Medical Terminology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Medical Terminology is an essential foundational course designed to introduce students to the specialized language used in the healthcare industry. This course covers the structure and meaning of medical words, including prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining forms. Students will learn to accurately interpret, pronounce, spell, and utilize medical terms related to body systems, diseases, procedures, diagnostics, and treatments. Emphasis is placed on developing proficiency in understanding and communicating medical vocabulary, which is crucial for success in further healthcare-related studies and professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Learning styles are determined by your individual method of _____________, or examining, new material and the way you process it or make it your own.
Answer: perceiving
Perceiving is the method individuals use to examine information and recognize it as real.
Q2) The process of considering new information and internalizing it to create new ways of examining information
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: B
Q3) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests.
Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician whose primary professional focus is hospitalized patients is called a(n)
Answer: hospitalist
A hospitalist usually is employed by a healthcare facility and focuses on hospitalized patients.
Q2) A(n) ___________ treats life-threatening illnesses and supervises ambulance services.
Answer: paramedic
Paramedics treat life-threatening illnesses and injuries and supervise ambulance services.
Q3) Holistic refers to the individual parts of the body rather than all of its systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q4) Salk and Pasteur developed the polio vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The personality that people project in public is their persona.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) The mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with regard to the function or tasks at hand is called A) morale.
B) tenacity.
C) insubordination.
D) initiative.
Answer: A
Q3) Women are more successful as medical assistants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q4) _____________ is defined as exhibiting a courteous, conscientious, and generally businesslike manner in the workplace.
Answer: Professionalism
Professionalism is exhibiting a courteous, generally businesslike manner.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active listening is the skill of _____________ and clarifying what the speaker has said.
Q2) Being in agreement or harmony or conforming to the circumstances or requirements of a situation is said to be ____________.
Q3) The perception of the receiver in communication is important.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Q5) Which of the following strategies could be used to help school-aged children gain a sense of control during the health visit?
A) Give them the opportunity to make certain decisions about treatment
B) Respect their privacy
C) Keep them informed in a language they can understand
D) Encourage them to ask questions
E) All of the above
Q6) The second level of Maslow's "hierarchy of needs" deals with self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When a message is ___________, it is converted into intelligible form.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pretrial disclosure of pertinent facts or documents by one or both parties in a legal action is called
A) discovery.
B) exchange.
C) subpoena.
D) subpoena duces tecum.
Q2) A(n) __________ is something done or said that serves as an example or rule to authorize or justify a subsequent act of the same kind.
Q3) A written defamatory statement or representation that conveys an unjustly unfavorable impression is called libel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Civil cases must be proven by a(n) __________ of the evidence.
Q5) The HITECH Act imposes data breach notification requirements for unauthorized uses and disclosures of "unsecured PHI."
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ are a type of testimony that is not limited to the parties in a lawsuit.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the allocation of health resources, the criterion (or criteria) should be which of the following?
A) Likelihood of benefit
B) Duration of benefit
C) Urgency of need
D) All of the above
Q2) The first step in the five-step process of ethical decision making is
A) determining the ethical approach to use.
B) gathering relevant information.
C) exploring the practical alternatives.
D) identifying the type of ethical problem.
Q3) ____________ waiver of insurance co-payments may violate the policies of some insurers.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the example of organ donation and distribution of scarce or costly medications?
A) Ethical distress
B) Ethical dilemma
C) Dilemma of justice
D) Locus of authority
Q5) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Reaproach
B) Reproach
Q2) Which medical assistant has a good work ethic?
A) Angela, who arrives on time every day
B) Roy, who completes his duties and leaves early
C) John, who is sick often and has missed several days of work
D) Mac, who complains to the patients about his workload
Q3) The EHR software contains limited information, usually related to medical treatment for one healthcare facility. The EMR allows sharing of information with other providers outside the facility, including medical laboratories, nursing homes, hospitals, and specialists.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Detrimental
B) Detrimantal
Q5) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced.
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enunciation is
A) the choice of words.
B) the highness or lowness of sound.
C) articulation of clear sounds.
D) a change in pitch.
