Medical Terminology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is an essential course designed to introduce students to the specialized language used in the healthcare field. The course covers the fundamental structure of medical terms, including prefixes, suffixes, roots, and combining forms, enabling students to accurately decipher and construct complex medical vocabulary. Emphasis is placed on the correct pronunciation, spelling, and usage of terminology associated with body systems, diseases, procedures, and pharmacology. This foundational knowledge equips students for further studies in health sciences and prepares them for effective communication with healthcare professionals in clinical and administrative settings.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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27 Chapters
2281 Verified Questions
2281 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leg is ___________ to the thigh.
A)distal
B)proximal
C)superior
D)deep
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following includes the right iliac region?
A)RUQ
B)Epigastric region
C)Umbilical region
D)RLQ
Answer: D
Q3) The sternal area is
A)superior to the cervical region.
B)the breastbone area.
C)deep to the mediastinum.
D)inferior to the thoracic cavity.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the reaction HCl H + Cl<sup>-</sup>
A)HCl ionizes,thereby yielding the cation (H<sup>+</sup>) and anion (Cl<sup>-</sup>).
B)hydrochloric acid dissociates into an anion and cation.
C)HCl dissociates into a hydrogen ion and chloride ion.
D)All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q2) An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby A)forming an acid.
B)ionizing.
C)forming a molecule of water.
D)forming an anion and cation.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the energy-transferring molecule?
A)H+
B)ATP
C)Ca² +
D)NaCl
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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73 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome?
A)Differentiation
B)Phagocytosis
C)Meiosis
D)Hemolysis
Answer: B
Q2) The skunk makes his presence known by
A)filtration.
B)osmosis.
C)active transport.
D)diffusion.
Answer: D
Q3) Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer?
A)Lysosome
B)Mitochondrion
C)Ribosome
D)Cell membrane
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA
A)is double stranded and stores the genetic code.
B)contains ribose as its sugar.
C)is located within the cytoplasm.
D)contains the following bases: cytosine,guanine,adenine,and uracil.
Q2) Which of the following occurs first?
A)Reading the mRNA code by tRNA
B)mRNA leaves the nucleus through the nuclear pores
C)Transcription
D)Translation
Q3) Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance?
A)Steroids
B)Vitamins A,D,E,and K
C)Prostaglandins
D)Ammonia
Q4) Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes
A)glucose from glycogen.
B)glucose from protein.
C)protein from glucose.
D)protein from fat.
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection?
A)Clostridium
B)Mycotic
C)Viral
D)Parasitic
Q2) With regard to infectious disease,arthropods most often act as
A)parasites.
B)causative organisms of disease.
C)vectors.
D)fomites.
Q3) Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism?
A)Normal flora
B)Pathogen
C)Arthropod
D)Parasite
Q4) Which "bad air" disease is caused by a plasmodium?
A)Measles
B)Tinea
C)Tetanus
D)Malaria
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales?
A)Striated
B)Stratified
C)Squamous
D)Glia
Q2) Which of the following membranes secretes serous fluid?
A)Membrane that lines the respiratory tract
B)Membrane that lines the digestive tract
C)Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity
D)Membrane that lines the urinary tract
Q3) An exocrine gland
A)is made of epithelial tissue.
B)secretes hormones.
C)is ductless.
D)secretes only sweat.
Q4) The pleura,pericardium,and peritoneum are
A)confined to the thoracic cavity.
B)confined to the abdominopelvic cavity.
C)serous membranes.
D)mucous membranes.
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by
A)involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles.
B)constriction of the dermal blood vessels.
C)metabolism associated with brown fat.
D)involuntary contraction of the arrector pili muscles.
Q2) With aging the hair becomes gray and then white as
A)melanocytes become less active.
B)eccrine glands become less functional.
C)keratin secretion slows.
D)the arrector pili muscles lose their tone.
Q3) Shivering
A)can restore temperature to normal but can never elevate temperature above 99°F.
B)involves the involuntary contraction of only the arrector pili muscles.
C)produces heat.
D)activates the sebaceous glands.
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9
Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?
A)Hip
B)Knee
C)Ankle
D)Wrist
Q2) A synovial joint is
A)freely movable.
