Medical Technology Study Guide
Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the development, application, and evaluation of diagnostic, therapeutic, and monitoring equipment and procedures used in the healthcare system. The course covers principles of laboratory science, clinical procedures, and the operation of sophisticated medical instruments used to analyze biological samples. Students learn about hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and blood banking, as well as the ethical and regulatory considerations in laboratory practice. Emphasis is placed on problem-solving skills, quality assurance, and the interpretation of laboratory results, preparing students to play a vital role in patient care and the advancement of medical science.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
1596 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells: Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of erythrocytes is functional in peripheral blood after release from the bone marrow?
A) 70%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 100%
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which cell in the granulocytic series is present in greatest percentages in the normal bone marrow?
A) Band neutrophil
B) Promyelocyte
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marrow erythroblasts containing bright-blue iron specks when stained are called:
A) Sideroblasts
B) Siderocytes
C) Histiocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) The normal myeloid-to-erythroid ratio in a bone marrow aspirate from a normal adult is approximately:
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 4:1
D) 6:1
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased cellular deformability leads to:
A) Increased RBC survival
B) No change in RBC survival
C) Decreased RBC survival
D) Normal RBC survival
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub> is defined biochemically as:
A) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\beta\)<sub>2</sub>)
B) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\gamma\)<sub>2</sub>)
C) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\delta\)<sub>2</sub>)
D) (\(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>\(\varepsilon\)<sub>2</sub>)
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hemoglobin range will suggest a newborn patient?
A) 16 ± 4 g/dL
B) 18 ± 4 g/dL
C) 20 ± 2 g/dL
D) 14 ± 2 g/dL
E) None of the above
Q2) How many cells are usually counted in the manual reticulocyte count?
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 200
D) 500
E) 50
Q3) The reference range for a reticulocyte count in a normal adult is:
A) 2.5-3.0%
B) 0.5-2.0%
C) 3.0-4.5%
D) 1.0-3.0%
E) None of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 4+ grading for anisocytosis would indicate what percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) would differ from the normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
Q2) Target cells may be found in which of the following conditions?
A) Thalassemia
B) Liver disease
C) Hemoglobin C disease
D) Sickle cell anemia
E) All of the above
Q3) A patient diagnosed with autoimmune hemolytic anemia may have a blood smear demonstrating:
A) Cabot rings
B) Spherocytes
C) Target cells
D) Stomatocytes
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) characteristic of lead poisoning?
A) Basophilic stippling in RBCs
B) Increased free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)
C) Microcytic hypochromic anemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) How many milligrams of iron are needed to produce 1 mL of red blood cells (RBCs)?
A) 1 mg
B) 10 mg
C) 20 mg
D) 3 mg
E) 0.5 mg
Q3) Which of the following disorders represent(s) a problem in forming the RBC hemoglobin molecule, resulting in a microcytic hypochromic anemia?
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Sideroblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hematologic parameter on an automated instrument would be increased in megaloblastic anemia?
A) MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin)
B) MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration)
C) MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
D) RBC count
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following can lead to a folic acid deficiency?
A) Malabsorption
B) Poor diet
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The reversed myeloid-erythroid ratio in the bone marrow of a person with megaloblastic anemia is defined as:
A) Myeloid hyperplasia
B) Erythroid hypoplasia
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Hypocellularity
E) None of the above
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including
Pure Red Cell
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The defect in PNH affects which cell type?
A) Leukocytes
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The defect in PNH is associated with:
A) Defect in globin chains
B) Abnormal clone of hematopoietic stem cells
C) Defect in porphyrin synthesis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the most common cause of aplastic anemia?
A) X-ray exposure
B) Benzene exposure
C) Gamma-ray exposure
D) Arsenic exposure
E) Idiopathic
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does (HE) (4.1) denote?
