Medical Technology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is a multidisciplinary field that integrates principles from biology, chemistry, physics, and engineering to develop, apply, and manage technologies used in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of diseases. The course covers a broad range of topics including laboratory diagnostics, medical imaging, instrumentation, molecular and genetic testing, and the management of clinical laboratory operations. Students gain theoretical knowledge and practical skills essential for understanding how medical devices and laboratory tests contribute to patient care. Through hands-on experiences and case studies, the course emphasizes the importance of quality control, ethical considerations, and regulatory standards in ensuring the safety and efficacy of medical technologies.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1251 Page 2
Gretchen Johns
Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about the second step of the agglutination process except
A)Is dependent upon many factors,including the ionic strength of the test system,pH,and temperature
B)Occurs when antigen and antibody come together to form an immune complex
C)Occurs when antibody cross-links form between red blood cells,creating a lattice
D)Occurs when an antibody is be able to bind to an epitope on each of two different red blood cells
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are true about the classical pathway except
A)Begins with formation of C1 from C1q,C1r,and C1s molecules
B)Consists of C5b and C6-C9
C)Is regulated by two mechanisms in the fluid phase
D)Is regulated on cell surfaces with complement control proteins
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for sexual cell division?
A)Meiosis
B)Mitosis
C)Mutation
D)Replication
Answer: A
Q2) DNA is made up of nucleotides.How many bases do nucleotides have?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Five
Answer: C
Q3) What is the abbreviation for the amino acid glutamine?
A)Gln
B)Glu
C)Gly
D)Gtm
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antihuman globulin technique is used to detect which isotype of antibody?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
Q2) During the AHG phase of an antibody screen test,before adding AHG reagent to the test tubes,what should the red blood cells be washed with?
A)Distilled water
B)Iodine
C)Saline
D)Soap
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following does not activate complement?
A)IgG1
B)IgG2
C)IgG3
D)IgG4
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an ABO discrepancy is due to an antibody and a low-incidence antigen is suspected,a viable course of action would be to test several different examples of A)A or B cells
B)A or O cells
C)B or O cells
D)AB cells
Q2) The most common ABO blood group is group A)A
B)B
C)AB D)O
Q3) The gene for the ABO blood group system resides on chromosome A)3
B)5 C)9
D)11
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6
Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about Rh proteins?
A)One amino acid is responsible for the difference between the C and c antigens.
B)RhD and RhCE proteins have the same composition except for 33-35 amino acids.
C)Rh proteins are nonglycosylated.
D)There is one carbohydrate molecule attached to the Rh proteins.
Q2) What animal was the Rhesus blood group system named after?
A)Guinea pig
B)Monkey
C)Rabbit
D)Squirrel
Q3) When both c and e antigens are present on the red blood cell membrane and the respective genes are in the cis position or on the same chromosome,which antigen is expressed?
A)Ce
B)d
C)f
D)G
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigen is one of the antigens in the ISBT classification called Series 901?
A)Bga
B)Knb
C)Sda
D)Tcc
Q2) The antigens of the Kell system are found on a ________ that passes through the red blood cell membrane.
A)glycogen
B)glycolipid
C)glycophorin
D)glycoprotein
Q3) Detection of anti-i has been associated with A)hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
B)infectious mononucleosis
C)paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
D)sickle cell anemia
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Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are methodologies used for routine transfusion medicine testing except
A)Gel testing
B)Immunodiffusion testing
C)Solid phase testing
D)Tube/microplate testing
Q2) When blood components are ordered all of the following are true except A)Name of the physician placing the order must be indicated
B)Orders should be placed to ensure sufficient time to perform complete testing
C)Requests must include the number and type of components required
D)Requests must only be made using a written request form
Q3) In the event that a patient's ABO type cannot be determined in accordance with facility policies,group ____ cells may be issued for transfusion until the patient's ABO type has been resolved.
C)O
D)AB
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9
Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What equation is used to calculate the frequency of alleles and genotypes within a population?