Q2) The best policy for dealing with serious abnormal test results is to schedule a(n) _______________ for the patient.
Q3) When a patient calls with a complaint
A) use an approach similar to that for angry callers.
B) find the source of the problem.
C) present options of solutions to the patient.
D) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following calls is considered urgent, but not an emergency?
A) Symptoms of chest pain
B) Severe allergic reactions
C) Animal bite
D) Broken bones
Q5) Many __________ calls require the good judgment of the medical assistant answering the phone.
Q6) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients appreciate it when medical assistants consider the patient's time when performing duties in the facility and scheduling appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The statistical characteristics of human populations are called
A) numbers.
B) perceptions.
C) demographics.
D) phonetics.
Q3) The use of phonetic writing in the medical office can help you
A) better understand medical abbreviations.
B) pronounce patients' names correctly.
C) learn the meaning of medical terms.
D) take notes quickly and accurately.
Q4) Medical assistants should make an effort to learn the names of the patients who come to the physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
Q5) Competency as a result of training or practice is called ____________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main reason for acute back injuries?
A) Reaching, twisting, or bending when lifting
B) Lifting items too heavy for the back to support
C) Bad body mechanics when lifting
D) Poor footing or constrained posture
Q2) Which is the most common service used by heathcare facilities for envelopes and packages weighing up to 13 ounces?
A) Priority Mail
B) Priority Mail Express
C) First-Class Mail
D) Standard Post service
Q3) If proof of mailing is needed, the medical assistant might ask the post office for A) special handling.
B) insured mail.
C) a certificate of mailing.
D) a certificate of delivery.
Q4) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Q5) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information that is gained by questioning the patient or that is taken from a form is called ________________ information.
A) confidential
B) subjective
C) objective
D) necessary
Q2) The EHR system should be backed up __________.
Q3) The healthcare industry is one of constant __________, and the medical assistant is expected to stay abreast of current trends, laws, and requirements.
Q4) Which of the following is not an advantage of a numeric filing system?
A) It allows periodic expansion without shifting folders.
B) It provides additional confidentiality to the chart.
C) Filing activity is greatest when the system is initiated.
D) It saves time in record retrieval and re-filing.
Q5) Perhaps the most difficult obstacle to overcome is the __________ of employees in physicians' offices who dislike change.
Q6) Any of a set of physical properties, the value of which determines characteristics or behavior, is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Babies are considered newborn or perinatal for the first ______ days.
A) 30
B) 29
C) 28
D) 27
Q2) A neoplasm or new growth is coded by the site or location of the neoplasm and its behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The code HIV indicates which of the following?
A) The HIV virus is present
B) The manifestation of and/or symptoms that occur as a result of HIV infection
C) Probable case of HIV
D) Suspected case of HIV
Q4) The __________ table describes malignancies.
Q5) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
Q6) The medical assistant should never code a patient as having __________ unless it is clearly documented as confirmed in the medical record.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization
A) 74710
B) 74740
C) 74742
D) 74775
Q2) When searching the alphabetic index, "humerus" is an example of which of the following?
A) Procedure or service
B) Organ or anatomic site
C) Condition, illness, or injury
D) Eponym, synonym, abbreviation, or acronym
Q3) Special symbols used to provide additional information about certain codes are called __________; seven are used in CPT-4 coding.
Q4) The place of service never changes for physician billing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The state of the patient as either new or established is called the patient
Q6) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
Q7) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of insurance that protects workers from loss of wages after an industrial accident that happened on the job is called
A) an individual policy.
B) workers' compensation.
C) unemployment insurance.
D) disability insurance.
Q2) Most of today's health insurance policies cover which of the following?
A) Preventive care
B) Procedures deemed medically necessary
C) Elective procedures
D) All of the above
E) Both A and B
Q3) The medical assistant should always verify which of the following prior to the patient's appointment?
A) Eligibility
B) Benefits and exclusions
C) Effective date of insurance
D) All of the above
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following steps to medical billing should be performed prior to rendering medical services?