A) Hereditary spherocytosis with the absence of spectrin
B) Hereditary elliptocytosis with the absence of protein 4.1
C) Hereditary elliptocytosis with the absence of spectrin
D) Hereditary elliptocytosis with a partial deficiency of protein 4.1
E) None of the above
Q2) An RPI of greater than __________ is generally regarded as indicative of a hemolytic state.
A) 2.5-3.0
B) 1-1.5
C) 0-1
D) 4-5
E) 5-6
Q3) The majority of hereditary RBC membrane defects are inherited by what pattern?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex-linked
D) Codominant
E) None of the above
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which G6PD enzyme commonly found in Africans has normal activity but differs from that found in whites by a single amino acid substitution that alters its electrophoretic mobility?
A) Gd A+
B) Gd A-
C) Gd Med
D) Gd B
E) Gd Canton
Q2) What is the major clinical feature of a patient with methemoglobinemia?
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Cyanosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Pallor
E) Favism
Q3) Which of the following represents the pattern of inheritance of G6PD deficiency?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked
D) Any of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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75 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of inherited high-affinity hemoglobins?
A) Shift to the left of oxygen dissociation curve (low P<sub>50</sub> levels)
B) Erythrocytosis and polycythemia
C) Increase in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and RBC count
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Although sickle cell trait is usually asymptomatic, sickling can still occur when caused by which of the following?
A) Severe respiratory infection
B) Air travel in unpressurized aircraft
C) Anesthesia
D) Congestive heart failure
E) All of the above
Q3) The anemias of the hemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell are morphologically classified as:
A) Microcytic hypochromic
B) Normocytic normochromic
C) Macrocytic
D) Microcytic normochromic
E) Any of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects:
Thalassemia
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of HPFH is characterized by uniform distribution among red cells when stained by the Kleinhauer-Betke method?
A) Hypocellular
B) Pancellular
C) Heterocellular
D) Hypercellular
E) Acellular
Q2) What is hemoglobin F composed of?
A) Alpha 2, beta 2
B) Alpha 2, gamma 2
C) Alpha 2, delta 2
D) Alpha 2, zeta 2
E) None of the above
Q3) What thalassemia-associated variant will result in sickling crisis in severe hypoxic conditions?
A) Beta thalassemia/hemoglobin E
B) Beta thalassemia/hemoglobin C
C) Beta thalassemia/hemoglobin S
D) Alpha thalassemia/sickle cell
E) Hemoglobin SC
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of direct lysis resulting from the release of lytic enzymes from effector cells that act on the red cell membrane is referred to as:
A) Antigen-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
B) Antibody-independent cellular cytotoxicity
C) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
D) Antigen-independent cellular cytotoxicity
E) None of the above
Q2) Which drug mechanism functions by modifying the red cell membrane so that normal plasma proteins are absorbed non-immunologically?
A) Immune complex
B) Drug absorption
C) Membrane modification
D) Methyldopa-induced
E) Autoimmune
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15
Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of anemia of inflammation?
A) Decreased red blood cell life span
B) Impaired iron metabolism
C) Decreased erythropoiesis levels
D) Suppression of erythropoiesis
E) All of the above
Q2) Electrolyte disturbances in patients with renal failure can lead to the formation of these cells on the peripheral blood smear:
A) Burr cells
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Macrocytes
D) Target cells
E) Spherocytes
Q3) The term that best describes bone marrow infiltration by malignant tumors is:
A) Myelofibrosis
B) Myelodysplasia
C) Myelophthisic
D) Myeloproliferative
E) Hyperproliferative
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sequence reflects the correct order for phagocytosis?
A) Release of cytoplasmic granules; binding of particle; ingestion; fusion of phagolysosome
B) Ingestion; binding of particles; fusion of phagolysosome; release of cytoplasmic granules
C) Binding of particle; ingestion; fusion of phagolysosome; release of cytoplasmic granules
D) Fusion of phagolysosome; binding of particle; release of cytoplasmic granules; ingestion
Q2) __________ is the consequence of either severe neutropenia or neutrophil dysfunction.
