Medical Terminology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the language of medicine. Through the study of word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms, students will learn to construct, deconstruct, and understand the complex vocabulary used in healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on terms related to the structure and function of the human body, as well as various diseases, disorders, diagnostic procedures, and treatments. Mastery of medical terminology facilitates effective communication among healthcare professionals and enhances students ability to interpret medical reports, records, and literature. This course serves as a critical building block for further study and careers in the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant An Applied Learning Approach 11th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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58 Chapters
4897 Verified Questions
4897 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Becoming a Successful Student
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The way an individual perceives and processes information to learn new material
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: A
Q2) Creating a(n) __________ can be an effective way to represent the main idea of the topic and its important details with a figure or picture.
Answer: mind map
Mind maps help learners organize and visualize more complex material.
Q3) Learning styles are determined by your individual method of __________, or examining, new material and the way you process it or make it your own.
Answer: perceiving
Perceiving is the method individuals use to examine information and recognize it as real.
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3
Chapter 2: The Healthcare Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals is considered one of the most brilliant minds working on the AIDS crisis today?
A)C.Everett Koop
B)David Ho
C)Antonia Novello
D)Anthony Fauci
Answer: B
Q2) The National Library of Medicine is part of what organization?
A)USAMRIID
B)CDC
C)NIH
D)WHO
Answer: C
Q3) Holistic refers to the individual parts of the body rather than all of its systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Medical Assisting Profession
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most important consideration in choosing a uniform?
A)It should be becoming and flattering to the body type.
B)It should not be wrinkled by the end of the workday.
C)It should give the wearer a professional, neat appearance.
D)It should be fashionable.
Answer: C
Q2) Approximately _____% of medical assistants work in physicians' offices. Answer: 62
About 62% of medical assistants work in a physician's office, according to the Occupational Outlook Handbook.
Q3) Respondeat superior means "the thing speaks for itself."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The __________ examination is offered as a certification for medical assistants by the AMT.
Answer: RMA
The AMT offers the RMA examination.
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Chapter 4: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) The personality that people project in public is their persona.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about professionalism is not true?
A)It must be practiced at all times in the workplace.
B)It can lead to wage increases and promotions.
C)Unacceptable behavior is detrimental to the medical assistant's career.
D)Student medical assistants are naturally professional on the externship even if they are not professional at school.
Q3) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A)competent
B)compatent
Q4) The medical assistant should never stop trying to improve and experience __________.
Q5) Patients expect professional behavior and base much of their trust and confidence in those who exhibit this type of __________ in the medical office.
Q6) Often the success of a business is directly related to effective communication.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Interpersonal Skills and Human Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who refuses to face a conflict either by giving in or by pretending nothing is wrong is a(n):
A)kitchen sink fighter
B)gunnysacker
C)avoider
D)pseudoaccommodator
Q2) Medical assistants should offer an explanation for their boundaries to co-workers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Calming patients' fears and concerns is not a part of the medical assistant's job description.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a patient hesitates when speaking, he or she might:
A)be lying
B)have more to say
C)feel fear
D)all of the above
Q5) The second stage of grief is __________.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although attorneys often accept clients on a(n) __________ fee basis, it is unethical for a physician to do so.
Q2) Another name for somatic cell nuclear transfer is:
A)human cloning
B)organ donation
C)genetic counseling
D)artificial insemination
Q3) Which of the following does the CEJA not only consider ethical, but also encourages?
A)Capital punishment
B)Abortion
C)Organ donation
D)Human cloning
Q4) If a person appears in the medical office with an official press badge, the medical assistant must make information available.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A formal expression of judgment or advice by an expert is called a(n)
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Chapter 7: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only the defense has the right to appeal a court decision to a higher level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An emancipated minor is over the age of 18.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term medical professional liability encompasses all possible civil liability that can be incurred during the delivery of medical care.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which agency oversees and enforces the Controlled Substances Act?
A)IRS
B)DEA
C)OSHA
D)SWAT
Q5) To agree to something after thoughtful consideration is called __________.
Q6) Much of our law is based on previous judicial and jury decisions called ordinances.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Computer Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health information cannot be used or shared without the patient's __________.
Q2) Which printer would be the best selection if you plan to prepare multicolored newsletters with computer-generated graphics and illustrations?
A)Dot matrix
B)Ink jet
C)Color laser
D)Letter quality
Q3) A Zip drive is also called a thumb drive or flash drive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Networks allow several computers to use the same printer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is used to ensure that all office computer programs and data are secure in case of a mishap, fire, or natural disaster?