A)Fisher-Test
B)Hardy-Weinberg
C)Hyde-Park
D)Landsteiner-Wiener
Q2) What is the most common sulfhydryl reagent used in transfusion medicine?
A)Bromelin
B)Chymotrypsin
C)Dithiothreitol
D)Papain
Q3) Which drug is not known to cause a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT)?
A)Aldomet
B)Aspirin
C)Cephalosporin
D)Procainamide
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10
Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common type of reaction in blood donors?
A)Varicose
B)Variolar
C)Vasospasm
D)Vasovagal
Q2) Except for automated double red blood cell donations,the hematocrit must be at least ____ for all allogeneic donations.
A)33% (0.33)
B)38% (0.38)
C)40% (0.40)
D)42% (0.42)
Q3) Which of the following organizations publishes Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services?
A)AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)
B)ARC (American Red Cross)
C)CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
D)FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about platelet storage containers except A)Are made from nonpolyvinylchloride plastic
B)Contain plasticizers that stabilize the platelet membrane
C)Decrease carbon dioxide buildup
D)Have high gas permeability
Q2) A red blood cell component will generally have a maximum hematocrit of
A)38% (0.38)
B)50% (0.50)
C)65% (0.65)
D)80% (0.80)
Q3) Generally speaking,63 mL of anticoagulant is used to collect a target volume of ___ mL of whole blood.
A)300
B)350
C)450
D)500
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryoprecipitate contains which coagulation factors?
A)Factor V,factor VII,factor VIII
B)Factor VII,factor VIII,factor XIII
C)Fibrinogen,factor V,factor VIII
D)Fibrinogen,factor VIII,factor XIII
Q2) Which of the following is used as a presurgical prophylaxis to reduce or prevent bleeding in patients with mild hemophilia A?
A)Desmopressin
B)G-CSF
C)Vitamin K
D)Recombinant EPO
Q3) A platelet count of less than _____ is often used as a trigger to initiate prophylactic platelet transfusions to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
A)10 × 10³ / µL (10 x 10 /L)
B)20 × 10³ / µL (20 x 10 /L)
C)30 × 10³ / µL (30 x 10 /L)
D)40 × 10³ / µL (40 x 10 /L)
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following defines hyperhemoloysis?
A)The patient's red blood cells are destroyed in addition to transfused donor cells.
B)The patient's white blood cells are destroyed in addition to transfused donor cells.
C)The presence of hemoglobin in the patient's urine.
D)The presence of free hemoglobin in the patient's plasma.
Q2) Approximately how many milligrams of iron does a single red blood cell unit contain?
A)50
B)150
C)200
D)250
Q3) Fever is a common symptom in which types of transfusion reactions?
A)Acute hemolytic,allergic,febrile nonhemolytic
B)Acute hemolytic,febrile nonhemolytic,transfusion-related acute lung injury
C)Allergic,febrile nonhemolytic,transfusion-associated circulatory overload
D)Anaphylactic,febrile nonhemolytic,transfusion-related immunomodulation
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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what year was the West Nile virus first identified as an emerging threat in the United States?
A)1940
B)1976
C)1981
D)1999
Q2) All of the following transfusion-transmitted infections are also considered to be sexually transmitted diseases except
A)Hepatitis C
B)Human immunodeficiency virus
C)Syphilis
D)Toxoplasmosis
Q3) Which of the following is a mode of transmission for cytomegalovirus?
A)Fecal/oral
B)Respiratory
C)Transfusion
D)Vector
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minimum of at least one ______ dose of Rh-immune globulin (RhIG)must be administered to all Rh(D)-negative women who deliver an Rh(D)-positive infant,provided the woman has not already made anti-D.
A)100 µg
B)200 µg
C)300 µg
D)400 µg
Q2) In general,for the neonatal population,a platelet count of ___________ is considered the minimum to maintain hemostasis.