A) Bacterial infection
B) Viral infection
C) Hypersensitivity reactions
D) Parasitic infection
E) Allergic reaction
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which percentage of blasts does the WHO classification system recommend for a diagnosis of acute leukemia?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 25%
E) 15%
Q2) Which of the following cytochemical stains differentiates AML from ALL?
A) Myeloperoxidase
B) PAS
C) Nonspecific esterase
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which cytochemical stain, more specific than SBB stain, should be recommended for granulocytic differentiation?
A) Specific esterase
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Nonspecific esterase
D) PAS
E) Alpha-naphthyl butyrate
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the etiology of chronic myelogenous leukemia?
A) Increased maturation in the granulocytic series
B) Neoplastic transformation of the hematopoietic pluripotent stem cell
C) Virus mediated
D) Suppression of myelopoiesis by cytokine
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the chromosomal abnormality in CML?
A) t(8;14)
B) t(9;22)
C) t(1;12)
D) Trisomy 12
E) t(15;17)
Q3) Which chromosomal abnormality is associated with CML?
A) Deletion 7
B) Chromosome 5
C) Trisomy 12
D) Philadelphia chromosome
E) None of the above
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Chapter
18: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders Ii: Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Q1) Which conditions are known to cause a possible false diagnosis of polycythemia vera?
A) Heavy smoking
B) Alcoholic liver disease
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) A and C
E) A and B
Q2) Tissue hypoxia and increased erythropoietic activity is an example of ___________ erythrocytosis.
A) Relative
B) Stress
C) Secondary
D) Primary
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the objective of polycythemia vera therapy?
A) Reduction of total red cell mass
B) Expansion of total red cell mass
C) Cytotoxic myelosuppression to control malignancy
D) A and B
E) A and C Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) RAEB contains a maximum of __________ blasts in the bone marrow.
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 5%
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents the "cornerstone" of myelodysplastic-syndrome treatment?
A) Component therapy
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Autologous bone marrow transplant
D) Interferon
E) A and B
Q3) Which of the following is the most significant prognostic indicator in MDS?
A) Degree of cytopenia
B) Degree of dysplasia in peripheral blood
C) Percentage of bone marrow blasts
D) Degree of dysplasia in bone marrow
E) None of the above
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia in CLL is characterized by the following:
A) A positive direct Coombs' test
B) An increased indirect serum bilirubin
C) Reticulocytosis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) What are the consequences of the accumulation of the lymphocytes in the peripheral blood and bone marrow in a patient with CLL?
A) Neutropenia
B) Anemia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Required hematologic findings for a diagnosis of CLL include:
A) 5000/µL lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
B) 30% lymphocytosis in bone marrow
C) Normocytic/hypochromic anemia
D) A and B
E) A and C
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most widely used staging system for Hodgkin's lymphoma is the __________ classification.
A) Rye
B) Rappaport
C) Ann Arbor
D) Lukes and Butler
E) None of the above
Q2) With appropriate therapy the 10-year survival of Stage I and II Hodgkin's lymphoma is:
A) 0%
B) Less than 50%
C) Greater than 80%
D) 100%
E) None of the above
Q3) The diffuse aggressive lymphomas are:
A) Seldom curable
B) Rapidly fatal if untreated
C) Best treated with a combination of surgery and radiotherapy
D) Single-agent chemotherapy is the treatment of choice.
E) All of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Q1) The presence of __________ circulating in the blood is a late finding seen in advanced multiple myeloma.
A) Megakaryocytes
B) Plasma cells
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils
E) None of the above
Q2) What does immunoelectrophoresis determine?
A) The specific antibody class present in the serum
B) The presence or absence of a lipoprotein
C) Osteoblast activating factor
D) 24-hour urine protein
E) None of the above
Q3) Extramedullary infiltration of plasmacytoid lymphs in Waldenström's macroglobulinemia occurs in the __________.
