Medical Terminology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the language used in healthcare professions. The course introduces the structure and function of medical terms by exploring word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms, enabling students to accurately decipher and construct medical vocabulary. Emphasis is placed on terminology related to body systems, diseases, procedures, and diagnostic tools, as well as correct spelling, pronunciation, and usage. This course is essential for students planning to enter medical, nursing, allied health, or related fields, as it improves communication and comprehension in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A comprehensive portfolio includes which of the following?
A) Examples of work completed in each course
B) Certificates or awards
C) Proof of the skills achieved
D) Letters of recommendation
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: E
Q3) Summarize the characteristics of aggressive communication.
Answer: Leaning forward and pointing a finger when talking, raising the voice or sounding arrogant, using terminology such as, "You'd better," "If you don't watch out," "Do it or else," or "You should do it this way."
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first national organization formed for medical assistants was the A) CAAHEP.
B) ABHES.
C) AMT.
D) AAMA.
Answer: D
Q2) Medical centers and regional and specialty hospitals are considered _________________.
A) primary level of care
B) secondary level of care
C) tertiary level of care
D) interconnected level of care
Answer: C
Q3) A group of diverse medical and healthcare systems practices and products that are not generally considered part of conventional medicine is called
Answer: complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) complementary and alternative medicine
CAM
Complementary medicine is used in combination with conventional medicine.
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skills would not be an appropriate expectation of a competent medical assistant?
A) Performing insurance coding and billing
B) Giving instructions to patients about self-care after treatments
C) Using the computer to perform a variety of office functions
D) Diagnosing common patient symptoms
Answer: D
Q2) An individual's social facade, or the front that reflects the role in life the individual is playing, is called the __________.
Answer: persona
The persona is an individual's social facade, or the front that reflects the role in life the individual is playing.
Q3) Which of the following statements about professionalism is true?
A) It must be practiced at all times in the workplace.
B) It can lead to wage increases and promotions.
C) Unacceptable behavior is detrimental to the medical assistant's career.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following strategies could be used to help school-aged children gain a sense of control during the health visit?
A) Give them the opportunity to make certain decisions about treatment
B) Respect their privacy
C) Keep them informed in a language they can understand
D) Encourage them to ask questions
E) All of the above
Q2) The principal message you will give an American patient if you avoid eye contact while communicating is that you
A) are angry.
B) are in a hurry.
C) do not understand what the patient is saying.
D) are not telling the truth.
Q3) Active listening is the skill of _____________ and clarifying what the speaker has said.
Q4) Obtaining ___________ from patients helps medical assistants understand and better interpret patients' medical problems, so that they can be accurately conveyed to the physician.
Q5) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to perform a duty is called __________.
Q2) A set of laws designed to standardize electronic data exchange and protect health information is
A) CLIA.
B) OSHA.
C) DHHS.
D) HIPAA.
Q3) The document that expresses the wishes of patients in case of terminal illness or an accident after which patients cannot express their wishes is called a
A) power of attorney.
B) DNR order.
C) will.
D) living will.
Q4) Respondeat superior is a Latin term meaning
A) "Let the master answer."
B) "Buyer, beware."
C) "The thing speaks for itself."
D) "Respond as soon as possible."
Q5) Nonconsensual touching may be considered __________.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confidentiality restrictions apply to which of the following?
A) Information in the patient record
B) Anything the medical assistant is told by the patient
C) Minor requesting confidential services
D) All of the above
Q2) An obligation that people have or perceive themselves to have is called a(n)
A) duty.
B) reparation.
C) right.
D) opinion.
Q3) The tendency of something or someone to act in a certain manner under given circumstances is called
A) idealism.
B) introspection.
C) disposition.
D) veracity.
Q4) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
Q5) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
Q6) Although attorneys often accept clients on a(n) ______________ fee basis, it is unethical for a physician to do so.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common type of business letter where all elements are left justified?
A) Full block letter format
B) Modified block letter format
C) Informal full block format
D) Semi-block letter format
Q2) Which of the following is used to ensure that all office computer programs and data are secure in case of a mishap, fire, or natural disaster?
