q3) The wall of which structure secretes the disaccharidases?

A) Gallbladder

B) Duodenum

C) Pancreas

D) Stomach

Q4) The wall of which structure secretes cholecystokinin?

A) Stomach

B) Pylorus

C) Duodenum

D) Cecum

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Chapter 24: Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the voluntary expulsion of urine?

A) Polyuria

B) Diuresis

C) Micturition

D) Dialysis

Q2) Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin?

A) Oliguria

B) Anemia

C) Albuminuria

D) Cystitis

Q3) The collecting duct

A) is primarily concerned with the concentration of urine.

B) collects urine from the renal pelvis and pumps it into the ureters.

C) collects urine from Bowman's capsule and pumps it into the peritubular capillaries.

D) is primarily concerned with micturition.

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26

Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Third spacing

A) is caused by aggressive diuretic therapy.

B) describes a severe state of hypovolemia and dehydration.

C) involves only the interstitial space.

D) can result in an abnormal accumulation of large amounts of water.

Q2) Which of the following conditions is most apt to decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A) Overhydration

B) Hypotension

C) Administration of a diuretic for the treatment of edema

D) Water intoxication

Q3) Poor skin turgor is most indicative of A) cystitis.

B) acidosis.

C) edema.

D) dehydration.

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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the uterine lining called that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone?

A) Perineum

B) Myometrium

C) Fundus

D) Endometrium

Q2) Which hormone is characterized by the following: androgen,steroid,and interstitial cells?

A) Gonadotropin

B) Oxytocin

C) Testosterone

D) Prolactin

Q3) A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they

A) weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina.

B) alter the normal flora of the vagina.

C) contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood.

D) cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina.

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28

Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the hormonal basis of the pregnancy test?

A) Estrogen

B) Prostaglandin

C) Oxytocin

D) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Q2) Which word refers to milk production by the mammary glands?

A) Implantation

B) Parturition

C) Lactation

D) Quickening

Q3) Which of the following is least characteristic of hCG?

A) Secreted by trophoblasts

B) Maintains the corpus luteum

C) Maintains maternal levels of estrogen and progesterone

D) Exerts an oxytoxic effect

Q4) What "lives" in the fallopian tube for a brief period of time?

A) An embryo

B) A fetus

C) A blastocyst

D) A zygote

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