A) Verify the patient's eligibility for insurance coverage
B) Collect patient insurance information
C) Code the diagnosis and procedures
D) Complete the CMS-1500 health insurance claim form
E) Both A and B
Q2) Which of the following is typically documented in the estimation of benefits (EOB)?
A) Patient's deductible
B) Co-insurance
C) Co-payment
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q4) The insured's name is found in block
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needs to occur when a provider agrees to settle for a reduced fee?
A) Negotiations without prejudice
B) Discount offer in writing
C) Definite time limit for making payment is stated
D) Two copies of agreement with witness signatures
E) All of the above
Q2) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
Q3) Which of the following account aging categories requires a final demand letter before the account is turned over to a collection agency?
A) 30-60 days
B) 60-90 days
C) 90-120 days
D) Over 120 days
Q4) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that
A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q5) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bank charges a fee of $25 for each of six NSF checks that were returned during the month. If the bank statement balance after outstanding checks are deducted is $12,543.24, what will the balance be after the fees are deducted?
Q2) Which of the following is not an acceptable reason for stop-payment on a check?
A) Loss of check
B) Disagreement about a purchase
C) Insufficient funds
D) Disagreement about a payment
Q3) A check made payable to "Cash" is most commonly used in the physician's office to A) pay employees.
B) provide the physician with funds for travel expenses.
C) pay for medical supplies.
D) replenish petty cash.
Q4) During the monthly reconciliation of the checkbook, the bank statement balance is $16,589.24. The checkbook balance is $16,569.24. The medical assistant should look for an error in what amount?
Q5) A signature on the back of a check whereby the rights of the check are transferred to another party is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an unlawful pre-employment inquiry?
A) "Are you over 18 years of age?"
B) "Do you have a mental impairment that could interfere with this job?"
C) "Have you been convicted of a crime?"
D) "How many children do you have?"
Q2) Interviews should be conducted when no one else is in the office.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An office with more than _________ employee(s) should have one person designated as a supervisor or office manager.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q4) If a manager does not make a habit of writing formal reprimands to employees not performing as expected, insufficient evidence may be available to terminate their employment.
A)True
B)False
20
Q5) All ____________ should be carefully checked before a new employee is hired.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health fairs offer the physician a means of reaching new patients in the community.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Match the Patient-Centered Care PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
Q3) Providing helpful, personal service usually impresses even the most difficult patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Providing _______________ for all employees to distribute is a smart, inexpensive way to create awareness of the medical facility.
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is in remission has a disease but is not showing symptoms at the time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ is a contaminated object, such as an improperly sterilized instrument, that causes the transmission of a disease.
Q3) Pyemia is a condition marked by infectious microorganisms in the patient's urine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rosa is assisting with a procedure and has an accidental exposure of potentially infectious mucous in her right eye. What should Rosa do?
Q5) According to the CDC, proper hand hygiene must be performed in all the following instances except
A) before and after contact with the patient.
B) before performing an aseptic task.
C) after contact with blood, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces.
D) when hands move from a clean body site to a contaminated body site during patient care.
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22
Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medical assistant who is a good listener consistently
A) provides repeated assurances.
B) provides feedback to clarify the patient's message.
C) interrupts the patient to gather more details.
D) limits the amount of time spent on each interview.
Q2) The initial diagnosis made by the physician after completion of the physical examination is the differential diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of an objective sign of disease is the patient's reported level of pain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ component of the medical history contains details about the patient's insurance, address, and date of birth.
Q5) Subjective data include the patient's report of injuries and resultant pain level. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the medical assistant stands in front of the patient or within the person's field of vision before beginning to speak, which of the following patients would benefit most?
A) A patient with vision loss
B) A patient with hearing loss
C) A patient who does not speak English
D) A patient who is unable to walk
Q2) Demonstration/return demonstration is an excellent method of teaching a patient how to perform a breathing treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Copies of teaching materials should be available in other __________ when possible.
Q4) Discuss the guidelines for patient education.
Q5) __________ is a comprehensive Internet site for accurate healthcare information.
Q6) Based on what you have learned about the health belief model, explain the five factors that can affect a patient's attitude toward disease and give some suggestions on how the medical assistant can therapeutically perform patient education under these circumstances.