A) RAM
B) Microprocessor
C) Write-protection
D) Backup functions
Q3) Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
A) Wheal
B) Prosthesis
C) Rhyhmical
D) Vacuum
Q4) Encrypted data are called __________ text.
Q5) Business envelopes are usually number _____.
Q6) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced. Page 9
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most providers allow medical assistants to give test results in which of the following circumstances?
A) Only normal test results
B) Abnormal test results if authorized by the provider
C) A caller asking for information on a spouse or child
D) Both A and B
Q2) Which of the following types of communication tools can be used to record verbal messages?
A) Voice mail
B) Fax
C) E-mail
D) Call waiting
Q3) An insurance claim may be __________ if the physician is not a provider for that particular insurance company.
Q4) If English is not the caller's primary language, the medical assistant must use listening skills to ensure understanding.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All patients want to be kept informed about how long they should expect to wait to see the provider. Any delay longer than ________ minutes should be explained.
A) 10 to 15
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) No explanation is necessary.
Q2) Health records should never be left in the examination room to be picked up and read by a patient. When using an EHR, it is important to remember to log out of the computer when you are ready to leave the room.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) A matrix in the schedule
A) prevents overcrowding.
B) prevents booking of patients during meetings and hospital rounds.
C) is used only in large offices.
D) is done at the end of the day.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) When new stock is added, it should be placed A) at the front.
B) in the middle.
C) in the back.
D) wherever it will fit.
Q2) A difference among conflicting facts, claims, or opinions is called a(n)
A) error.
B) discrepancy.
C) outsource.
D) circumvention.
Q3) If proof of mailing is needed, the medical assistant might ask the post office for A) special handling.
B) insured mail.
C) a certificate of mailing.
D) a certificate of delivery.
Q4) Leasing equipment, such as copiers, often proves to be more expensive than purchasing the equipment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Less storage space is needed for EHR systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A standard, nationwide rule must be followed in establishing a records retention schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical assistant should consider which of the following when selecting filing equipment?
A) Fire protection
B) Cost of space and equipment
C) Confidentiality requirements
D) All of the above
Q4) Most experts agree that the EHR system will help reduce medical __________.
Q5) HIPAA recommends that physicians keep the records on patients for at least A) 1 year.
B) 2 years.
C) 3 years.
D) HIPAA does not recommend a number of years.
Q6) __________ information is observed by the physician.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neoplasm or new growth is coded by the site or location of the neoplasm and its behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The coder should always refer to the Tabular Index first.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical assistant should never code a patient as having __________ unless it is clearly documented as confirmed in the medical record.
Q4) Which of the following terms defines a malignant neoplasm site as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) In situ
D) Benign
Q5) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q6) ______________ are notes included in the Tabular Index to provide additional guidance for selected diagnosis codes.
Q7) The __________ table describes malignancies.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The place of service never changes for physician billing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One time unit in anesthesia coding typically equals which of the following?
A) 1 minute
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 20 minutes
Q3) Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?
A) Pathology
B) Surgical
C) Anesthesia
D) Medicine
Q5) It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following HMO models hires physicians and pays them a salary rather than contracting the physicians to create a network?
A) IPA
B) Staff model
C) Group model
D) PPO
Q2) The "cafeteria-style" plan allows employers to choose the benefits they want for their respective employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of money paid to keep an insurance policy in force is the A) premium.
B) deductible.
C) co-pay.
D) co-insurance.
Q4) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dirty claims cannot be resubmitted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When completing the CMS-1500 Form, which section contains information about the patient and the insured?
A) Section 1
B) Section 2
C) Section 3
D) Section 4
Q3) The medical assistant should always follow office __________ for claim review and signatures.
Q4) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim
Q5) A claim that is missing information and is returned to the provider for correction and resubmission is called a(n) __________ claim.
Q6) Electronic claims are submitted via electronic media.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q8) Secondary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
Q2) Which of the following needs to occur when a check is returned from the bank for NSF?
A) The payment posted to the patient account must be reversed.
B) A charge line item must be added with the amount of the NSF check.
