Medical
Technology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is the study and application of laboratory techniques, instruments, and scientific principles to diagnose, monitor, and treat diseases in patients. This course covers theoretical foundations and hands-on experience in clinical laboratory procedures across core disciplines such as hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students will learn about the operation of cutting-edge equipment, quality assurance practices, and the interpretation of laboratory results, preparing them for essential roles within healthcare teams to ensure accurate patient diagnoses and promote public health.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices 6th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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27 Chapters
1413 Verified Questions
1413 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Red Blood Cells and Platelet Preservation:
Historical Perspectives and Current Trends
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following red blood cell morphologies may be present on the peripheral blood smear as a result of loss of RBC membrane?
A) Spherocytes
B) Target cells
C) Burr cells
D) Schistocytes
Answer: A
Q2) What factors are known to influence platelet metabolism and function?
A) Storage temperature
B) Initial pH
C) Platelet count
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) If platelets are to be stored for 5 days on a rotator, what is the optimal storage temperature?
A) 1°C to 6°C
B) 20°C to 24°C
C) 35°C to 37°C
D) 1°C to 10°C
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are consistent with Mendel's basic rules of inheritance except:
A) the gene is transmitted through generations intact.
B) a pair of genes is always found in the same gamete.
C) different pairs of genes are assorted independently of each other.
D) a pair of genes is rarely found in the same gamete.
Answer: B
Q2) Using the Hardy-Weinberg equation, if a total random population carried the dominant allele E and 20% carried the recessive allele e, what would the total percentage be for the recessive trait ee?
A) 64%
B) 4%
C) 16%
D) 0.4%
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called______________ .
A) adhesion
B) sensitization
C) agglutination
D) inhibition
Answer: B
Q2) In an immune response,______________ antibodies are formed before______________ .
A) IgG, IgA
B) IgM, IgG
C) IgG, IgM
D) IgM, IgA
Answer: B
Q3) Which is a characteristic of natural killer (NK) cells?
A) They bind to and lyse antibody-coated cells in ADCC.
B) They require the presence of MHC to respond to antigen.
C) They produce antibody to act on foreign antigens.
D) They possess the TCR on their membrane surface.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Concepts in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the DNA molecule is false?
A) Cytosine always pairs with guanine.
B) Adenine always pairs with thymine.
C) Adenine always pairs with uracil.
D) Options A and B
Q2) Which of the following is not consistent with the structure of DNA?
A) The double helix consists of two strands of nucleotides, which are antiparallel.
B) At each turn of the helix, 10 base pairs are stacked on top of each other.
C) The double helix consists of two strands of nucleotides, which are parallel.
D) The helical ladder is built from alternating units of deoxyribose and phosphate.
Q3) Each type of tRNA molecule can be attached to only one type of amino acid, but because the genetic code contains multiple codons that specify the same amino acid, tRNA molecules bearing different anticodons may also carry the same amino acid.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: The Antiglobulin Test
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the incubation time for the IAT when saline is used instead of LISS?
A) 10 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Q2) How many IgG molecules must be present on the red blood cell for a positive IAT to occur?
A) 10
B) 100
C) 50
D) 500
Q3) What is the optimal temperature for complement activation?
A) 58°C
B) 37°C
C) 4°C
D) 22°C
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Abo Blood Group System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of individuals inherit the secretor gene?
A) 15%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 98%
Q2) Anti-A from a group B individual is primarily what class of immunoglobulin?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) All of the above
Q3) What percentage of A<sub>2</sub> individuals produce anti-A<sub>1</sub>?
A) 5%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 80%
Q4) What is the source of anti-A<sub>1</sub> lectin?
A) Bandeiraea simplicifolia
B) Dolichos biflorus
C) Ulex europaeus
D) All of the above
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The RH Blood Group System
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the Rh antigen located relative to the red blood cell membrane?
A) Integrally
B) Peripherally
C) Centrally
D) None of the above
Q2) What does hr' refer to in the Weiner nomenclature?
A) c
B) e
C) C
D) E
Q3) What protocol is put in place to validate Rh testing when high-protein reagents are used, especially when the patient types as an AB-positive?
A) Wash cells before testing
B) Run a control with Rh test
C) Add LISS to test system
D) Use only saline reactive anti-D
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Chapter 8: Blood Group Terminology and the Other Blood Groups
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214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigen is expressed on C<sub>4</sub>B complement fragments?
A) Ch<sub>a</sub>
B) Kn<sub>a</sub>
C) Yk<sub>a</sub>
D) Gy<sub>a</sub>
Q2) At which phase are Lewis antibodies usually detected?