Q7) Describe the role of the medical assistant as the patient educator.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbohydrate intake should be close to 60% of daily calories.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sign of calcium toxicity is
A) weakness.
B) cardiac abnormalities.
C) kidney stones.
D) hormonal abnormalities.
Q3) Low-fiber diets are recommended for patients with diverticulitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Individuals should drink a minimum of eight glasses of water a day to maintain optimum health.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A mechanical soft diet typically is used after oral surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the major factors that influence individual food choices.
Q7) Describe situations in which supplements would be recommended.
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is having difficulty breathing. The medical term for this is
A) orthopnea.
B) hyperpnea.
C) apnea.
D) dyspnea.
Q2) Sammy Feaver, age 6, weighs 21.4 kg. His mother asks you how much that is in pounds. You respond
A) 12.4.
B) 51.
C) 47.1.
D) 9.7.
Q3) Your patient has been diagnosed with uncontrolled hypertension. How would you expect his pulse to feel?
A) Strong
B) Weak
C) Bounding
D) Normal
Q4) Secondary hypertension may be caused by renal disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Examples of involuntary muscles are the muscles that line arteries and arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the functions of the skeletal system is to create blood cells in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The examination of the small intestine with a fiberoptic instrument is a colonoscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Plantar reflexes are tested with which of the following?
A) The patient in an upright or a supine position
B) With either the fingers or the reflex hammer
C) Using tapotement
D) None of the above
Q5) For administration of a rectal suppository, the patient would be placed in the __________ position.
Q6) A patient with severe shock may be placed in __________ position.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) The Department of Health and Human Services recognizes the importance of e-prescriptions in quality patient care since they reduce the possibility of misinterpreting physician handwriting as well as promoting the speed of filling prescriptions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ medications are used to delay or block blood clot formation.
Q3) The physician prescribes a medication to be taken pc. This means
A) before meals.
B) every day.
C) at bed time.
D) after meals.
Q4) An example of a Schedule I drug is which of the following?
A) Morphine
B) Heroin
C) Demerol
D) Seconal
Q5) An example of an NSAID is Decadron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convert the following fractions into decimals, rounding the last digit as needed
a. 3/4 = ________.
b. 2/3 = ________.
c. 9/12 = _______.
d. 10/12 = _______.
Q2) The correct dosage of medication may depend on which of the following factors?
A) Patient's age and weight
B) State of health
C) Other drugs being taken
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is true about a drug's brand name on a medication label?
A) The generic name is always listed on the label before the brand name.
B) The brand name must be listed on all drug labels.
C) The brand name is followed by a symbol that designates patent protection.
D) If a medication is stocked as a generic drug, the brand name is listed under the generic name.
Q4) With the standard formula, the "ordered strength" of a drug is the amount of the drug identified on the label.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) To correctly read the amount of a liquid medication poured into a measuring device, read at the _________ of the meniscus.
A) top
B) level
C) lowest level
D) middle
Q2) Which of the following is not a medication error?
A) Giving an unordered medication
B) Giving the wrong drug to a patient
C) Failing to give a drug at the prescribed time
D) Failing to give a drug when you know it is contraindicated
Q3) Which of the following methods of parenteral administration should be used for medications that may irritate or stain surrounding tissues?
A) Intradermal
B) Z-track
C) Transdermal
D) Ventrogluteal
Q4) The __________ of a medication is its thickness and its ability to move easily from a vial to an injection unit.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) If a patient calls for an appointment after a head injury and reports clear drainage from the nose, the patient should be seen by the physician first thing the next morning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following emergency situations should be managed first?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Shock
C) Occluded airway
D) Severe chest pain
E) Fractured bone
Q3) Explain the steps that should be taken to maintain a safe work environment.
Q4) ____________ is used to control hemorrhage and shock.
A) Lanoxin
B) Epinephrine
C) Lidocaine
D) Syrup of ipecac
E) Valium
Q5) Summarize the steps that should be taken in a physician's office to prevent and manage fires.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) The medical term for the earwax formed by glands lining the external auditory canal is
A) serumen.