C) The original payment must be deleted.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Accounts receivable are moneys that are expected but not yet received. All invoices, statements, and operational expenses are included in accounts receivable.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid.
Q5) The purpose of the trial balance is to disclose any discrepancies between the journal and the ledger.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of accounts requires a minimum balance and draws interest at the highest rates?
A) Checking account
B) Savings account
C) Money market savings account
D) All of the above
Q2) Who in the office is authorized to sign checks?
A) The doctor
B) Any trusted staff member
C) Only those whose names appear on the signature card
D) A responsible medical assistant
Q3) Many direct deposits are processed through which of the following?
A) ACH
B) NACHA
C) EPN
D) EFT
Q4) The deposits in cash today are $657 and the checks total $8,343. What is the total deposit?
Q5) A patient writes a check for $78 on an account with a balance of $285. What is the total due after the check is posted?
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chain of command is wise in a physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true about healthy employee-employer relationships?
A) All of them make successful friendships.
B) Reprimanding employees who are also friends may be difficult.
C) A friendly relationship never interferes with the work relationship.
D) Developing any kind of friendship with employees is always unwise.
Q3) A performance evaluation or ____________ includes a judgment of both the quality and quantity of work, personal appearance, attitudes, and team spirit.
Q4) Under the at-will employee guideline, the employee can terminate employment for good cause, bad cause, or no cause-unless an express contract is signed for a specific term or the employee is a member of a collective bargaining group, such as a union.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q5) A remark that is said to be ___________ is completely obvious or obtrusive.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keeping the office open later one night per week is a marketing strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Free promotional ideas are rarely effective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Poorly chosen phrases that suggest poor attitudes give the patient or visitor a(n) __________ view of the facility.
Q4) Medical assistants should not be expected to provide good customer service along with their other duties.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule.
Q6) The medical assistant can play a role in practice branding by A) following office procedures.
B) treating patients with excellent customer service skills.
C) keeping a positive, enthusiastic attitude during every work day and with every patient.
D) All of the above
Q7) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyemia is a condition marked by infectious microorganisms in the patient's urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anaphylaxis is a serious systemic response to an allergic substance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The presence of adequate amounts of oxygen is one of the keys for the spread of anaerobic microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an example of cell-mediated immunity?
A) Production of antibodies
B) Phagocytosis
C) Intact integumentary system
D) Inflammatory response
Q5) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
Q6) Spore structures protect viral cells from immune system action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial diagnosis made by the physician after completion of the physical examination is the differential diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Information that you gather from a patient interview is considered
A) subjective.
B) objective.
C) assessment.
D) evaluation.
Q3) A patient's lifestyle factors would be included in the family history section of the medical history.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Objective data include which of the following?
A) Complaints of pain
B) Social history
C) Blood pressure recordings
D) Past medical history
Q5) The physician's initial impression of the patient's presenting problem is called the __________.
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a guideline to follow when developing or ordering educational supplies?
A) Material should be written using lay language at the sixth- to eighth-grade level.
B) Information should be well organized.
C) The medical assistant should check for accuracy.
D) The material should promote specific pharmaceutical companies.
Q2) If the provider believes that it is in the patient's best interest that family members be involved in patient health education, the medical assistant can contact the family only if the patient has given approval. This permission should be included in the patient's HIPAA information and should be documented in the medical record so that all employees can read evidence of the patient's approval.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) A major problem with delivering high-quality patient education in the ambulatory setting is the lack of __________.
Q4) Diagram and explain how to develop and implement a patient teaching plan.
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Page 25
Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of minerals in the body?
A) Prevent cell membrane damage
B) Contribute to water-electrolyte acid-base balance
C) Regulate muscular and nervous activities
D) Regulate blood clotting and heart rhythm
Q2) Low-fiber diets are recommended for patients with diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient with symptoms of __________ feels dizzy and has difficulty with normal balance.
Q4) The glycemic index rates foods on how quickly they affect the blood glucose level.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Naturally occurring antioxidants are not commonly associated with which of the following foods?
