Course Introduction
Medical Terminology
Exam Answer Key
Medical Terminology is an introductory course designed to familiarize students with the language of medicine. Through the exploration of root words, prefixes, suffixes, and commonly used medical abbreviations, students will develop the skills needed to accurately interpret, pronounce, and use medical terms. Emphasis is placed on building a foundational vocabulary related to the human body systems, common diseases, diagnostic procedures, and treatments to facilitate effective communication in healthcare environments and support further studies in medical and allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 5th Edition by Herlihy
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2322 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity?
A) Thoracic cavity
B) Pleural cavities
C) Abdominopelvic cavity
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following refers to the groin region?
A) Axillary
B) Lumbar
C) Cranial
D) Inguinal
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following refers to the lower back region?
A) Groin
B) Axillary
C) Umbilical
D) Lumbar
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a blood pH of 7.28
A) has an excess of H+.
B) has a blood pH that is within normal limits.
C) is alkalotic.
D) has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H ]?
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic mass
C) Isotope
D) pH
Answer: D
Q3) An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby A) forming an acid.
B) ionizing.
C) forming a molecule of water.
D) forming an anion and cation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a cell that is necrotic?
A) Dehydrated
B) Stem cell
C) Undifferentiated
D) Dead
Answer: D
Q2) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to both water and Na and Cl<sup>-</sup>.At equilibrium,the
A) volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B.
B) volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.
C) concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments.
D) concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents base pairing?
A) CCGTTACTG
B) Sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate
C) Ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose
D) A-T, T-A, C-G, A-U
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of cholesterol?
A) Protein
B) Functions as an enzyme
C) Can be synthesized by the liver
D) Primary sequence and peptide bonds
Q3) Which of the following is least related to lactic acid?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Anaerobic
D) Cytoplasm
Q4) Starches,amylases,and disaccharidases are related to
A) carbohydrates.
B) steroids.
C) enzymes.
D) peptides.
6
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are classified as gram-positive and gram-negative?
A) Viruses
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Yeast
Q2) Infections such as athlete's foot and ringworm are referred to as
A) systemic.
B) mycotic.
C) parasitic.
D) bacterial.
Q3) Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector?
A) Is a carrier of pathogens from one host to another
B) Can be an insect such as the mosquito carrying the plasmodium to humans
C) Must be living
D) Can be a contaminated syringe (fomite)
Q4) Bacteria
A) include cocci, bacilli, and curved rods.
B) are not part of the normal flora of the intestines.
C) cause mycotic infections.
D) include mold and yeast.
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups is correct?
A) Types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage
B) Types of loose connective tissue: areolar, adipose, and reticular
C) Layers of epithelial tissue: simple and stratified
D) Connective tissue membranes: mucous, serous, and synovial
Q2) Which of the following membranes form(s)the outer layer of the membrane lining the lungs?
A) Parietal pleura
B) Visceral peritoneum
C) Meninges
D) Visceral pleura
Q3) Ligaments,tendons,and cartilage are
A) made of connective tissue.
B) classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar.
C) classified as simple and stratified.
D) classified as smooth, skeletal, and cardiac.
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both the mammary glands and ceruminous glands
A) are sebaceous glands.
B) are modified sweat glands.
C) are concerned with temperature regulation.
D) secrete earwax.
Q2) Eccrine glands
A) are sweat glands.
B) secrete sebum.
C) are active only after puberty.
D) arise within the hypodermis.
Q3) Which of the following substances makes the skin water resistant?
A) Melanin
B) Iron pigments
C) Keratin
D) Carotene
Q4) Which of the following is true of sebaceous glands?
A) They are exocrine glands.
B) They are primarily responsible for temperature regulation.
C) They secrete melanin in response to ultraviolet radiation.
D) They secrete vitamin D in response to ultraviolet radiation.
9
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertebrae prominens
A) is the space between L3 and L4 where a lumbar puncture is normally performed.
B) refers to C1 and C2, the atlas and axis.