B) cerumen.
C) ceruman.
D) cerumane.
Q2) Which potentially destructive disorder of the eye is characterized by increased fluid inside the eyeball?
A) Cataracts
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Glaucoma
D) Strabismus
Q3) The semicircular canals are responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Color is interpreted in the retina through specialized structures called cones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is a sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging.
Q6) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40. Page 32
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) As a person ages, the dermal layer becomes thinner and less protective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A raised lesion is called a A) macule.
B) papule.
C) fissure.
Q3) A patient experiencing an exacerbation of disease symptoms is finally cycling through a period of relief from the most challenging symptoms of the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of oral contraceptives, such as Ortho Tri-Cyclen and Estrostep, may reduce acne outbreaks.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Acne conglobata is a cystic form of acne that typically occurs in adolescent patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery may have which of the following complications if they return to a diet high in simple sugars?
A) GERD
B) Diverticulitis
C) Dumping syndrome
D) Crohn's disease
Q2) The surgical joining together of two normally distinct organs, such as connecting the stomach to the ileum, is called a(n) __________.
Q3) Chronic viral hepatitis can occur with hepatitis B, C, and D.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a part of the colon?
A) Ileum
B) Cecum
C) Splenic flexure
D) Sigmoid
Q5) The acronym GERD stands for __________.
Q6) __________ occurs with an increased amount of pressure in the circulatory system.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) An elevated PSA test result confirms the presence of cancer of the prostate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Individuals with HIV are treated with a single antiviral drug to control the spread of the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Azotemia occurs when nitrogen wastes build up in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) No specific patient preparation is required for a KUB.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The male urethra is part of both the renal and reproductive systems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) ___________ forms on the male genitalia within a few days of exposure to the gonorrhea bacillus.
Q7) Male sex hormones are grouped as ___________.
Q8) Explain the difference between renal hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common vaginal infection in women of childbearing age in the United States?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Cervicitis
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Q2) A patient with fibrocystic breast disease has an increased risk of developing cancer of the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genital herpes is characterized by
A) itching.
B) bleeding.
C) infertility.
D) ulceration.
Q4) A vaccine now is available to prevent genital herpes simplex infections in women.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which common medication is not recommended for children, because it has been linked to a sometimes fatal disease?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Aspirin
C) Ibuprofen
D) Penicillin
Q2) A child's head circumference should be measured to the closest _______ inch.
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/2
D) 3/4
Q3) Indicators of dehydration in children do not include which of the following?
A) Lack of tears
B) Fewer wet diapers
C) Severe abdominal cramps
D) Weight loss
Q4) A child diagnosed with conjunctivitis can return to school after 24 hours of antibiotic treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A comminuted fracture of the pelvis may occur in a car accident if the patient was not wearing a seat belt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by a widespread infection from Borrelia bacteria.
A)True B)False
Q3) Hot packs can be placed over jewelry without concern about possible burns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alcohol abuse, age over 50 in women, and smoking are all risk factors for _____________.
Q5) Which of the following is used to diagnose carpel tunnel syndrome?
A) Tinel test
B) Phalen test
C) Electrodiagnostic test
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q6) List at least four reasons women should have a bone density test performed.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who has a febrile seizure is diagnosed with epilepsy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Zomig and Topamax have proved useful for patients suffering from Parkinson's disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _______________, located deep in the center of the cerebrum near the superior portion of the brainstem, is made up of the thalamus and the hypothalamus.
Q4) Which of the following is the innermost meningeal layer and is highly vascular?
A) Dura mater
B) Epidural space
C) Arachnoid
D) Pia mater
Q5) Which of the following means "inflammation of the covering of the brain"?
A) Meningitis
B) Poliomyelitis
C) Meningocele
D) Meningomyelitis
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is often called the "master gland"?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Pituitary gland
C) Pineal gland
D) Thyroid
Q2) Typical symptoms of diabetes mellitus include which of the following?
A) Hypertension and kidney stones
B) Polydipsia, polyphagia, and rapid weight loss
C) Frequent infections and hyperpigmentation
D) All of the above
Q3) The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that maintains potassium blood levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients with hypothyroidism must take which of the following medications?