A) Fruits
B) Vegetables
C) Fish
D) Certain seasonings
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) __________ hypotension occurs when a patient has a sudden drop in blood pressure after rapidly changing positions from lying down to standing.
Q2) The pulse rate may vary with the respiratory rate in pediatric patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a patient is anxious, the medical assistant would expect the pulse to be
A) increased.
B) decreased.
C) the same.
D) dependent on age.
Q4) Which of the following pulses is palpated in the antecubital space?
A) Apical
B) Brachial
C) Carotid
D) Radial
E) Temporal
Q5) A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute in a well-conditioned athlete is cause for concern.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Patients with aphasia are unable to talk because of severe laryngitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The examination of the small intestine with a fiberoptic instrument is a colonoscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) __________ is a medical instrument that is used to inspect the inner structures of the eye.
Q4) An instrument used to test auditory acuity is the A) ophthalmoscope.
B) otoscope.
C) tuning fork.
D) Snellen chart.
Q5) Examples of involuntary muscles are the muscles that line arteries and arterioles. A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ is used to examine the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) The _____________ dose is the summation of a drug present in the body after repeated doses of the medication.
A) maximum
B) maintenance
C) cumulative
D) average
Q2) The primary principle of homeopathic medicine is to administer very dilute substances that are designed to stimulate the body's ability to heal itself.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ventolin and Proventil are used to promote bronchodilation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following drugs is classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B) Glyburide (Micronase)
C) Ranitidine (Zantac)
D) Terfenadine (Seldane)
E) Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide)
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) With the standard formula, the "ordered strength" of a drug is the amount of the drug identified on the label.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The physician orders 7.5 mL of Cipro for a pediatric patient. How many teaspoons should the parent administer?
A) 7.5 tsp
B) 1.5 tsp
C) 3 tsp
D) 1 tsp
Q3) The correct dosage of medication may depend on which of the following factors?
A) Patient's age and weight
B) State of health
C) Other drugs being taken
D) All of the above
Q4) You need to give Lanoxin 0.125 mg. All you have is 0.250-mg tablets. How much do you give?
A) 2 tablets
B) 5 tablets
C) 1/2 tablet
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) To correctly read the amount of a liquid medication poured into a measuring device, read at the _________ of the meniscus.
A) top
B) level
C) lowest level
D) middle
Q2) With a(n) ___________ system, a small adhesive patch or disk is applied to the body near the treatment site.
A) intradermal
B) subcutaneous
C) dermal
D) transdermal
Q3) When giving an adult subcutaneous injection, you should not inject more than _____ mL into subcutaneous tissue.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 1.5
Q4) In an infant, the safest site for an intramuscular injection is the __________.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) A patient diagnosed with photophobia will complain of extreme pain and vertigo.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the facility must be evacuated, all staff members and patients should leave immediately without worrying about combustible supplies such as oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients with __________ have red, hot, dry skin; an altered level of consciousness; tachycardia; and rapid, shallow breathing.
Q4) Which acronym is used by the AHA to help people remember the order of performing the steps of CPR?
A) CAB
B) BAC
C) ABC
D) None of the above
Q5) Supplies for the management of emergencies should include several different drugs. List and explain the functions of at least four of these.
Q6) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) A near vision screening test, which can be used in the physician's office, can screen the patient for which vision problem?
A) Myopia
B) Astigmatism
C) Presbyopia
D) Presbycusis
Q2) In individuals over age 40, the elasticity of the internal lens of the eye is diminished; this condition is called __________.
Q3) An angry mother calls the office because no antibiotics had been prescribed for her child's otitis media, which she had reported earlier in the day. Following the office policy developed by the physician, Kim shares with the mother the most up-to-date recommendations on the treatment of otitis media. Summarize these recommendations.
Q4) Mydriatic eye drops are applied before an eye examination to dilate the pupils.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When light focuses behind the retina, the patient is diagnosed with __________.
Page 33
Q6) __________ eye drops are used to treat open-angle glaucoma.