A)RAM
B)Microprocessor
C)Write-protection
D)Backup functions
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Chapter 9: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not required when a telephone message is taken?
A)The caller's name and phone number
B)The time and date
C)The name of the person to whom the call is directed
D)The caller's account number
Q2) Most physicians do not expect the medical assistant to screen calls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An alternative to using directory assistance is using the __________ to find phone numbers.
Q4) Active listening involves:
A)giving the same attention to a person on the phone as would be given to a person face to face
B)concentrating on the conversation at hand
C)discovering vital information
D)all of the above
Q5) A minimum of __________ items of information is needed to take a phone message correctly.
Q6) Message books should be kept in the medical office at least until the __________ runs out.
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Chapter 10: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician may discontinue care if the patient habitually fails to show up for appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most facilities require a documented physician's order before a patient can be admitted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Approaching a situation with caution is using __________.
Q4) The information in the appointment book must be legible, because it:
A)could be entered into court proceedings as evidence
B)provides a clear indication as to which patient is coming at what time C)allows all those using the appointment book to read it clearly D)all of the above
Q5) Appointments for established patients usually take longer.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A thing that is necessary to achieve an end or to carry out a function is called a(n)
Q7) Competency as a result of training or practice is called __________.
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Chapter 11: Patient Reception and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a chart is marked in some way as a reminder that specific actions need to be taken, it is said to be:
A)mnemonic
B)depleted
C)sequential
D)flagged
Q2) A(n) __________ note helps track the patient's condition in the medical record.
Q3) Writing a phonetic spelling of a patient's name can help the medical assistant pronounce it correctly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The office should not keep any types of toys in the reception area.
A)True B)False
Q5) If the medical assistant's desk is in open view of the patients, it should be free of
Q6) Journals for physicians may be displayed as reading material in the reception area. A)True B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Office Environment and Daily Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to guess at travel expenses when completing a travel expense report.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Money given for a speaking engagement is often called a(n):
A)honorarium
B)payment
C)credit
D)expense
Q3) Which of the following is not a good way to reduce waste while saving money in the physician's office?
A)Reusing printer toner and ribbon cartridges
B)Buying new file folders for all office needs
C)Using bulletin boards
D)Using two-way envelopes
Q4) The information the medical assistant enters or creates on the office computer belongs to the medical assistant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Written Communications and Mail Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal function of a well-organized portfolio of business letters is to help the medical assistant:
A)write correctly
B)save time
C)use one consistent style
D)spell accurately
Q2) Many offices use a disclaimer with their faxes and e-mails to guarantee confidentiality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Editing usually is done:
A)after the first draft of a letter
B)after the final draft of a letter
C)before the letter is written
D)while writing the first draft of a letter
Q4) The best way to send a letter of great importance is via __________ mail.
Q5) E-mail is classified as only casual communication.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Paper Medical Record Formerly Medical
Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are not needed when describing a patient's chief complaint?
A)Remedies the patient has tried to relieve symptoms
B)The duration of pain
C)The time when symptoms were first noticed
D)How many family members are healthy
Q2) A folder used to provide space for the temporary filing of materials is a(n)
Q3) A filing system in which materials can be located without consulting an intermediary source of reference is said to be a(n) __________ system.
Q4) What is the most important reason for telling the physician when a charting error is discovered later?
A)To protect the patient's health and well-being
B)To protect the medical assistant's job
C)To make sure the medical assistant is not accused of making the error
D)To keep the patient from discovering the error
Q5) The concise account of the patient's symptoms in his or her own words is the
Page 16
Q6) __________ information is observed by the physician.
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Chapter 15: The Electronic Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the EMR function to best help improve a facility's appointment show rate?
A)The system can matrix the schedule with input from a staff member.
B)The system can be programmed to initiate reminder and confirmation calls to patients.
C)The system will allow searches for patient appointments based on few parameters.
D)The system can generate a list of the confirmed appointments.
Q2) How are corrections made to the electronic health record?
A)Corrections can be noted by hand and entered, as long as they are initialed.
B)A new entry or addendum must be added close to the original entry with the correct information and then initialed.
C)The incorrect entry is deleted and the new one is written in.
D)The error is brought to the attention of the office manager for instructions on how to correct it.
Q3) Information contained in an electronic medical record usually can be accessed from several different physical places.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Health Information Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phrase is appropriate when calling a patient after a medical error has been discovered?