A) Levoxyl
B) Novolin
C) Symlin
D) Prandin
Q5) __________ results in fruity-smelling breath.
Q6) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of air inhaled and exhaled with normal respiration is the __________.
Q2) Which location of sinusitis is typically associated with pain or discomfort in the upper jaw and teeth?
A) Frontal sinuses
B) Maxillary sinuses
C) Ethmoid sinuses
D) Sphenoid sinuses
Q3) Antibiotics are prescribed for URIs if there is evidence of a secondary bacterial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a patient is prescribed both an anti-inflammatory and a bronchodilator for treatment, the anti-inflammatory should be taken first to help reduce bronchiole irritation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The best time to get a good sputum sample is first thing in the morning, after the patient has had breakfast.
A)True
B)False
42
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inherited predisposition for developing aneurysms occurs in patients with
Q2) +Lifestyle changes recommended for patients who have had an MI include
A) controlling hypertension.
B) eating a low-fat, restricted-sodium diet.
C) exercising five days a week.
D) All of the above
Q3) A Doppler study uses a sonographic beam that picks up the speed of WBCs in the arteries tested.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient who develops right-sided CHF because of COPD is diagnosed with __________.
Q5) In the conduction system of the heart, which of the following is responsible for collecting the electrical energy that stimulated the atria to contract?
A) Purkinje fibers
B) Bundle of His
C) Atrioventricular node
D) Sinoatrial node
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is the leading cause of death among men and women.
A) Heart disease
B) Diabetes
C) Cancer
D) Stroke
Q2) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of diabetes in the elderly?
A) Slow wound healing
B) Cough
C) Weight loss
D) Polyuria
Q3) The skin of older patients appears thinner and tears easily because of changes in the dermal layer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How can the medical assistant assess the patient's nutritional status during the patient interview?
Q5) The vaccine __________ is available for aging people to prevent activation of the varicella-zoster virus, which causes shingles.
Q6) Explain the Mini-Mental Status Exam and how it is used to diagnose dementia.
Page 44
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right leg is used to ground the recording of the augmented leads.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Electron beam tomography helps screen for cardiac risk by
A) determining the extent of MI damage.
B) assessing the amount of calcium in the coronary arteries.
C) measuring the potassium levels in the heart muscle.
D) determining the strength of the myocardial wall.
Q3) The __________ is the electric recording of the heart at rest.
Q4) If the ECG recording appears with the baseline rising and falling, the medical assistant should
A) check for nearby electric appliances.
B) check electrode attachment.
C) continue recording the ECG.
D) check the cable connections to the electrodes.
Q5) __________ refers to a regular heart rate that ranges from 60 to 90 bpm.
Q6) The electrical activity of the heart is initiated in specialized tissue called the __________, which is located in the superior-posterior wall of the right atrium.
Q7) Describe the placement of each precordial lead.
Page 45
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents is (are) injected into joint capsules to produce an arthrogram?
A) Barium
B) Iodine
C) Radioactive carbon
D) Paramagnetic agents
Q2) A badge for monitoring the radiation exposure of personnel is called a A) gantry.
B) dosimeter.
C) transducer.
D) roentgen.
Q3) AP stands for __________.
Q4) Which of the following terms describes penetrating to the head, or toward the head?
A) Caudal
B) Anterior
C) Cephalic
D) External
Q5) Radioactive tracers are used in __________ to provide information about the function of organs and tissues.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical chemistry department performs which of the following tests?
A) Presence of ketones in urine
B) Cell morphology
C) Blood cell count
D) Lipid profile
Q2) Laboratory tests performed in a physician's office are most likely to be categorized as
A) waived.
B) moderate complexity.
C) high complexity.
D) A and B
Q3) In a physician's office laboratory, which of the following is (are) the most common hazardous chemical(s)?
A) Sodium hypochlorite
B) Caviwipes and glutaraldehyde
C) Acetone and dyes
D) All of the above
Q4) The objective of __________ in the medical laboratory is to ensure the accuracy and reliability of test results.