A) Immediate spin
B) 37°C
C) Coombs
D) All of the above
Q3) Red blood cells that phenotyped as [Le(a-b-)] are incubated with plasma containing Le<sup>a</sup> substance. The red blood cells convert to the phenotype [Le(a+b-)]. Whereas the same red blood cells incubated with saliva containing Le<sup>a</sup> substance do not convert. Why?
A) Glycoproteins are not absorbed onto red blood cell membranes.
B) Biochemically, Lewis substances in saliva are glycolipids.
C) Only Le<sup>b</sup> substance in saliva can convert phenotypes.
D) Other enzymes found in the saliva interfere with the conversion from Le(a-b-) to Le (a+b-).
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Detection and Identification of Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-unit crossmatch was ordered on a patient in the emergency room. The patient's antibody screen was negative. One unit was compatible and the other was incompatible at AHG. If the patient's antibody screen was negative and the donor had no history of antibodies, what could be the reason for this reaction?
A) The patient's serum has an antibody to a low-frequency antigen not present on screening cells.
B) The donor has a positive DAT.
C) The patient's serum has an HTLA antibody.
D) Options A and B
Q2) A patient with a warm autoantibody has a positive DAT. The antibody screen was negative, but the eluate reacted uniformly with all normal cells and patient cells. Why was the antibody screen negative?
A) Reagent red blood cells were saturated with warm autoantibody from patient serum
B) No alloantibodies were present
C) The warm autoantibody has bound to patient RBCs in circulation
D) Polyspecific AHG was used instead of monospecific IgG
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Chapter 10: Pre-Transfusion Testing
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63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mixing patient serum and donor red blood cells together and observing for direct cell lysis or agglutination is known as:
A) the Donath-Landsteiner test.
B) a minor crossmatch.
C) a major crossmatch.
D) an autohemolysis test.
Q2) Passive acquisition of anti-A, B, AB may occur through:
A) RhIG injection.
B) bacterial injection.
C) bone marrow transplantation.
D) hepatitis vaccination.
Q3) A 39-year-old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB Rh-negative. Eight units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which is most preferable for crossmatch?
A) AB, Rh-positive
B) A, Rh-negative
C) A, Rh-positive
D) O, Rh-negative
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12
Chapter 11: Overview of the Routine Blood Bank Laboratory
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient is most likely to require irradiated products?
A) Patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant
B) Patient undergoing open heart surgery
C) Newborn
D) Geriatric patient
Q2) It is December 1, 2012, and you irradiate an O-negative packed RBC that you have in inventory, which outdates January 5, 2013. What will the new outdate be for that unit?
A) December 2, 2012
B) December 3, 2012
C) December 29, 2012
D) January 5, 2013
Q3) What test(s) are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit crossmatch on a patient?
A) IS crossmatch
B) AHG crossmatch
C) ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch
D) ABO, Rh, DAT, IS crossmatch
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13
Chapter 12: Other Technologies and Automation
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the affinity column technique, a serologic reaction that forms a fine red blood cell band at the top of the gel column and a red blood cell button at the bottom of the gel column is interpreted as:
A) mixed-field
B) weak positive
C) strong positive
D) negative
Q2) The washing procedure is applicable to which of the following serologic methods?
A) Solid phase and tube system
B) Gel technology and solid phase
C) Solid phase and affinity column
D) Gel technology and tube system
Q3) Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is added to antibody screening methods for which of the following test systems?
A) Gel
B) SPRCA
C) Solid phase
D) None of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Donor Screening and Component Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements explains why bacterial contamination of blood is rarely a problem?
A) Regulated procedures for arm preparation prevent most bacteria contamination from occurring during collection.
B) Citrate in the anticoagulant is not conducive to bacterial growth.
C) The cold storage of blood is not conducive to bacterial growth.
D) All of the above
Q2) Ringer's lactate is characterized as a:
A) colloid.
B) crystalloid.
C) antithrombotic.
D) albumin derivative.
Q3) What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential autologous donor?
A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL
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Chapter 14: Apheresis
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What possible risk exists when hydroxyethyl starch (HES) concentration has exceeded the renal threshold and excretion is retarded?
A) Blockage of the reticuloendothelial system
B) Blockage of the spleen
C) Citrate toxicity
D) Infiltration of the liver by activated macrophages
Q2) The specific cell product used for treating sepsis is the:
A) lymphocyte.
B) granulocyte.
C) monocyte.
D) plasmacyte.
Q3) When is isolation of PBSCs via apheresis equipment indicated?