Q7) __________ is a sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cryosurgery, extremely hot temperatures are used to destroy the treated tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Individuals being treated for head lice must be retreated after 5 days to destroy any surviving lice and/or nits that have hatched.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A benign tumor shows anaplastic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient scheduled for allergy skin tests should continue to take prescription antihistamines before the procedure to limit a dangerous allergic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients with metastases have distant spread of a cancerous tumor. A)True
B)False
Q6) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with diverticulosis are encouraged to avoid which of the following?
A) A diet high in roughage
B) Gluten products
C) Foods with kernels or seeds
D) A diet high in sugar or salt
Q2) The absorption of nutrients is the primary role of the A) stomach.
B) villi.
C) large intestine.
D) duodenum.
Q3) Ascites is associated with patients who have chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hemorrhoids are the enlargement of veins either internally or externally in the rectal area.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chronic viral hepatitis can occur with hepatitis B, C, and D.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between acute and chronic glomerulonephritis. Include in your explanation the typical signs and symptoms of each, as well as the treatment protocols.
Q2) ED medications are contraindicated in patients with a history of MI or CVA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Children who have inherited polycystic kidney disease from a parent begin to show symptoms of renal disease in adolescence or young adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following diagnostic studies is performed on a patient with symptoms of urinary tract obstruction?
A) Arteriography
B) Arthroscopy
C) Cholangiography
D) Myelography
E) Pyelography
Q5) If a child has an undescended testicle, a(n) ____________ is done to attach the testicle surgically within the scrotal sac.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lupron injections may be prescribed for advanced endometriosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which method of birth control has the highest failure rate?
A) Condom
B) Diaphragm
C) IUD
D) Birth control pills
Q3) In which of the following uterine walls is the powerful muscular layer that contracts during childbirth?
A) Endometrium
B) Myometrium
C) Perimetrium
D) Fondus
Q4) The leading cause of gynecologic cancer deaths is ____________ cancer.
A) endometrial
B) breast
C) ovarian
D) cervical
Q5) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with asthma have a productive cough accompanied by an inspiratory wheeze and shortness of breath.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is caused by
A) pancreatic disease.
B) a mother who carries the gene and passes it to her son.
C) an infection of the pulmonary system.
D) an altered gene carried by both parents.
Q3) The most common complication of infection with coxsackievirus is dehydration caused by vomiting and diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how to manage the following patient scenarios.
a. A crying 8-month-old being seen today for possible otitis media
b. A 4-year-old who requires vision screening
c. An 8-year-old who needs a booster shot
d. A 16-year-old female patient who is scheduled for her first Gardasil injection
Q5) A buildup of fluid in the middle ear is called ___________ otitis media.
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rose Langdon, an 81-year-old patient, has been prescribed a cane for walking assistance. Summarize how you would teach Mrs. Langdon to use the cane properly.
Q2) Lyrica, an antiseizure medication, is the first drug that has been approved by the FDA to treat fibromyalgia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sprain damages a ligament and may involve surrounding blood vessels, muscles, tendons, and nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A sac of synovial fluid near a joint is known as a A) tendon.
B) synovial membrane.
C) bursa.
D) ligament.
Q5) The _____________ function of the red bone marrow results in the production of blood cells.
Q6) Summarize four risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
Q7) A(n) __________ fracture in a young child is suggestive of a child abuse injury.
Page 39
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A CVA may be caused by a(n) _____________, which is a thrombus that has broken away from the site of origin and lodged in a blood vessel of the brain.
Q2) Parkinson's disease
A) affects men more often than women.
B) is caused by a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
C) is progressive and has no cure.
D) All of the above
E) B and C
Q3) A positive Brudzinski's sign is indicative of meningitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following systems promotes responses geared toward protecting the individual ("fight or flight")?
A) Autonomic nervous system
B) Sympathetic system
C) Parasympathetic system
D) Central nervous system
Q5) __________ continues to be the fourth-leading cause of death and the most frequent cause of crippling disease in the United States.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liver is capable of creating glucose from proteins and fats through the process of
Q2) Polyphagia associated with diabetes mellitus means that the patient is extremely thirsty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cretinism occurs when the thyroid fails to develop properly in an adolescent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mrs. Connie Franco, age 62, was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 about 3 years ago. She is very concerned about the possible complications of the disease, because her mother died of diabetic complications last month. Summarize four possible microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM.