A)50 × 10³/µL (50 × 10 /L)
B)75 × 10³/µL (75 × 10 /L)
C)100 × 10³/µL (100 × 10 /L)
D)150 × 10³/µL (150 × 10 /L)
Q3) Complications of amniocentesis include
A)Infection
B)Pyruvate kinase deficiency
C)Rh sensitization
D)Thalassemia
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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic
Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Corticosteroid therapy is most successful in treating which type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)Cold agglutinin syndorm (CAS)
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is associated with which of the following?
A)DAT-negative autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Mixed autoimmune hemolytic anemia (MAIHA)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Q3) Red blood cell phenotyping by serologic methods can only be performed on specimens from patients who have
A)been transfused in the last 6 months
B)been transfused in the last year
C)not been transfused in the last month
D)not been transfused in the last 3 months
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently how many human platelet antigens (HPAs)have been identified?
A)12
B)18
C)24
D)32
Q2) Which patients are at the highest risk for developing platelet refractoriness?
A)Anaesthetized surgical
B)Bleeding trauma
C)Chronically transfused oncology
D)Multiparous obstetrical
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms results in immune-mediated platelet refractoriness?
A)Alloimmunization
B)Consumption
C)Sequestration
D)Thrombosis
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18
Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of preventative therapy in patients with sickle cell anemia who have had a stroke is to maintain a ____________.
A)hemoglobin level above 10 g/dL (100 g/L)
B)hemoglobin S level below 30%
C)hemoglobin S level of approximately 40%
D)hematocrit level of 33-36% (0.33-0.36)
Q2) All of the following are common manifestations of cytomegalovirus (CMV)disease except
A)Anemia
B)Gastroenteritis
C)Hepatitis
D)Pneumonia
Q3) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?
A)Chemotherapy is complete
B)CMV reactivation occurs
C)Engraftment occurs
D)Factor levels reach 70%
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Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chromosome carries the genes for the HLA system?
A)1
B)3
C)6
D)9
Q2) How many DRB genes exist in the human population?
A)1
B)5
C)9
D)10
Q3) All of the following are true about HLA class I molecules except
A)Are expressed only on antigen presenting cells
B)Includes a 45 kDa glycoprotein heavy chain
C)Includes a 12 kDa -2 microglobulin light chain
D)Has a peptide-binding cleft that reacts with short peptides
Q4) Which HLA class of molecules is used in solid phase assays?
A)Class I only
B)Class II only
C)Class III only
D)Class I or II
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The likelihood ratio compares which two hypotheses?
A)Probability that the alleged parent is not the true parent of the child and probability that a random person is the true parent of the child
B)Probability that the alleged parent is excluded as the true parent of the child and probability that the known parent is the true parent of the child
C)Probability that the alleged parent is the true parent of the child and probability that a random person is the true parent of the child
D)Probability that the known parent is the true parent of the child and probability that the alleged parent is the true parent of the child
Q2) How many loci are included in the core loci originally defined by the FBI for use in identification of individuals by genetic testing?
A)9
B)13
C)15
D)18
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21
Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most laboratory tests performed in blood banks and transfusion services are _________ tests.
A)nonwaived
B)waived
C)centralized
D)point-of-collection
Q2) All of the following are categories of enforcement action that the FDA can use except
A)Administrative
B)Advisory
C)Deviation
D)Recall
Q3) When was the first license for a blood bank issued?
A)1902
B)1934
C)1946
D)1962
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A near-miss event is a(an)
A)failure to meet accreditation requirements
B)event resulting in a patient or donor experiencing a fatal,life-threatening,or serious adverse outcome
C)measureable facet of a process
D)unexpected occurrence where an error was identified and corrected before a patient or product was adversely affected
Q2) All of the following are goals of a quality program except
A)Adversarial relationship with regulatory agencies
B)Cost containment
C)Knowledgeable and well-trained employees
D)Safe work environment
Q3) The definition for policy would be which of the following?
A)Document used to record data
B)Information that provides objective evidence that an activity was completed
C)Principle that guides decision making
D)Set of related steps that achieve a goal
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