Medical Technology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is a dynamic field that integrates biology, chemistry, and laboratory science to diagnose, treat, and prevent diseases. This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles and practices used in clinical laboratories, including the operation of diagnostic equipment, analysis of bodily fluids, and interpretation of test results. Emphasis is placed on laboratory safety, quality control, and the role of medical technologists in supporting patient care. Students will also explore current trends in medical technology, such as molecular diagnostics and laboratory information systems, preparing them for diverse roles in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436 Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?
A) Bacteria
B) Foreign proteins
C) Virus
D) Antibody bound to antigen
Answer: D
Q2) What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells?
A) Fab fragment
B) Hinge region
C) Fc fragment
D) J chain
Answer: C
Q3) What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: A
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28517
Sample Questions
Q1) Reagent derived from plants used to distinguish group A<sub>1</sub> from group A<sub>2</sub> red cells
A)Panel cells
B)Screening cells
C)A<sub>1</sub> and B cells
D)ABO antisera
E)Rh antisera
F)Lectins
Answer: F
Q2) The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a: A) problem with the card.
B) negative reaction.
C) strong positive reaction.
D) failure to wash correctly.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28518
Sample Questions
Q1) The children of an AB mother and a B father could phenotype as all of the following except:
A) O.
B) A.
C) B.
D) AB.
Answer: A
Q2) If two traits were found to occur higher in a population together than each occurs separately, they may be linked. This would suggest that:
A) they are found far apart on the same chromosome.
B) they are inherited on different chromosomes.
C) crossover has occurred.
D) the genes are close together on the same chromosome.
Answer: D
Q3) A person whose red cells type as M+, N+ with antisera would be:
A) a homozygote.
B) a heterozygote.
C) unable to be determined without family studies.
D) linked.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28519
Sample Questions
Q1) The test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A<sub>1</sub> and B reagent red cells is called:
A) ABO forward grouping.
B) ABO reverse grouping.
C) antibody screen.
D) antibody panel.
Q2) Group O
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
Q3) To distinguish between an A<sub>1</sub> and A<sub>2 </sub>blood type, which reagent is used?
A) Ulex europeaus lectin
B) Anti-A,B
C) Monoclonal anti-A
D) Dolichos biflorus lectin
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28520
Sample Questions
Q1) r'
A)Ce
B)CE
C)DCE
D)Dce
Q2) Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?
A) rr
B) R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C) R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
D) R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Red cells that phenotype as D-negative indicate that:
A) they inherited two D genes.
B) there is no genetic material inherited from the RHD gene from both parents.
C) a suppressor gene was inherited that is turning off the D gene expression.
D) reagents currently in use are not detecting the D antigen.
Q4) DcE
A)R<sub>1</sub>r
B)R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C)R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
D)rr
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28521
Sample Questions
Q1) System associated with chronic granulomatous disease
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Bg
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido
H)Knops
I)Duffy
J)Vel
Q2) Antigens of the P system are structurally related to which of the following blood group systems?
A) MNS
B) ABH
C) Kell
D) Duffy
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28522
Sample Questions
Q1) High-titer, low-avidity antibodies typically:
A) react with antigens of high frequency in the population.
B) react with antigens of low frequency in the population.
C) are clinically significant.
D) react best at colder temperatures.
Q2) Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity?
A) M
B) N
C) I
D) Le<sup>b</sup>
Q3) Anti-D, anti-K, and anti-Jk<sup>a</sup> are the antibodies that are tentatively identified on a panel after initially ruling out on negative cells. What selected cell from another panel should be chosen to confirm the presence of anti-K?
A) K-, D+, Jk(a+)
B) K+, D+, Jk(a+)
C) K+, D-, Jk(a+)
D) K+, D-, Jk(a-)
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Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28523
Sample Questions
Q1) In which phase of reactivity would rouleaux typically be detected in the screen?
A) 4<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 15<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
C) 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C
D) Antihuman globulin
Q2) A recipient phenotypes as group O with the following Rh phenotype: D+C+c-E+e+. If this recipient is transfused with red blood cells from six random group O D-positive donors, what Rh alloantibody could this patient produce as a result of transfusion?
A) Anti-E
B) Anti-C
C) Anti-c
D) Anti-D
Q3) For autologous units transfused within the collection facility, which part of the compatibility procedure is not required?
A) ABO phenotyping
B) D phenotyping
C) Antibody screen
D) Transfusion history check
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28524
Sample Questions
Q1) How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation?
A) 8 weeks
B) 2 weeks
C) 48 hours
D) 24 hours
Q2) Which type of autologous donation procedure is the most common for most types of surgery?
A) Preoperative hemodilution
B) Postoperative salvage
C) Intraoperative blood salvage
D) Preoperative donation
Q3) Blood collected from a therapeutic phlebotomy is:
A) acceptable for inventory under certain Food and Drug Administration guidelines.
B) unacceptable for inventory.
C) acceptable if the "volunteer donor" label is removed.
D) acceptable if the patient meets all regular donor criteria.
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Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28525
Sample Questions
Q1) When is the Western Blot test used in donor testing?
A) To confirm antibody-positive hepatitis C virus tests
B) To confirm positive serological test for syphilis
C) To confirm positive HIV antibody test results
D) To screen for human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II in blood donors
Q2) Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage?
A) Cryoprecipitated AHF
B) Red blood cells, frozen
C) Platelets
D) Fresh frozen plasma
Q3) A positive serological test for syphilis indicates:
A) that antibodies to Treponema pallidum are present.
B) past or present venereal disease infection.
C) the possibility of an infection with Treponema pallidum.
D) that antigens associated with venereal disease are present.
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12
Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28526
Sample Questions
Q1) Deglycerolized
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
Q2) AS-3 or AS-2
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
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13
Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28527
Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency could result in which of the following transfusion reactions?
A) Delayed hemolytic reaction
B) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C) Circulatory overload
D) Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
Q2) A hemolytic reaction to red blood cells can be caused by which of the following nonimmune mechanisms?
A) Incompatible intravenous solutions mixed with the unit
B) Improper storage of the unit
C) Bacterial contamination of the unit
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence?
A) Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility
B) Urticarial
C) Graft-versus-host disease
D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
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14
Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28528
Sample Questions
Q1) What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
Q2) Rh immune globulin should be given within how many hours following delivery?
A) 12
B) 24
C) 48
D) 72
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the rosette test?
A) It is a staining procedure that differentiates fetal and adult cells.
B) The test is valid only if the mother is D-negative and the infant is D-positive.
C) Indicator cells bind to the D-positive maternal cells forming a rosette.
D) The test is a quantitative test to determine how many vials of Rh immune globulin to administer.
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Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28529
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia B?
A) Factor VIII concentrate
B) Factor XIII concentrate
C) Platelets
D) Fresh frozen plasma
Q2) Specific clotting deficiencies of VIII, V, and X
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leukoreduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
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16
Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28530
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control is the same as quality assurance.
A) True
B) False
Q2) Audit
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
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Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28531
Sample Questions
Q1) In safety training, the employees must become familiar with all of the following except:
A) tasks that have an infectious risk.
B) limits of protective clothing and equipment.
C) the appropriate action to take if exposure occurs.
D) how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee.
Q2) Copper sulfate
A)Corrosive
B)Corrosive and toxic
C)Toxic and flammable
D)Irritant and sensitizer
E)Toxic and irritant
F)Irritant and corrosive
G)Irritant
Q3) Blood irradiators require all of the following safety procedures except:
A) proper training.
B) that the user have a degree in radiology.
C) equipment leak detection.
D) personal protective equipment.
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Page 18