Q5) A disease that results in enlargement of the bones of the hands, feet, jaws, and cheeks is
A) acroarthritis.
B) acromegaly.
C) arthralgia.
D) gigantism.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best time for sputum specimen collection is first thing in the morning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A microorganism that is exceedingly pathogenic or deadly is said to be highly
Q3) The primary means by which Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread is direct contact with contaminated items.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the recommended treatment for individuals exposed to TB who have a negative sputum culture compared with the recommended treatment for individuals diagnosed with active TB.
Q5) Pneumonia is most often seen in young children and the elderly.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The CDC recommends that active pulmonary TB be treated with a single antibiotic for 6 months.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A surgical procedure of the chest cavity is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is used to treat congestive heart failure?
A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C) Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
E) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q2) Varicose veins can occur because of an inherited defect in the valves of the saphenous veins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient calls the physician's office reporting signs and symptoms of a possible MI. Identify three signs and symptoms that require activation of EMS.
Q4) The signal from the AV node is picked up by which of the following?
A) Atrioventricular node
B) Aorta
C) Purkinje fibers
D) Bundle of His
Q5) ________________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
Page 43
Q6) Patients with __________ must pay particular attention to a sudden weight gain.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin of older patients appears thinner and tears easily because of changes in the dermal layer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Orthostatic hypotension may be caused by the heart's inability to adapt to an increased workload.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following changes in the aging patient are directly related to the individual's activity level?
A) Height
B) Weight
C) Muscular
D) Skeletal
Q4) Which of the following diseases is not associated with aging?
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes type 2
C) Arteriosclerosis
D) Diabetes type 1
Q5) The medical term for an age spot is __________.
Page 44
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every fifth line on ECG paper, both vertically and horizontally, is darker than the other lines and creates a large square measuring __________ on each side.
Q2) Describe the placement of each precordial lead.
Q3) Which of the following leads is placed in the fifth intercostal space, at the left midclavicular line?
A) V<sub>1</sub>
B) V<sub>2</sub>
C) V<sub>3</sub>
D) V<sub>4</sub>
E) V<sub>5</sub>
Q4) The standard speed for an ECG recording is 50 mm/sec.
A)True B)False
Q5) The AV node sends the electric impulse through the __________, which stimulates the right and left ventricular walls.
Q6) Lead I records the electrical activity between the right arm and the left arm.
A)True B)False
Q7) ECG paper has horizontal and vertical lines at __________ intervals.
Page 45
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the physician orders a plantar x-ray film, the technician would take an image of the
A) palm of the hand.
B) superior side of the foot.
C) inferior aspect of the heel.
D) sole of the foot.
Q2) Which medical term means "front" or "in front of"?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Anterior
D) Posterior
Q3) Diverticulosis may be diagnosed with which procedure?
A) UGI
B) LGI
C) Abdominal sonography
D) MRI with iodine dye
Q4) The radioisotopes used in nuclear medicine cause the patient to become radioactive; this requires special precautions for family members.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A test may be used for testing patients when a series of control results show test
A) precision.
B) accuracy.
C) reliability.
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a waived test?
A) Dipstick urinalysis
B) Fecal occult blood
C) Gram staining
D) Spun microhematocrit
Q3) For qualitative tests, a numeric value is attached to the result that specifically states the amount of analyte in a given volume of specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For a quantitative test, the result is expressed numerically.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ is the substance tested for or analyzed in a specimen.
Q6) __________ is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common finding in cystitis and in individuals passing kidney stones?
A) Hematuria
B) Hemoglobinuria
C) Myoglobinuria
D) None of the above
Q2) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
Q3) A(n) __________________ is ordered if the physician suspects that the patient has a UTI and needs to determine the most effective antibiotic to prescribe.
Q4) ____________ is the study of poisonous substances and their effects on the body.
Q5) In general, artifacts in urine sediment, such as mucous threads and starch granules, are quantified and reported.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The reagent strip is highly sensitive to A) hemoglobin.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) urinary albumin.