A)"We have made an error in your medical care and need to discuss it with you."
B)"The physician wants to talk with you."
C)"We'd like you to come into the office to discuss some things that have happened with your care."
D)"We need to discuss a confidential matter with you."
Q2) A physician cannot lose his or her license over a medical error.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A pharmacy is not allowed to offer:
A)patient information to another entity that in turn uses that information to solicit sales of related products to a patient
B)a discount program to patients that requires a special card to participate
C)discounted drugs to patients
D)suggestions about over-the-counter drugs
Q4) Medical records must be completely legible and authenticated properly.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A thing that is altered in sequence is said to be __________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Privacy in the Physicians Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Employees of the medical facility must be trained to implement the HIPAA procedures that the facility has put in place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Suppose a married woman comes to the physician's office for a pregnancy test.Who is allowed to access her PHI?
A)Her parents
B)Her husband
C)Only the patient
D)Anyone the patient has designated to access her PHI
Q3) How many provisions does HIPAA contain?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q4) Healthcare providers face significant challenges during major __________ in keeping patients safe and protecting their privacy.
Q5) Electronic __________ are used daily in modern physicians' offices.
Q6) It is possible to encounter conflicting __________ when disclosing PHI.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dermatitis caused by cosmetics
A)692.84
B)692.83
C)692.82
D)692.81
Q2) Congenital hydrocephalus
A)742.1
B)742.2
C)742.3
D)742.4
Q3) Chronic laryngitis
A)476.0
B)476
C)476.1
D)476.2
Q4) Corneal ectasia
A)371.61
B)371.71
C)371.73
D)371.56
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Chapter 19: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent
A)32003
B)32002
C)32001
D)32000
Q2) New patient, initial inpatient consultation
A)99251
B)99252
C)99253
D)99254
Q3) Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Codes used mostly by hospitals that are not included in the CPT-4 are called __________ codes.
Q5) Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal
A)71000
B)71100
C)71010
D)71011
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Chapter 20: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a type of insurance verification method?
A)Asking about the patient's insurance during the initial appointment telephone call
B)Copying the insurance card when the patient arrives for an appointment
C)Calling the carrier to verify benefits and eligibility
D)All of the above
Q2) Health insurance benefits are determined by:
A)indemnity schedules
B)service benefit plans
C)relative value studies
D)all of the above
Q3) Which part of Medicare covers prescription drug services?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Health Insurance Claim Form
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be a valid number for block 24e?
A)3
B)6
C)401.1
D)256.01
Q2) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim
Q3) The medical assistant should do the following when a new patient comes to the office?
A)Collect the completed patient information sheet
B)Make a copy of the patient's insurance card, front and back
C)Make a copy of the patient's driver's license
D)All of the above should be done.
Q4) The insurance claim should always be proofread.
A)True B)False
Q5) Claims that are done by direct billing first go to a clearinghouse.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Patients sign an __________ of benefits form so that the physician will receive payment for services directly.
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Chapter 22: Professional Fees, Billing, and Collecting
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) true about giving patient estimates for treatment?
A)It may help simplify collection by preventing misunderstandings.
B)It may help the patient remember that a fee was quoted.
C)It may help eliminate the possibility that the fee is misquoted later.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following times is not acceptable for collection calls?
A)9 AM
B)11:30 AM
C)8 AM
D)9:30 PM
Q3) The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act requires that debt collectors act fairly in their collection efforts and places restrictions on how and when a patient can be contacted.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tammy Watson had surgery 3 weeks ago, and her charge was $7,200, which covers the procedure and 6 weeks of follow-up.What will her charge be for her visit today if the normal limited office visit is $110? She is an established patient.
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Chapter 23: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name of the first endorser of the check indicates the last person who received the money.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deposit is $3,290.The checkbook balance is $16,561, but the mortgage payment on the physician's building is paid the same day, which is $3,500.What is the checkbook balance?
Q3) An instrument that is legally transferable to another party is said to be __________.
Q4) Bank statements should be checked immediately upon receipt and scanned carefully for errors.
A)True B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ check has a detachable form that is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn.
Q6) The checks received today include $56, $78, $57, $43, and $5,633.12.What is the total amount in checks that will be added to the deposit?
Q7) The __________ status is what distinguishes an IRA from an ordinary savings account.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Financial and Practice Management
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Q1) Which statement best describes the relationship between bookkeeping and accounting?