A) The bone marrow contains malignant cells
B) The bone marrow has been irradiated
C) The patient cannot tolerate general anesthesia
D) All of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Transfusion Therapy
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97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryoprecipitate AHF contains factor VIII. What other coagulation factor is present?
A) I
B) V
C) VII
D) XII
Q2) Who is at risk for transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TAGVHD)?
A) Hodgkin's lymphoma patients
B) Bone marrow transplant recipients
C) Persons receiving nonirradiated directed donations
D) All of the above
Q3) Why is red blood cell transfusion contraindicated in a stable patient with chronic renal failure who has no symptoms except after climbing three flights of stairs?
A) The anemia is compensated.
B) The anemia is a "nutritional anemia."
C) Whole blood is recommended because the plasma volume is decreased in these patients.
D) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Cellular Therapy
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99 Verified Questions
99 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons with a documented history of anaphylactic reactions should be transfused with _____blood products.
A) IgE-deficient
B) leukodepleted
C) washed
D) irradiated
Q2) What is the length of time required for production of antibody in a DHTR caused by an anamnestic immune response?
A) 7 to 14 days
B) 5 to 10 days
C) 1 to 2 hours
D) 3 to 7 days
Q3) The presence of intact red blood cells in microscopic urinalysis examination indicates:
A) bleeding.
B) hemolysis.
C) hemosiderinuria.
D) bilirubinemia.
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18
Chapter 18: Transfusion-Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatitis B virus belongs to which family?
A) Picornaviridae
B) Hepadnaviridae
C) Flaviviridae
D) Retroviridae
Q2) What is the source of hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)?
A) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBc(IgG)
B) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBe
C) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBs
D) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBc(IgM)
Q3) American Association of Blood Banks (AABB) Standards mandate the donor of blood or component given to a recipient who develops clinical or laboratory evidence of transfusion-associated hepatitis (TAH), HIV infection, or HTLV-I/II infection must be permanently deferred if the unit was:
A) a directed donation.
B) the only unit transfused.
C) one of four transfused to the recipient.
D) positive for cytomegalovirus.
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19
Chapter 19: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibodies have not been known to cause HDFN?
A) Anti-C
B) Anti-S
C) Anti-D
D) Anti-Le<sup>a</sup>
Q2) Why does the rate of RBC destruction after birth decrease in an infant diagnosed with HDFN?
A) Maternal antibody is no longer entering infant circulation via the placenta.
B) Reticuloendothelial system of the neonate reaches an equilibrium with the rate of RBC destruction.
C) The bone marrow of the neonate compensates for sequestered RBCs.
D) None of the above
Q3) Why is the immediate spin eliminated in the prenatal antibody screen?
A) To reduce the detection of auto-antibodies
B) To reduce the detection of IgG antibodies
C) To reduce the detection of IgM antibodies
D) None of the above
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Chapter 20: Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of AIHA cases are caused by warm reacting autoantibodies?
A) 18%
B) 70%
C) 12%
D) 25%
Q2) In cases of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, what subclass of IgG is most efficient in binding complement?
A) IgG<sub>2</sub>
B) IgG<sub>1</sub>
C) IgG<sub>3</sub>
D) IgG<sub>4</sub>
Q3) If a false-positive reaction was suspected with anti-D in the forward grouping due to the presence of a cold autoantibody, which of the following would show reactivity?
A) Du test
B) DAT
C) Rh control
D) All of the above
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Chapter 21: The Hla System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recipient lymphocytotoxic HLA-antibody to donor antigens is associated with:
A) accelerated graft rejection.
B) platelet refractoriness.
C) respiratory distress.
D) both A and B.
Q2) When the entire set of A, B, C, DR, DQ, and DP antigens are located on one chromosome, it is called a:
A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) haplotype.
D) karyotype.
Q3) Which of the following is acceptable for cytotoxicity techniques?
A) EDTA
B) ACD
C) Serum
D) CPDA-1
Q4) The majority of cross-reactive alloantibodies detect HLA specificities of allelic molecules coded by the same locus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Relationship Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn is typed as Group O; her mother is Group A. Determine the maximum number of theoretical blood types that the father could be to produce a child of this ABO type.
A) A, B, AB, O
B) A, AB, O
C) A, B, O
D) B, O
E) O
Q2) A child was found to express the M+N+ phenotype. The mother's phenotype was M+N-, as was the father's. What type of exclusion is evident in this case?
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) No exclusion
D) None of the above
Q3) What test systems are used in the ascertainment of paternity?
A) Endocrine, RBC, serum protein, enzymes
B) RBC, HLA, enzymes, serum proteins
C) RBC, enzymes, HLA, hormones
D) Viral antigens, RBC, HLA, serum proteins
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a function of the quality committee or quality council?