B)a suture.
C)found only in the lower extremities.
D)found only within the vertebral column and at the symphysis pubis.
Q3) The humerus
A)contains the olecranon process.
B)articulates distally with the ulna.
C)forms a ball-and-socket joint where the olecranon process articulates with the olecranon fossa.
D)articulates with the scapula at the sternomanubrial joint.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) To which contractile protein does calcium bind?
A)Troponin
B)Tropomyosin
C)Actin
D)Thick filament
Q2) Which of the following muscles is described as striated and involuntary?
A)Aponeurosis
B)Smooth
C)Skeletal
D)Cardiac
Q3) Which of the following generates the force that causes the filaments to slide past each other?
A)Binding of the acetylcholine to the NM receptor in the neuromuscular junction
B)The interaction of acetylcholine and cholinesterase
C)The rotation of the myosin head on the actin
D)The pumping of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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11
Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following relationships is true?
A)Temporal lobe: Broca's area
B)Frontal lobe: somatosensory (touch,pressure,pain)
C)Precentral gyrus: motor homunculus
D)Temporal lobe: vital center
Q2) What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?
A)The brain stem
B)The pons
C)Broca's area
D)The diencephalon
Q3) Which of the following "brain claims" is true?
A)The medulla oblongata is the upper part of the diencephalon.
B)The hypothalamus is a brain stem structure.
C)The medulla oblongata performs the "executive functions."
D)The midbrain,pons,and medulla oblongata are infratentorial structures.
Q4) A supratentorial brain tumor is
A)always malignant.
B)superior to the cerebral cortex.
C)a brain stem tumor.
D)superior to the tentorium cerebelli.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is described: cervical (8),thoracic (12),lumbar (5),sacral (5),and coccygeal (1)?
A)Number of nerve plexi
B)Sensory nerves of the peripheral nervous system
C)Levels at which most motor neurons decussate
D)Spinal nerves
Q2) A surgical patient is given a curare-like drug intravenously,thereby blocking his NM receptors.You would expect this patient to
A)become jaundiced.
B)bleed excessively during the postoperative period.
C)require assistance breathing.
D)have restraints on all four extremities to limit movement.
Q3) Which reflex is stimulated by stroking the sole of the foot with a sharp object?
A)Patellar
B)Baroreceptor
C)Babinski
D)Gag
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13
Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracolumbar outflow is described as
A)fight or flight.
B)vagomimetic.
C)sympathomimetic.
D)More than one of the above are true.
Q2) Vagal discharge activates
A)muscarinic receptors.
B)alpha1-adrenergic receptors.
C)Beta -adrenergic receptors.
D)the paravertebral ganglia.
Q3) Which of the following is (are) most related to the muscarinic receptors?
A)Paravertebral ganglia
B)ACh
C)Fight-or-flight response
D)Adrenergic fibers
Q4) Which of the following is descriptive of a panic attack?
A)Muscarinic activation
B)Vagomimetic
C)Fight or flight
D)All of the above
14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pinpoint pupils
A)describe the size of the pupils in a darkened room.
B)are caused by the contraction of the circular muscles of the iris.
C)are caused by mydriatic drugs.
D)are caused by the contraction of the radial muscles of the iris.
Q2) Which of the following is most related to the conjunctiva?
A)Is the mucous membrane that forms the inner lining of the eyelids
B)Is the vascular layer of the eyeball; it supplies the retina with blood
C)Is composed of circular and radial muscles
D)Forms the cornea,the window of the eye
Q3) These hairlike receptors are located in the cochlea.
A)Ossicles
B)Rods and cones
C)Organ of Corti
D)Adenoids
Q4) There is a heavy concentration of cones in this area of the retina.
A)Fovea centralis
B)Iris
C)Optic disc
D)Cornea
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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113 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myxedema,Graves' disease,and cretinism are
A)hypothyroid disorders.
B)due to a deficiency of TSH.
C)disorders of the thyroid gland.
D)best treated with T and/or T .
Q2) Cushing syndrome and Addison's disease are
A)forms of chronic adrenal cortical hypofunction.
B)forms of chronic adrenal cortical hypersecretion.