A)Accounting is a summary of the activities of bookkeeping.
B)Bookkeeping takes care of all the reporting activities of accounting.
C)Accounting plans the bookkeeping process.
D)Bookkeeping involves the recording activities of accounting.
Q2) Annual FUTA returns must be filed before January 1 following the close of the calendar year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Complete and correct financial records are necessary for:
A)prompt billing and collection procedures
B)professional financial planning
C)accurate reporting of income
D)all of the above
Q4) Liabilities = Assets + Proprietorship.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The FUTA return is IRS form __________.
Q6) A cash __________ statement is a financial summary for a specific period.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Medical Practice Management and Human Resources
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Q1) The type of power that is evident when a person is knowledgeable about a subject is called ______ power.
A)coercive
B)expert
C)legitimate
D)referent
Q2) Interviews should be conducted when no one else is in the office.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following management theories suggests that people enjoy working?
A)Theory U
B)Theory X
C)Theory Y
D)Theory Z
Q4) The office manager can easily determine all but which of the following by looking at an applicant's application or résumé?
A)Work experience
B)Personality
C)Educational background
D)Skills
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Chapter 26: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) The process or technique of promoting, selling, and distributing a product or a service is __________.
Q2) The four Ps of marketing include promotion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) External customers include the office staff.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A monthly e-newsletter is a great marketing idea.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the final step in developing a plan?
A)Research
B)Planning the concept
C)Assessment
D)Evaluation
Q6) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule.
Page 28
Q7) Something toward which effort is directed is a(n) __________.
Q8) Once files have been uploaded to a Web site, the site should be __________ to make sure it looks the way it is supposed to look.
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Chapter 27: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most pathogenic microorganisms prefer a neutral pH for optimum growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ disorder is one in which the body reacts against its own tissues.
Q3) Errors in disinfection can occur if:
A)instruments are not properly sanitized first
B)the disinfectant solution is diluted
C)instruments are soaked in a closed container
D)A and B
E)all of the above
Q4) A patient who is in remission has a disease but is not showing symptoms at the time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ is an insect or tick that transmits the causative organisms of a disease.
Q6) An inherited defect is one that occurs inexplicably during fetal development.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Patient Assessment
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Q1) Therapeutic interactions with children include all of the following except:
A)allowing the child to decide whether a breathing treatment is needed
B)permitting the child to play with your stethoscope
C)praising the child for cooperative behavior
D)playing a game to distract the child
Q2) Objective data include which of the following?
A)Complaints of pain
B)Social history
C)Blood pressure recordings
D)Past medical history
Q3) Helen Conrad, age 54, was recently diagnosed with epilepsy.She is very upset about the news.A therapeutic interaction might be:
A)"Look on the bright side; things could be worse."
B)"The doctor will prescribe medication, which will probably prevent most seizures."
C)Distract the patient by discussing the weather.
D)Offer the patient advice on how to drive safely.
E)Listen attentively while the patient talks about her fears.
Q4) Detail how to make a correction in a patient's record.
Q5) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
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Chapter 29: Patient Education
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Q1) Reflection can be an excellent communication tool to use when a patient is angry about a diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Providing an 83-year-old patient a DVD about diabetes is an effective teaching method.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the medical assistant stands in front of the patient or within the person's field of vision before beginning to speak, which of the following patients would benefit most?
A)A patient with vision loss
B)A patient with hearing loss
C)A patient who does not speak English
D)A patient who is unable to walk
Q4) A useful approach to dealing with a patient's perceived barriers to healthy living may be referral to a community resource for patient support.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39489
Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin D is an essential nutrient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a food claims to be sodium free, there can be no salt in the product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vitamins or nutrients that can be created by the body are called __________.
Q4) Carbohydrate intake should be close to 60% of daily calories.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue?
A)Support and protect vital organs
B)Distribute vitamin C throughout the body
C)Contribute to a healthy nervous system
D)Regulate body temperature
Q6) Mercury is a very serious environmental contaminant that is most dangerous for aging adults.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define essential and nonessential nutrients.
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Chapter 31: Vital Signs
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39490
Sample Questions
Q1) When a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the ______ pressure.
A)mean arterial
B)systolic
C)diastolic
D)pulse
Q2) A newborn is observed in the nursery with periodic episodes of not breathing.This is called:
A)bradypnea
B)apnea
C)hyperpnea
D)rales
Q3) A patient with __________ has abnormal rumbling sounds on expiration that indicate airway obstruction with thick secretions or bronchospasms.