C) is a fontanel.
D) is C7.
Q2) Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone?
A) Diaphysis
B) Periosteum
C) Epiphysis
D) Medullary cavity
Q3) The diaphysis is the
A) site of blood cell formation.
B) growth plate.
C) bone structure that is covered by articular cartilage.
D) shaft of a long bone.
Q4) With which of the following is the patella least associated?
A) Tibiofemoral joint
B) Proximal tibia
C) Acetabulum
D) Distal femur
10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of muscles moves the arm at the shoulder?
A) Quadriceps femoris group
B) Hamstrings
C) Rotator cuff muscles
D) Muscles of mastication
Q2) Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib cage during breathing?
A) Diaphragm
B) Sternocleidomastoid
C) Serratus anterior
D) Intercostal muscles
Q3) The Achilles tendon attaches the soleus and which muscle to the calcaneus?
A) Sartorius
B) Quadriceps femoris
C) Gastrocnemius
D) Vastus lateralis
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is called the lateral,third,and fourth?
A) Meninges
B) Ventricles
C) Cerebral lobes
D) Parts of the brain stem
Q2) LOC
A) is an important assessment of a patient's condition.
B) refers to Lack Of Consciousness.
C) cannot be affected by drugs or hypoxemia.
D) is a stage of NREM sleep.
Q3) The frontal,temporal,occipital,and parietal lobes form the A) brain stem.
B) cerebrum.
C) cerebellum.
D) reticular formation.
Q4) Antiemetic drugs
A) dissolve any blood clots in the vomiting center.
B) can affect the vomiting center and CTZ to relieve nausea and vomiting.
C) induce vomiting in a person who ingests poison.
D) reverse narcotic-induced respiratory depression.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The baroreceptor reflex controls
A) posture.
B) the amount of light that enters the eyes.
C) body temperature.
D) blood pressure.
Q2) All nervous reflexes
A) are activated by stretch.
B) are restricted to the movement of the appendicular skeleton.
C) require a sensory and motor arm.
D) involve the spinal cord.
Q3) The Roman numerals that designate the cranial nerves indicate
A) whether the nerves are sensory, motor, or mixed.
B) the order in which the nerves exit the brain.
C) the nerves that emerge from the frontal lobe.
D) the nerves that use ACh as their neurotransmitters.
Q4) Which of the following is least descriptive of the olfactory nerve?
A) Sensory
B) Concerned with the sense of smell
C) Cranial nerve I
D) Moves the tongue
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an adrenergic fiber?
A) Postganglionic parasympathetic
B) Preganglionic sympathetic
C) Preganglionic parasympathetic
D) Postganglionic sympathetic
Q2) A beta -adrenergic agonist
A) increases heart rate.
B) causes the release of acetylcholine.
C) blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site.
D) lowers blood pressure.
Q3) An anticholinergic or antimuscarinic effect
A) causes miosis and bradycardia.
B) is characterized by an increased heart rate and urinary retention.
C) resembles a vagomimetic response.
D) resembles a fight-or-flight response.
Q4) Paravertebral ganglia
A) are part of the craniosacral outflow.
B) "drive" the vagus nerve.
C) are located within the organs of innervation.
D) are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The macula lutea,fovea centralis,and photoreceptors are most associated with this structure.
A) Choroid
B) Optic chiasm
C) Lens
D) Retina
Q2) The ciliary muscles
A) move the eyeball.
B) change the shape of the lens.
C) regulate pupillary response to light.
D) cause blinking and tearing as the motor response of the corneal reflex.
Q3) Select the word that means the ability of the eyes to refract light without the assistance of correctives lenses.
A) Emmetropia
B) Presbyopia
C) Accommodation
D) Myopia
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15
Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least associated with the adrenal medulla?
A) Catecholamines
B) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) Fight-or-flight response
D) Sugar, salt, and sex
Q2) A deficiency of dietary iodine
A) lowers plasma calcium levels.
B) causes low blood volume and shock.
C) decreases the synthesis of calcitonin.