C)treated with replacement doses of cortisol (i.e. ,prednisone).
D)disorders of the adrenal cortex.
Q3) This adrenal cortical mineralocorticoid helps regulate salt and water balance.
A)Aldosterone
B)Glucagon
C)Cortisol
D)ADH
Q4) Hypocalcemic tetany
A)causes a flaccid paralysis.
B)resembles neuromuscular blockade by curare.
C)may be caused by a deficiency of PTH.
D)is caused by a deficiency of insulin.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell is the "parent cell" of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow?
A)Erythrocyte
B)Leukocyte
C)Stem cell
D)Megakaryocyte
Q2) Which of the following is most apt to cause deep vein thrombosis?
A)Thrombocytopenia
B)Neutropenia
C)Hemolysis
D)Venous stasis
Q3) Which of the following conditions is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium (Coumadin)?
A)Bleeding
B)Infection
C)Jaundice
D)Thrombosis
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17
Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of this structure is to delay the spread of the signal from the atrium to the ventricles.
A)SA node
B)Purkinje fibers
C)Bundle of His
D)AV node
Q2) The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the pulmonary veins to the left atrium to the left ventricle to the A)vena cava.
B)pulmonary artery.
C)aorta.
D)circle of Willis.
Q3) Which of the following is most related to "lubb" (of the lubb-dupp duo)?
A)Called S
B)Caused by the closure of the AV valves
C)Occurs in response to ventricular contraction
D)All of the above
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18
Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least related to a bradycardia?
A)Greater than 60 beats/min
B)Vagal discharge
C)(-) Chronotropic effect
D)Parasympathetic nerve stimulation of the SA node
Q2) Ventricular systole refers to
A)ventricular depolarization.
B)the opening of the valves of the ventricles.
C)ventricular filling.
D)contraction of the ventricular myocardium.
Q3) Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most likely to cause A)hypertension.
B)bradycardia.
C)tachycardia.
D)anemia.
Q4) Cardiac output
A)is determined by heart rate and pulse.
B)decreases in response to sympathetic nerve stimulation.
C)increases in response to vagal discharge.
D)is determined by heart rate and stroke volume.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding blood flow in the fetal circulation?
A)Right atrium,foramen ovale,ductus arteriosus
B)Umbilical artery,ductus venosus,placenta,inferior vena cava
C)Right ventricle,pulmonary artery,ductus arteriosus,aorta
D)Right ventricle,pulmonary artery,ductus arteriosus,left ventricle
Q2) Elevated pressure of the right atrium is most apt to cause
A)pulmonary edema.
B)stenosis or narrowing of the aortic valve.
C)elevation of systemic blood pressure.
D)distension of the jugular veins.
Q3) Which of the following is true of the renal arteries?
A)They drain urine from the kidneys.
B)They emerge from the abdominal aorta.
C)They drain into the superior vena cava.
D)They branch directly off the common iliac arteries.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which artery is most often used to measure blood pressure?
A)Carotid
B)Brachial
C)Femoral
D)Circle of Willis
Q2) If capillary pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure,
A)more fluid enters the capillary from the interstitial
B)no net flux of fluid occurs.
C)blood volume expansion occurs.
D)more fluid leaves the capillaries to enter the interstitium
Q3) Which condition can occur as a result of low blood volume?
A)Hypertension
B)Pulmonary edema
C)Varicose veins
D)Postural hypotension
Q4) Which of the following is not true about blood pressure?
A)The brachial artery is most commonly used to monitor blood pressure.
B)Blood pressure is higher in the arteries than in the capillaries.
C)Blood pressure is higher in the capillaries than in the veins.
D)Blood pressure is higher in the vena cava than in the arterioles.
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inguinal lymph nodes
A)line the entrance of the spleen.
B)are the Kupffer cells within the liver.
C)are located in the groin.
D)are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q2) The thoracic duct
A)filters lymph into the subclavian veins.
B)receives lymph from large lymphatic vessels that drain the left side of the body.
C)functions like a heart that pumps lymph throughout the body.
D)is a collection of lymph nodes.
Q3) A person has a severe streptococcal pharyngitis (sore throat).He is most likely to develop
A)hypertrophied thymus gland.