Q5) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
Page 47
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ammonia or putrid smell in the urine can be caused by which of the following?
A) Uncontrolled diabetes
B) Infection
C) A child with phenylketonuria
D) Food such as asparagus or garlic
Q2) Ketones may not be present in a urine sample that is at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hematuria is the presence of intact red blood cells in urine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A urine sample that can be collected at any given time is called a A) random sample.
B) 2-hour PP.
C) clean-catch sample.
D) 24-hour sample.
Q5) The average person produces approximately 3 L of urine each day.
A)True B)False
Q6) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
Page 48
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The NCCLS has recommended that a red-topped "waste" tube be drawn before a light blue-topped Vacutainer tube, because thromboplastin released from cells during the venipuncture can interfere with coagulation tests.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The physician has ordered a number of laboratory tests for a patient, and you must make sure you are obtaining the blood samples in the correct order. Summarize the proper order of draw for a multitube procedure.
Q3) Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in _________ minutes.
A) 1 to 2
B) 60 to 90
C) 30 to 60
D) 5 to 10
Q4) Using a collection needle with a wider lumen reduces the chance that __________ will occur.
Q5) Needles used during venipuncture may be used only once.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
Page 49
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is nitrogenous waste material from protein metabolism that collects in the bloodstream if the kidneys are not functioning properly.
Q2) A(n) ________________ is performed by the immunohematology department to determine blood compatibility before a transfusion.
Q3) Patients with ________________ have an unusually large number of all blood cells.
Q4) AST and ALT testing is done to monitor potential liver damage in patients receiving statin drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which statement is true about HDL?
A) It transports cholesterol.
B) It is referred to as the "bad" cholesterol.
C) If elevated, it can result in a greater risk of heart disease.
D) All of the above are true.
Q6) __________ cholesterol is known as "good" cholesterol because a high level seems to protect the body against heart attack.
Q7) List five studies included in a CBC.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathologist tests for Lyme disease by examining a blood sample for the infecting spirochetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism that causes tuberculosis and also is an anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The microbiology laboratory report for Mrs. Wallace's urine culture lists eight antibiotics, five of which are followed by the letter "S." This means that these antibiotics
A) should be avoided when treating the infection.
B) should be considered when treating the infection.
C) are likely to cause sensitivity or allergy in the patient.
D) should be retested with a more sensitive method.
Q4) Most pathogenic organisms prefer temperatures around 37° C and remain viable for up to 72 hours if held at room temperature or refrigerator temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these anesthetic agents is injected into subcutaneous tissue, resulting in temporary cessation of feeling at the site of the injection?
A) Nesacaine
B) Ethyl chloride
C) Fluori-Methane
D) Sensorcaine
E) A and D
Q2) Which are the largest hemostat forceps?
A) Mosquito forceps
B) Crile forceps
C) Kelly forceps
D) Curved forceps
Q3) The physician may spray a topical anesthetic (e.g., Exactacain) on a surgical site before injecting a local anesthetic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A probe is used to search for foreign objects in a wound.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following passes through to a body organ or cavity?
A) Incised wound
B) Lacerated wound
C) Perforated wound
D) Penetrating wound
E) Both C and D
Q2) Wet steam in an autoclave can be caused by the placement of cold instruments in a hot chamber.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sterile technique should be used for venipuncture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ is a sterile covering that is placed directly over a wound.
Q5) __________ occurs when a nonsterile item either crosses over or comes in contact with a sterile field.
Q6) A wet instrument pack is not automatically considered contaminated.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A(n) __________ occurs when a nonpenetrating wound damages blood vessels. Page 53
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should make the résumé as general as possible so that it will fit a multitude of job opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following methods has proved to be the best and most effective way to find employment?
A) Networking
B) Job boards
C) Mass mailing of résumés to health care employers
D) Cold calling
E) Both A and B
Q3) A "Special Skills" section typically only appears in which of the following résumés?
A) Chronological
B) Combination
C) Functional
D) Targeted
Q4) Pay particular attention to all __________ of appearance when preparing for the job interview.
Q5) Medical assistants must evaluate their own __________ and weaknesses.
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