Q4) Patients with diabetes do not need to be weighed at every visit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical term for fainting is __________.
Q6) A patient with __________ has regular but slow respirations.
Q7) The medical term for ear wax is __________
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Chapter 32: Assisting With the Primary Physical Examination
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of involuntary muscles are the muscles that line arteries and arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List and describe the four types of body tissue.
Q3) Which position requires the patient to lie flat on his or her back?
A)Supine
B)Prone
C)Sims'
D)Fowler's
Q4) The process of creating blood cells in the red bone marrow is called __________.
Q5) What type of breath odor may be observed in patients with diabetes?
A)Acetone or fruity
B)Musty
C)Tangy or citrus
D)Ammonia
Q6) The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining informed consent for any scheduled procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Principles of Pharmacology
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39492
Sample Questions
Q1) Prescription medications that are listed in the Federal Controlled Substance Act are identified by the symbols and/or abbreviations:
A)FCSA
B)NDG
C)II, III, IV, and V
D)all of the above
Q2) The prescription is a separate written order, and its purpose is to control the sale and use of:
A)OTC drugs
B)drugs that should be used only with the supervision of a physician
C)illegal drugs
D)none of the above
Q3) The signature part of the prescription is where the physician signs his or her name.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Drugs administered for curative purposes are called therapeutic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
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Chapter 34: Pharmacology Math
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82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perform the following math problems with the fractions reduced to their lowest terms:
A)2/3 ´ 8/7 = ______
B)9/8 ÷ 6/10 = _____
C)3/4 ´ 1/2 = _____
D)2/5 ÷ 2/3 = _____
Q2) The physician prescribes 0.5 g of ampicillin.The label states, "Ampicillin 500 mg/5 mL." How many milliliters should be administered?
A)25 mL
B)5 mL
C)2.5 mL
D)1 mL
Q3) The fraction 9/8 is an example of a(n) __________ fraction.
Q4) Convert the following fractions into decimals, rounding the last digit as needed:
A)3/4 = ________
B)2/3 = ________
C)9/12 = _______
D)10/12 = _______
Q5) Always in a proportion, the problem is solved by __________.
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Chapter 35: Administering Medications
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physicians registered to dispense controlled drugs are required by law to maintain an inventory of the drugs.The inventory must be maintained for how many years after the date of registration?
A)1
B)2
C)6
D)7
E)10
Q2) Dorothy is asked to administer Humalog to a 13-year-old patient.Which type of syringe must she use?
A)TB
B)3 cc
C)unit
D)1 cc
Q3) Intramuscular injections for infants should be given below the greater trochanter of the femur but within the upper __________ of the vastus lateralis muscle.
Q4) Antibiotics typically are prescribed initially in a(n) __________ dose to reach therapeutic blood levels as quickly as possible.
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Chapter 36: Emergency Preparedness and Assisting With Medical Emergencies
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are baby-sitting your neighbor's infant and discover that the baby is not breathing.What should you do?
A)If there is no pulse, immediately call EMS.
B)Call EMS immediately and then return to the infant to start CPR.
C)Administer 2 rescue breaths, and if the infant does not respond, call EMS.
D)Perform CPR for about 2 minutes and then call EMS.
Q2) List at least four questions that should be asked if a patient calls about a possible poisoning.
Q3) An AED may save the life a victim in cardiac arrest.Describe how to apply the AED equipment and perform this skill.
Q4) What would the physician order if a patient is in insulin shock?
A)Insulin
B)Furosemide (Lasix)
C)Glucose
D)Normal saline
E)Lactated Ringer's solution
Q5) Patients with __________ have red, hot, dry skin; an altered level of consciousness; tachycardia; and rapid, shallow breathing.
Q6) The medical term for nose bleed is __________.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the tuning fork placed when the Weber test is performed?
A)On the mastoid process
B)On the center of the top of the head
C)One inch from the opening of the ear canal
D)One foot from the front of the face
Q2) Inflammation of the eardrum is called:
A)myringectomy
B)myringoplasty
C)myringitis
D)myringotomy
Q3) Which of the following is true about the aqueous humor of the eye?
A)It is located in the anterior cavity of the eye between the cornea and the lens.
B)It helps maintain normal pressure in the eye.
C)It is continuously produced by the ciliary processes to nourish tissues.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) __________ eye drops are used to treat open-angle glaucoma.