A) To provide solutions to recurring clerical errors
B) To provide counseling for departmental downsizing
C) To set priorities for quality improvements
D) To focus on computer upgrades and software implementation
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?
A) A night-shift medical technologist
B) A blood donor
C) An intravenous nurse
D) Housekeeping employee
Q3) A standard operating procedure (SOP) is:
A) a statement of intent or course of action.
B) a description of resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
C) a set of directions for how to perform a particular task.
D) a form on which to record results.
Q4) How do internal assessments differ from compliance inspections?
A) Compliance inspections assess performance on quality indicators.
B) Internal assessments focus on meeting regulations.
C) Internal assessments are more frequent than compliance inspections.
D) Compliance inspections seek underlying causes of problems.
Page 24
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Chapter 24: Transfusion Safety and Federal Regulatory Requirements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the CBER?
A) To monitor continuing education at designated facilities
B) To issue federal licenses to establishments that are manufacturing biological products
C) To issue certification to medical technologists
D) None of the above
Q2) All of the following is correct regarding recovered plasma except:
A) it is derived from single units of expired whole blood.
B) it is derived from single units of unexpired whole blood.
C) it is a licensed source material used in the manufacturing of licensed products.
D) it is an unlicensed source material used in the manufacturing of licensed products.
Q3) Which of the following provides just cause for a product recall by the FDA?
A) The donor blood pressure reading was omitted in donor screening.
B) An A-positive packed red blood cell unit was labeled as an A-negative packed red blood cell unit.
C) An autologous unit was found reactive for anti-HBc.
D) A therapeutic whole blood unit had a hematocrit of greater than 80%.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Utilization Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon review at the end of the quarter, you note that one physician's C/T ratio was high. You discuss this with the medical director, and he has you draft a letter to this physician. This is an example of what kind of review?
A) Retrospective
B) Concurrent
C) Interpreted
D) Prospective
Q2) Which of the following is not part of a blood utilization review?
A) Retrospective review
B) Concurrent review
C) Interpreted review
D) Prospective review
Q3) Blood utilization management programs are designed to do all but which of the following?
A) Increase safety
B) Decrease component availability
C) Reduce expenditure
D) Manage limited blood resources
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26
Chapter 25: Laboratory Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood bank information systems should perform all of the following except:
A) verify donor testing results to ensure units are suitable for transfusion.
B) identify the location of all units at any given time.
C) recognize units that are outdated.
D) verify the accuracy of input demographic data.
Q2) What is the overall purpose of a blood bank information system?
A) To track a blood product from the time of donation to the point of final disposition
B) To store donor history information
C) To assist blood bank personnel in selection of appropriate components for transfusion
D) To keep a daily inventory of all blood components
Q3) A unit of blood was irradiated for a patient. It had 29 days before it expired. The unit's original expiration date was January 1, 2012. What expiration date should the LIS have given it when the modification was recorded?
A) January 1, 2012
B) January 2, 2012
C) December 31, 2012
D) 24-hour expiration
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Chapter 26: Medicolegal and Ethical Aspects of Providing
Blood Collection and Transfusion Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) What body of government is authorized to pass laws?
A) U.S. Congress
B) U.S. Supreme Court
C) state courts
D) all of the above
Q2) Many transfusion-transmitted acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (TTAIDS) lawsuits have been dismissed because of:
A) inability to prove negligence.
B) lack of precedence.
C) blood shield statutes.
D) statute of limitations.
Q3) What was the reason for the negligence verdict in the district case Belle Bonfils Memorial Blood Bank v. Denver District Court (1988)?
A) Lack of an HIV-confirmatory test for specific unit transfused
B) Clerical error by reference laboratory (site of testing)
C) Lack of standard protocol for implementing new HIV testing on available components
D) Lack of quality control for HIV test kit
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Chapter 27: Tissue Banking: A New Role for the Transfusion Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which Joint Commission standard has to do with storage of tissues?
A) PC.17.10
B) PC.17.20
C) PC.17.30
D) all of the above
Q2) A bone flap is harvested by a physician for a patient at hospital X. The patient has an issue with hospital X and requests to go to hospital Y. The patient is transferred, but the physician wants to continue with the treatment. Which of the following scenarios is possible?
A) Hospital X would need to be registered with the FDA as a tissue vendor in order to transfer the bone flap to hospital Y.
B) The patient is allowed to take the bone flap with him to hospital Y, because it is autologous.
C) The physician is licensed to practice at both hospitals, so he is allowed to transfer the bone flap.
D) There is no tissue with transfer from one hospital to the next, because the material being transferred is bone.
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