B)cervical lymphoma.
C)enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
D)painful cervical lymph nodes.
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes an abscess?
A)Blood-free serous fluid
B)Walled-off area of dead cells and their secretions
C)A systemic infection
D)Spread of infected cells to the brain
Q2) What is the term that refers to the use of dead or attenuated pathogens to stimulate antibody production?
A)Immunotolerance
B)Autoimmunity
C)Immunization
D)Inflammation
Q3) What is the primary concern regarding the care of a person experiencing an anaphylactic reaction?
A)The inability to breathe
B)The development of hives
C)The development of febrile seizures
D)Intense itching and discomfort
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which respiratory structure is distal to the trachea and proximal to the alveoli?
A)Pharynx
B)Larynx
C)Bronchus
D)Glottis
Q2) How is most oxygen transported through the blood?
A)attached to hemoglobin.
B)as bicarbonate.
C)as a surfactant.
D)as a lysozyme.
Q3) Which of the following occurs on inhalation?
A)Air moves into the intrapulmonic space.
B)Thoracic volume increases.
C)The diaphragm contracts.
D)All of the above occur.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fundus,body,and pylorus are parts of the
A)small intestine.
B)large intestine.
C)biliary tree.
D)stomach.
Q2) Which of the following is a digestive enzyme?
A)Gastrin
B)Trypsin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Secretin
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to cause ascites and esophageal varices?
A)Common bile duct obstruction
B)Gallstones
C)Stenosis of the pyloric valve
D)Increased portal vein pressure
Q4) Which of the following is least related to fat digestion?
A)Trypsin
B)Bile
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Lipase
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glomerular filtration pressure is caused by
A)intrathoracic pressure.
B)pressure within the renal tubules.
C)blood pressure.
D)intraabdominal pressure.
Q2) Which of the following is true of aldosterone?
A)It is an androgen.
B)It is the "salt-retaining" hormone.
C)It causes the tubular reabsorption of sodium,potassium,and water.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Most diuretics work by
A)increasing blood flow to the kidneys.
B)increasing the urge to urinate.
C)stimulating the contraction of the detrusor muscle.
D)blocking the tubular reabsorption of Na+.
Q4) A sudden decline in blood pressure to 80/45 mm Hg is most apt to
A)increase GFR.
B)increase glomerular filtration.
C)cause oliguria.
D)cause hematuria.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25
A)is indicative of expanded blood volume.
B)is indicative of alkalosis.
C)reflects an increase in the amount of H+ in the blood.
D)is within normal limits.
Q2) Water and chloride usually follow the movement of which cation?
A)Bicarbonate
B)Sodium
C)Potassium
D)Albumin
Q3) What does urinary specific gravity measure?
A)Plasma H+ concentration
B)Hydration status of the body
C)Plasma potassium
D)The buffering capacity of the blood
Q4) The determination of daily weights is used to monitor
A)serum K+.
B)diuretic therapy.
C)concentration of plasma protein.
D)pH.
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle
A)immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase.
B)is caused primarily by hCG.
C)corresponds hormonally to the ovarian luteal phase.
D)is the stage during which implantation occurs.
Q2) Which of the following are exocrine glands found in the male reproductive tract?
A)Adenohypophysis,seminal vesicles,testes
B)Testes,Cowper's glands,prostate gland
C)Bulbourethral glands,prostate gland,seminal vesicles
D)Interstitial cells,seminiferous tubules,prostate gland
Q3) Which of the following is referred to as external genitals?
A)Gonads
B)Vulva
C)Oviducts
D)Perineum
Q4) Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone?
A)Corpus albicans
B)Endometrium
C)Ovaries
D)Anterior pituitary gland
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characterized by quickening,lanugo,and vernix caseosa?
A)Zygote
B)Trophoblast
C)Embryo
D)Fetus
Q2) The blastocyst
A)lives in the uterus.
B)is a fetal structure.
C)lives in the fallopian tube.
D)is an estrogen-secreting ovarian structure.
Q3) Which cream cheese-like substance is secreted by baby's sebaceous glands and protects the skin from the amniotic fluid?
A)Lanugo
B)Colostrum
C)Vernix caseosa
D)Meconium
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