Q5) The vitreous humor helps maintain the shape of the anterior portion of the eye.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Dermatology
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92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only individuals with a history of chickenpox will develop herpes zoster.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient diagnosed with herpes simplex may be prescribed which of the following medications?
A)Prednisone
B)Valtrex
C)Bacitracin topical ung
D)Keflex
Q3) Scratch allergy testing is limited to no more than 20 allergens because of the danger of an anaphylactic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Herpes zoster can cause long-term pain after the skin inflammation has resolved; this condition is called __________.
Q5) A fissure is an example of a primary lesion of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure would be most likely to have long-lasting psychological effects on the patient?
A)Colostomy
B)Hemorrhoidectomy
C)Colonoscopy
D)Cholecystectomy
Q2) The four abdominal quadrants and nine regions are used routinely to describe and document GI complaints, signs, and symptoms.List the four abdominal quadrants and name at least one organ located in each.Also name the nine regions.
Q3) A condition of inflammation of the gallbladder is called:
A)cholelithiasis
B)cholecystitis
C)cholecystogram
D)cholecystectomy
Q4) Which of the following is(are) categorized as proton pump inhibitors?
A)Nexium
B)Tagamet
C)Prevacid
D)A and C
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39499
Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize what you learned in the chapter about the prostate-specific antigen test.
Q2) Part of the patient preparation for a cystoscopy is bowel cleansing to prevent interference from feces in the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Peritoneal dialysis is performed by:
A)connecting the machine to a shunt that has been surgically implanted in the patient
B)transferring the patient's blood to the machine to be cleansed
C)using the abdomen as the filtering mechanism for waste
D)treating the patient with high doses of diuretics and antihypertensive medications
Q4) Which of the following medications is ordered to treat genital herpes simplex?
A)Wycillin
B)Cipro
C)Vibramycin
D)Aldara
E)Valtrex
Q5) Explain the difference between renal hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
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Page 43
Chapter 41: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39500
Sample Questions
Q1) Stage _____ is the stage of labor in which the cervix dilates.
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q2) Menses lasting longer than 7 days is called:
A)metrorrhagia
B)menorrhagia
C)amenorrhea
D)dysmenorrhea
Q3) An NST may be ordered if the:
A)mother has HIV
B)mother has pre-eclampsia
C)baby is moving frequently in utero
D)mother has endometriosis
Q4) Pain or cramps with menstruation is called:
A)metrorrhagia
B)menorrhagia
C)amenorrhea
D)dysmenorrhea
Q5) A woman is considered __________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
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Chapter 42: Assisting in Pediatrics
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flu vaccine is recommended for any child age 3 months or older.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Medications that may be prescribed for children who have asthma symptoms two or more times a week include:
A)Proventil
B)Advair Diskus
C)Ventolin
D)Relenza
Q3) __________ is an inherited disorder, and both parents must be carriers.
Q4) Which statement is/are true about bacterial meningitis?
A)It can be treated with antibiotics, so it is not a serious infection.
B)One type can be prevented by the Hib vaccine.
C)Symptoms include a rash across the trunk of the body.
D)All of the above are true.
Q5) The varicella vaccine usually is administered to children in which age group?
A)6 months
B)12 to 18 months
C)Newborns (first dose)
D)Preschool age
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Chapter 43: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A classic sign of osteoporosis is:
A)anemia
B)joint pain
C)kyphosis
D)scoliosis
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by a widespread infection from Borrelia bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A goniometer is used in the orthopedic examination to measure:
A)muscular strength
B)gait
C)spinal curves
D)joint range of motion
Q4) The type of bone composed of a diaphysis and two epiphyses serves mainly to:
A)allow the body to stand upright
B)store white blood cells
C)protect internal organ
D)encase nerve pathways
Q5) Summarize four risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39503
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about hydrocephalus?
A)It can be diagnosed and treated in utero.
B)Enlargement of the infant's skull is limited, because the skull bones are fused at birth.
C)A shunt must be implanted surgically as soon as possible after birth.
D)Brain damage can be reversed if a shunt is placed surgically immediately after birth.
Q2) Patients who show symptoms on the same side of the body as the injury have __________ symptoms.
Q3) The cerebellum is responsible for:
A)controlling the autonomic nervous system
B)balance, equilibrium, posture, and muscle coordination
C)coordinating reflexes
D)verbal functions (e.g., reading, writing, speaking)
Q4) Bell's palsy is a sudden paralysis of the tenth cranial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) CVAs are the most common cerebrovascular events each year in the United States.Define the three types of strokes that can occur and five four typical symptoms that may be seen in an affected patient.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in Endocrinology
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97 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most correct explanation of diabetes mellitus type 2?