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Lymph nodes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
25
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Histiocytes produced in sea-blue histiocyte syndrome will stain positive with all the following except:
A) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
B) Toluidine blue
C) Sudan Black B
D) Acid fast
E) None of the above
Q2) The major site of pathology in Tay-Sachs disease is the __________.
A) Spleen
B) Central nervous system
C) Lymph nodes
D) Bone marrow
E) Liver
Q3) Nonmetabolized products of mucopolysaccharides may be detected in the __________ of patients with mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS).
A) Cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)
B) Synovial fluid
C) Urine
D) Gastric juice
E) None of the above
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs) consist of:
A) D and E fragments
B) D and Y fragments
C) X monomer and Y fragments
D) X monomer and D fragments
E) X monomer and E fragments
Q2) What is the coagulation factor assigned as factor V?
A) Calcium
B) Fibrinogen
C) Stabile factor
D) Labile factor
E) None of the above
Q3) The kinin system is activated by the coagulation and __________ systems.
A) Complement
B) Fibrinolytic
C) Reticuloendothelial
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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27
Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is a frequently observed complication of heparin therapy.
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Thrombocytosis
C) Leukocytes
D) Leukopenia
E) None of the above
Q2) Which strongly immunogenic antigen is associated with isoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia?
A) Cs<sup>a</sup>
B) P1<sup>A1</sup>
C) P1<sup>A2</sup>
D) P1<sup>A3</sup>
E) None of the above
Q3) All of the following are characteristic of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome) except:
A) Telangiectatic lesions occur on mucus membranes.
B) Iron deficiency anemia is usually present.
C) Abnormal platelet aggregation in response to thrombin is present.
D) Epistaxis is common.
E) An autosomal inheritance pattern is present.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding circulating anticoagulants except:
A) They are usually immunoglobulins.
B) They are exogenously produced substances.
C) They are inhibitors of the coagulation system.
D) They are endogenously produced substances.
E) None of the above
Q2) Anti-factor VIII antibodies (inhibitors) may arise:
A) Spontaneously
B) In the elderly
C) Due to factor replacement therapy
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Q3) Which rare inherited disorder results in a failure to synthesize adequate amounts of circulating fibrinogen?
A) Afibrinogenemia
B) Dysfibrinogenemia
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) von Willebrand's disease
E) None of the above
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Chapter 27:
Interaction of the Fibrinolytic, Coagulation,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood component replacement therapy in DIC includes transfusion of:
A) Packed red blood cells
B) Fresh frozen plasma
C) Platelets
D) Cryoprecipitate
E) All of the above
Q2) \(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>-Anti-plasmin inhibitor irreversibly binds to the __________ binding site on plasmin in a 1:1 molar ratio.
A) Glutamic acid
B) Valine
C) Arginine
D) Lysine
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the overall effect of \(\alpha\)<sub>2</sub>-anti-plasmin inhibitor?
A) Release free plasmin into circulation
B) Limits plasmin activity to the area of fibrin deposition
C) Inhibit clot lysis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which autosomal dominant thrombotic disorder is associated with an increased risk of warfarin-induced skin necrosis?
A) Protein C deficiency
B) Protein S deficiency
C) Antithrombin deficiency
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) What is the target of the anticoagulant mechanism of heparin?
A) Thrombin inhibition
B) Thrombin synthesis
C) Plasmin inhibition
D) Plasmin synthesis
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the usual treatment for patients presenting with deep venous thrombosis?
A) Administration of oral anticoagulant (warfarin) followed by heparin therapy
B) Administration of lupus anticoagulants followed by heparin therapy
C) Administration of intravenous heparin, followed by several months of oral anticoagulant (warfarin) therapy
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a preanalytical factor?
A) Proper identification of the patient
B) Labeling the specimen at the bedside
C) Transporting the specimen to the laboratory
D) Entering patient's results into the computer
Q2) Which quality approach is used after a problem occurs to investigate the cause of the problem?