D) mucoproteins.
48
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a routine venipuncture, when should the phlebotomist request that the patient "release the fist"?
A) When the procedure is finished, after the tourniquet has been removed
B) When the last tube has been filled, before the tourniquet is removed
C) When blood enters the first tube being drawn
D) When the procedure is finished and the bleeding has stopped
Q2) A(n) ____________ is a special laboratory filter paper that is used to collect a blood sample from newborns.
Q3) You are performing a capillary puncture on a patient and are having difficulty collecting an adequate sample. Which of the following is an accepted method to encourage blood flow from the site?
A) Squeeze the finger.
B) Wrap the finger in a cool towel.
C) Make a second puncture mark close to the first.
D) Gently rub the finger along the sides.
Q4) It is important to shake a Vacutainer tube after collecting a blood sample so that the sample and additive are properly mixed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ cholesterol is known as "good" cholesterol because a high level seems to protect the body against heart attack.
Q2) A(n) ____________ is used to separate blood parts from plasma.
Q3) Which department of the laboratory performs H&H tests?
A) Hematology
B) Cytology
C) Immunology
D) Chemistry
Q4) B cells produce specific antibodies against a particular antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The WBC count is lowest in newborns and highest in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A properly prepared wedge smear
A) has blood covering one-half to three-quarters of the slide.
B) is dried quickly with forceful blowing.
C) has a blunt edge.
D) should be dried with the "heel" end up before staining.
Q7) A(n) ____________ is an immature neutrophil.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?
A) Gram-negative cocci found in pairs
B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
C) Gram-positive cocci in chains
D) Gram-negative spirilla
Q2) Microscopically, a sputum specimen containing positive AFB appears
A) pink.
B) blue.
C) purple.
D) green.
Q3) Which of the following tests is performed in the serology laboratory?
A) Direct immunologic urine pregnancy test
B) Indirect immunologic test
C) Strep test
D) Influenza test
E) Both C and D
Q4) Protozoa often are identified with observation of __________, the microscopic capsule-like sacs that enclose them in the larval stage.
Q5) __________ are specific structures within a cell that perform a particular cellular function.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the Iris scissors with the appropriate description and/or function. (Select all that apply.)
A) 4 to 5 inches long
B) Most frequently used length is 5 inches
C) Usual length is 4 inches
D) 5 to 6 inches long
E) Blade has beak or hook
F) Curved or straight blade tips
G) Used to cut and dissect fascia and muscle
H) Can be used as suture scissors
Q2) Which of the following is used as a diluent for medications?
A) Single one-time use vials of sterile water
B) 0.9% Sodium Chloride Injection USP single-dose vial
C) Bacteriostatic 0.9% Sodium Chloride Injection USP multiple-dose vial
D) 0.9% Sodium Chloride Irrigation USP
Q3) After instruments have been immersed in a chemical sterilizing agent, they should be rinsed with sterile water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A trocar is placed within a(n) __________ to drain fluid.
Page 52
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unwrapped items in an autoclave require more time for sterilization than wrapped items.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the preoperative instructions for a patient having surgery.
Q3) Autoclave wrapping material must be __________ so that steam can circulate around the instruments.
Q4) Sterile team members should always face one another.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The LEEP excisional procedure is considered which of the following?
A) Electrosurgery
B) Laser surgery
C) Microsurgery
D) Endoscopy
E) Cryosurgery
Q6) When autoclaving, place a gauze sponge around the tips of sharp instruments to prevent them from piercing the wrapping material.
A)True
B)False Page 53
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) A counteroffer is a return offer often made by a supervisor or employer who is at risk of losing a valued employee.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Job applications are never considered legal documents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Performance evaluations should be perfect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Salary expectations should be listed on the résumé.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the best action to take if an employer asks you whether you are married?
A) Advise him or her that it is illegal to ask this question.
B) Ignore the question by pretending you did not hear it.
C) Politely ask the interviewer whether you can respond to questions that relate directly to the job.
D) Answer it truthfully, because you are required to do so.
Q6) Never list salary __________ on the résumé.
Page 55
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