A)The patient typically has no family history of diabetes.
B)It usually is seen only in patients over age 40.
C)Patients are at great risk of developing cardiovascular complications over time.
D)Patients with this type of diabetes will never have to take insulin for blood glucose control.
Q2) Which disorder is a common form of hyperthyroidism?
A)Cushing's disease
B)Addison's disease
C)Diabetes
D)Graves' disease
Q3) Another term for __________ is somatotropic hormone, which stimulates tissue growth at the epiphyseal plates in children before puberty.
Q4) The pineal gland excretes which of the following hormones?
A)ADH
B)Aldosterone
C)Melatonin
D)Glucagon
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The signs and symptoms of sleep apnea include:
A)hypersomnia
B)dry mouth or sore throat in the morning
C)morning headache
D)all of the above
Q2) Lung cancer frequently is diagnosed after it has metastasized, because the early symptoms of the disease are similar to those experienced by smokers on a regular basis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Individuals exposed to TB have a positive PPD result for the rest of their lives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A surgical procedure of the chest cavity is called a(n) __________.
Q5) The treatment for viral pneumonia is palliative.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is the medical term for a collapsed lung.
Q7) The medical term for dilation of the bronchioles is __________.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in Cardiology
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the conduction system of the heart, which of the following is responsible for collecting the electrical energy that stimulated the atria to contract?
A)Purkinje fibers
B)Bundle of His
C)Atrioventricular node
D)Sinoatrial node
Q2) Drug therapy for hypertension should be prescribed for patients with diabetes mellitus who have a BP reading of:
A)120/80 mm Hg
B)116/72 mm Hg
C)140/90 mm Hg
D)136/78 mm Hg
Q3) What happens as a result of a myocardial infarction?
A)The heartbeat becomes very irregular.
B)A major blood vessel bursts.
C)A portion of the heart muscle dies.
D)A major artery becomes blocked.
Q4) A patient who develops right-sided CHF because of COPD is diagnosed with
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Geriatrics
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Presbycusis is defined as ringing in the ears.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aging changes in the lungs include a decrease in the ability of lung tissue to move freely with inspiration and expiration because of changes in __________ fibers.
Q3) Aging people are at no greater risk of developing blood clots in the legs than younger adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Disease is a normal and unavoidable part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is caused by increasing pressure inside the eye?
A)Cataract
B)Glaucoma
C)Macular degeneration
Q6) Older people may take longer to learn new material.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lead __________ records the electrical activity between the left arm and the left leg.
Q2) If the ECG recording appears as a series of small, uniform spikes in the baseline, the medical assistant should:
A)check for nearby electric appliances
B)ask the patient to lie still
C)help the patient relax and stay warm
D)check the cable connection to the electrodes
Q3) Which deflection from the baseline represents the repolarization of the ventricles?
A)P wave
B)T wave
C)ST segment
D)QRS complex
Q4) An abrasive device must be applied to each electrode placement site before an ECG can be obtained.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ECG paper has horizontal and vertical lines at __________ intervals.
Q6) What information should be documented on the ECG strip?
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Chapter 50: Assisting With Diagnostic Imaging
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85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the sonography machine that is in contact with the patient is called the:
A)gantry
B)cathode
C)transducer
D)table
Q2) You are employed in a busy internal medicine practice, and one of your responsibilities is to reinforce patient preparation instructions for a variety of diagnostic procedures.Describe patient preparations for the following studies:
Barium enema
Barium swallow Bone scan
Q3) Which plane of the body is a horizontal plane?
A)Sagittal
B)Frontal
C)Midsagittal
D)Transverse
Q4) An example of __________ is a cardiac catheterization with visualization.
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Chapter 51: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39510
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ encompasses a comprehensive set of policies and procedures developed to ensure the reliability of laboratory results.
Q2) Summarize methods that can be used to prevent physical hazards in the clinical laboratory.
Q3) A portion of a well-mixed sample that is removed for testing is called a(n):
A)aliquot
B)analyte
C)diluent
D)exudate
Q4) The ocular of the microscope generally magnifies the image:
A)2 times
B)5 times
C)10 times
D)minimally
Q5) The most effective means of preventing infection is the use of disposable gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A chemical added to a blood sample after collection to prevent clotting is called a(n) __________.