D) causes a goiter.
Q3) ACTH,TSH,and gonadotropins are
A) hypothalamic-releasing hormones.
B) secreted by the neurohypophysis.
C) "aimed at" the adrenal cortex.
D) tropic hormones.
Q4) Which of the following steroids is an androgen?
A) Progesterone
B) Testosterone
C) Estrogen
D) Aldosterone
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of erythrocytes?
A) Formed by myeloid erythropoiesis
B) Deficiency causes petechiae and bleeding
C) Activation characterized by stickiness and formation of a plug
D) Primarily concerned with phagocytosis
Q2) The word icterus refers to
A) infection.
B) bleeding.
C) jaundice.
D) fever.
Q3) Which of the following is true of iron?
A) Is in the heme part of hemoglobin
B) Is necessary for erythropoiesis
C) Binds reversibly to oxygen
D) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following is descriptive of hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus?
A) Flushed
B) Yellow
C) Blue
D) Ecchymotic
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) An accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial space
A) causes external compression of the heart.
B) depresses the SA node, thereby eliminating pacemaker activity.
C) causes valvular stenosis.
D) causes a left-to-right shunt.
Q2) The right ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right atrium.
B) pulmonary veins.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) aorta.
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for the opening and closing of the heart valves?
A) Pressure exerted on the valves as the heart contracts and relaxes
B) Electrical signals arising in the SA node
C) The degree of oxygen concentration of blood in the ventricles
D) The amount of blood in the heart
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to a positive inotropic effect?
A) Heart block
B) A slow heart rate
C) A rapid heartbeat
D) An increased myocardial contractile force
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of the vagus nerve?
A) Fight-or-flight
B) Parasympathetic
C) Sympathetic
D) Adrenergic
Q3) Which of the following does not happen to a ventricle?
A) Activation of the beta1-adrenergic receptors
B) Discharge of sympathetic nerves
C) Discharge of the vagal nerve
D) Binding of norepinephrine to its receptor
Q4) With which of the following is inotropism most associated?
A) Heart rate
B) Force of myocardial contraction
C) Oxygen saturation
D) Systemic vascular resistance
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) These blood vessels are the smallest and most numerous and are composed of a single layer of endothelium.
A) Capillaries
B) Venules
C) Veins
D) Arteries
Q2) Which of the following is true of these vascular structures: coronary sinus,pulmonary artery,umbilical arteries,and venae cavae? They all
A) are found exclusively in the fetal circulation.
B) carry unoxygenated blood.
C) are attached directly to the heart.
D) are color-coded red.
Q3) Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the veins of the small intestine to the right atrium?
A) Superior mesenteric vein
B) Portal vein
C) Hepatic artery
D) Inferior vena cava
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the baroreceptor reflex,which event occurs first?
A) Activation of the baroreceptors in response to a drop in blood pressure
B) Reflex tachycardia
C) Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves
D) Stimulation of the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and the vagus (CN X) nerves
Q2) Which of the following is true of vasoconstriction?
A) Caused by parasympathetic nerve stimulation
B) Increases afterload
C) Caused by vagal discharge
D) Generally accompanied by arteriolar dilation
Q3) An intense vagal discharge is most apt to cause
A) tachycardia.
B) syncope.
C) deep vein thrombosis.
D) white coat hypertension.
Q4) Which statement is not true about baroreceptors?
A) Can induce a reflex tachycardia
B) Located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch
C) Activated by hypoxemia
D) Activated by a hemorrhage-induced decline in blood pressure
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An overly active spleen may prematurely remove platelets from the circulation,thereby predisposing a person to
A) arteriolar vasospasm and hypertension.
B) granulocytopenia and infection.
C) thrombocytopenia and bleeding.
D) hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
Q2) A lacteal is located within the A) adenoid.
B) tonsil.
C) thymus gland.
D) intestinal villus.
Q3) Lymph node dissection is most likely to cause
A) Edema
B) Hypoxemia
C) Ischemia
D) Thrombosis
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma cells are least related to A) interferons.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) antibodies.