A) Root cause analysis
B) FMEA
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
Q3) Calculate the mean of the following hemoglobin values: 6.2, 8.1, 7.9, 9.0, 5.8, 6.6, 7.3, 8.4, 10.2, 11.6
A) 7.3
B) 8.1
C) 8.6
D) 7.8
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the Qualitative, Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of light is used to determine birefringence?
A) Ultraviolet
B) Infrared
C) Polarized
D) Refracted
Q2) A characteristic feature of a malignant cell is _________________.
A) Small cell size
B) Smooth nuclear membrane
C) Nuclear molding
D) Low N:C ratio
Q3) Which type of fluid surrounds the lungs?
A) Pericardial
B) Pleural
C) Peritoneal
D) Cerebrospinal
E) Synovial
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Unopette system, the technologist performed a manual platelet count. An average of 300 platelets were counted on a hemacytometer. What is the platelet count per liter?
A) 300,000
B) 300
C) 150,000
D) 150
E) 500
Q2) A laboratory technician performs a spun microhematocrit. Anxious that the end of her shift is near, she stops the centrifuge herself instead of allowing it to stop on its own. She reads her tubes on three male adult patients and obtains values of 54%, 58%, and 59%. What should she do now?
A) She can leave since she got all of her work done.
B) Set up new tubes on all three patients and repeat the procedure without stopping the centrifuge.
C) The values for the patients are within normal range so there's no need to repeat the procedure.
D) Call the physician and report the high values for all three patients.
E) Tell another technician to repeat the test for her since her shift is over.
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Q1) The Technicon H1 instrument identifies and grades (1+ to 4+) various RBC abnormalities including:
A) Microcytosis
B) Macrocytosis
C) Hypochromia
D) Hyperchromia
E) All of the above
Q2) Conductivity measurements in the Coulter VCS technology are made using a high-frequency electromagnetic probe and reflect the __________ properties of the cells.
A) Nuclear
B) Granular
C) Chemical
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A weak circulating anticoagulant that prolongs the APTT after incubation at 37°C for 1 hour is typical of:
A) Factor VII inhibitor
B) Factor VIII inhibitor
C) Factor X inhibitor
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) In the platelet neutralization procedure for lupus anticoagulants (LAs), after mixing LA plasma with freeze-thawed platelet lysate, the __________ will be shortened.
A) PT
B) APTT
C) TT
D) Reptilase time
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Q1) While evaluating data from an analysis, the analyst suspects spectral bleed-over has occurred. What can be done so that each detector only measures the signal for the appropriate fluorescent dye?
A) Increase the voltage to each detector
B) Properly set the fluorescence compensation control
C) Decrease the threshold setting
D) Remove the optical filters
Q2) In HIV infection, what is monitored to determine if antiviral treatment should be started?
A) CD8 absolute counts
B) CD3 percentage
C) CD4 absolute counts
D) CD8 percentage
Q3) The forward-scattered (FSC) and side-scattered (SSC) values for lymphocytes compared with those for monocytes and neutrophils are:
A) Lower
B) Higher
C) Identical
D) Indeterminate
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnostic procedures for analyzing DNA is the most accurate method for detecting gene rearrangements in lymphoid leukemias and lymphomas?
A) Southern blot analysis
B) Northern blot analysis
C) Western blot analysis
D) Eastern blot analysis
E) None of the above
Q2) Human DNA is packaged into how many chromosomes?
A) 46
B) 23
C) 26
D) 50
Q3) DNA extracted from fresh cells or frozen tissue is resuspended in buffer and can be stored at 4°C for how long prior to amplification?
A) 6 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 7 days
D) 14 days
E) 1 month
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is an enzyme marker for primitive __________ cells.
A) Megakaryocytoid
B) Myeloid
C) Lymphoid
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Material that stains PAS positive appears __________.
A) Bluish-green
B) Bright orange
C) Bright red
D) Pink
E) None of the above
Q3) Isoenzyme 5, the acid phosphatase fraction found in hairy cell leukemia, is __________ to the addition of tartaric acid.
A) Sensitive
B) Resistant
C) Variable
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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