Page 54
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Chapter 52: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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77 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell most likely seen in a normal specimen is a:
A)red blood cell
B)renal tubular epithelial cell
C)squamous epithelial cell
D)leukocyte
Q2) Which statement is true about the pH of urine?
A)The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B)The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C)The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D)A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.
Q3) A laboratory test identified as the __________ is the analysis considered the best possible diagnostic tool for a specific health problem.
Q4) When a woman enters menopause, the ovaries stop producing eggs and the levels of __________ rise.
Q5) Hematuria is the presence of intact red blood cells in urine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The average person produces approximately 2 L of urine each day.
A)True
B)False
Page 55
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Chapter 53: Assisting in Phlebotomy
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80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39512
Sample Questions
Q1) The needle size most commonly used in infants and the elderly is _____ gauge.
A)16
B)23
C)35
D)21
Q2) The most common phlebotomy site in adults is/are the:
A)radial vein
B)brachial artery
C)veins in the antecubital space
D)veins in the popliteal area
Q3) The largest of the Vacutainer tubes typically used for phlebotomy fills to a volume of 10 mL.Approximately _____ tubes are needed to fill a pint (473 mL).
Q4) List the information required on the laboratory requisition.
Q5) You notice that a patient is developing petechiae during a blood draw.This typically means that the patient has a bleeding disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
Q7) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Page 56
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Chapter 54: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List five studies included in a CBC.
Q2) Granular leukocytes:
A)have granules in the nucleus of the cell
B)function primarily in the plasma
C)act as phagocytes
D)all of the above
Q3) Which statement is true about HDL?
A)It transports cholesterol.
B)It is referred to as the "bad" cholesterol.
C)If elevated, it can result in a greater risk of heart disease.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) Which of the following is not detected in a liver panel test?
A)GGT
B)ALT
C)ALP
D)CBC
Q5) A(n) __________ is used to separate blood parts from plasma.
Q6) Mrs.Grace Hernandez is suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis.Explain the ESR procedure to Mrs.Hernandez.
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Q7) Patients with __________ have an unusually large number of all blood cells.
Chapter 55: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39514
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician would order a stool culture to confirm staphylococcal food poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An anaerobic organism is most likely to be isolated from a(n):
A)abscess
B)sputum
C)skin scraping
D)throat
Q3) Bacteria are classified as __________ microbes, which are single-cell microbes that lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
Q4) A gram-positive cell has a thick layer of peptidoglycan with no lipid layer surrounding it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Specimens should be collected during the acute phase of an illness and 24 hours after antibiotics are prescribed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ forceps are small (4 inches) and are used to clamp small blood vessels or tissues.
Q3) A trocar is used to dilate or open a body orifice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Epinephrine may be included in local anesthetics because of its vasodilating effect.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Only biopsy samples suspected of being cancerous need to be sent to the laboratory for pathology studies.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and explain the purpose of at least four supplies that may be used in a minor surgical procedure.
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Chapter 57: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting With Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life.
Q2) Which statement is not true about informed consent for surgery?
A)The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining the patient's consent to treatment.
B)The patient must understand the potential risks and benefits of the surgery.
C)The patient must understand the possible risks of any alternative treatment.
D)The patient cannot give consent if he or she has received preoperative medication.
Q3) With __________ healing, a wound heals by granulation from the bottom of the wound outward.
Q4) What rules must be followed for wrapping an instrument for the autoclave?
Q5) Sterile team members should always face one another.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Plastic-wrapped autoclave packs are considered sterile for up to 6 months.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A wound usually caused by an accident that results in tearing or separation of tissues is called a(n) __________.
Page 60
Q8) A(n) __________ wound is infected with pathogens.
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Chapter 58: Career Development and Life Skills
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39517
Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ period is a time for the new medical assistant to become oriented to the facility.
Q2) The medical assistant can express interest in a job by __________ a company Web site and using the "Contact us" feature.
Q3) Salary expectations should be listed on the resume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you prepare a chronologic list of events, this means that they are organized in:
A)the order in which they occurred
B)strict alphabetic order
C)the order of importance
D)the order of easiest to most difficult
Q5) Letting another person write your resume is a good idea.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ comments help the medical assistant perform better and take on more responsibility.
Q7) Never list salary __________ on the resume.
Q8) A(n) __________ is a postponement, especially of a student loan.
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