D) IgG, IgA, IgM, and IgE.
Q2) Which of the following stimulates memory cells to produce antibody-secreting plasma cells?
A) An antitoxin
B) A booster shot
C) Gamma globulin
D) Antivenom
Q3) Which of the following T cells do not participate in the destruction of the pathogen but allow for a more rapid response if the antigen is presented at a later time?
A) Killer T cells
B) Suppressor T cells
C) Thrombocytes
D) Memory T cells
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trachea branches into the right and left
A) alveoli.
B) bronchi.
C) nares.
D) pulmonary arteries.
Q2) Laryngospasm is most likely to cause
A) emphysema.
B) pneumothorax.
C) acute respiratory obstruction.
D) asthma.
Q3) Which of the following events occurs last?
A) Contraction of the diaphragm and the intercostals
B) Movement of air into the lungs
C) Firing of the inspiratory neurons in the medulla
D) Firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves
Q4) Surfactants
A) are secreted by cells within the alveoli.
B) increase surface tension.
C) transport oxygen across the alveolar-pulmonary capillary membrane.
D) relax the epiglottis so as prevent upper respiratory obstruction.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wall of which structure secretes the disaccharidases?
A) Gallbladder
B) Duodenum
C) Pancreas
D) Stomach
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) Salivary glands: sublingual, submandibular, parotid
B) Small intestine: duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum
C) Digestive enzymes: amylase, protease, lipase
D) Large intestine: ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid
Q3) Gastrin,secretin,and cholecystokinin are
A) secreted by the stomach.
B) amylases.
C) emulsifying agents.
D) hormones.
Q4) Which structure is located between the common bile duct and the duodenum?
A) Cystic duct
B) Hepatic duct
C) Pyloric valve
D) Sphincter of Oddi
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine?
A) The kidneys are making too much creatinine.
B) Too much creatinine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries.
C) The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure.
D) The kidneys are excreting too much urine.
Q2) The renal cortex descends between the pyramids as the A) pelvis.
B) collecting ducts.
C) calyces.
D) renal columns.
Q3) A drug that blocks the effects of aldosterone
A) decreases the reabsorption of Na<sup>+</sup> and water.
B) is kaliuretic.
C) causes oliguria.
D) Two of the above are true.
Q4) The word voiding refers to A) urine formation.
B) catheterization.
C) micturition.
D) cystitis.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment?
A) Lymph
B) Interstitial
C) Plasma
D) Transcellular
Q2) Which of the following is a pH descriptive of ketoacidosis?
A) 7.50
B) pH > 7.45
C) 14.0
D) 7.25
Q3) The determination of daily weights is used to monitor
A) serum K+.
B) diuretic therapy.
C) concentration of plasma protein.
D) pH.
Q4) Which ion determines pH?
A) Sodium
B) Hydrogen
C) Bicarbonate
D) Potassium
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following always occurs during an erection?
A) Ejaculation
B) Secretion of testosterone
C) Spermatogenesis
D) Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood
Q2) Which of the following structures is characterized by the words infundibulum,fimbriae,and fallopian tubes?
A) Ovaries
B) Oviducts
C) Uterus
D) External genitalia
Q3) The myometrium
A) is the layer that sloughs during menstruation.
B) is responsive to oxytocin.
C) thickens in response to estrogen and progesterone.
D) is the target of the gonadotropins.
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least true of prolactin?
A) Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
B) Stimulates the mammary gland
C) Is an adenohypophyseal hormone
D) Plays the primary role in the milk let-down reflex
Q2) Afterbirth refers primarily to which structure?
A) Morula
B) Zygote
C) Fetus
D) Placenta
Q3) Which of the following is most related to human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A) Milk production
B) Breasts
C) Corpus luteum
D) Anterior pituitary gland
Q4) Which of the following is divided into trimesters?
A) Conception
B) Fertilization
C) Pregnancy
D) Ovulation
Page 29
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