Medical Technology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the principles, techniques, and applications of laboratory science in healthcare. The course covers topics such as clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn how medical technologists use specialized equipment and methodologies to analyze biological samples, contributing to disease diagnosis, patient monitoring, and therapeutic decision-making. Emphasis is placed on laboratory safety, quality control, data interpretation, and ethical considerations in clinical settings, preparing students for roles in medical laboratories, research, and healthcare innovation.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by
Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77408
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions?
A) Handwashing after glove removal
B) Use of impermeable laboratory gowns
C) Use of goggles and face shields
D) Placing laboratory notebooks on laboratory work area
Answer: D
Q2) When handwashing after a patient contact, the soap application process should last at least:
A) 5 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 20 seconds
D) 30 seconds
Answer: B
Q3) Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because:
A) An exact amount of analyte is present in a standard or calibrator
B) A variable amount of analyte is present depending on patient samples
C) Standards only need to be within a target range
D) Standards are run to the best estimate of the known value
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone responsible for red blood cell development in the bone marrow is:
A) Thyroxin
B) Insulin
C) Leukopoietin
D) Erythropoietin
Answer: D
Q2) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The CBC parameter that gives insight as to the amount of anisocytosis present in a specimen is:
A) RDW
B) MCHC
C) MCV
D) Hgb
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77406
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stages is:
A) Basophilic cytoplasm through every stage of maturation
B) Granules in the cytoplasm
C) A round nucleus
D) An increase in size as the cell matures
Answer: C
Q2) Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:
A) Iron
B) Denatured hemoglobin
C) DNA
D) RNA
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following RBC pathways is responsible for providing 90% of the cellular ATP for red cell metabolism?
A) Embden-Meyerhof pathway
B) Methemoglobin reductase pathway
C) Rapoport-Luebering pathway
D) Hexose monophosphate shunt
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hemoglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the:
A) Amount of alpha or beta chains
B) Relationship between the pulmonary and venous circulations
C) Viscosity of the blood
D) M:E ratio
Q2) Intrinsic red cell defects that can lead to hemolysis include:
A) Environmental effects
B) Inherited deficiencies
C) A shift in pH
D) A decrease in G6PD
Q3) What is the term used to define the process by which the bone marrow responds to anemia-induced stress?
A) Ineffective erythropoiesis
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Medullary erythropoiesis
Q4) Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which if the following is also known as Cooley's anemia?
A) Alpha thalassemia
B) Beta thalassemia major
C) Hereditary hemochromatosis
D) IDA
Q2) In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults that is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through:
A) Transfusion
B) Recycling of iron
C) Storage forms from spleen and the liver
D) Hemosiderin
Q3) The majority of the hemoglobin made in individuals with thalassemia major is:
A) Hemoglobin H
B) Hemoglobin A
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin Barts
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell pictured above may be seen in which of the following conditions?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Megaloblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
Q2) The MCV in pernicious anemia will be in the range of:
A) 70 to 80 fL
B) 85 to 95 fL
C) 110 to 120 fL
D) 90 to 98 fL
Q3) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Intrinsic factor is secreted by the:
A) Parietal cells of the stomach
B) Ileum
C) Thyroid
D) Bone marrow
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Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anemia that manifests as decreased marrow cellularity, pancytopenia, and a reticulocytopenia is appropriately termed:
A) Megaloblastic anemia
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Iron deficiency anemia
Q2) Bite cells are formed from:
A) The spleen "pitting" out Heinz bodies
B) Third-degree burns
C) Spectrin deficiency
D) G6PD deficiency
Q3) One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:
A) Acute hemolytic anemia
B) Favism
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia
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9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkaline electrophoresis will not separate hemoglobin C from:
A) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
B) Hemoglobin F
C) Hemoglobin S
D) Hemoglobin A
Q2) Sickle cell disease is best differentiated from sickle cell trait by:
A) Wright smear examination
B) Determination of fetal hemoglobin
C) Genetic testing
D) Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Q3) In sickle cell anemia, _____is substituted for glutamine.
A) valine
B) lysine
C) adenine
D) leucine
Q4) A patient with sickle cell anemia may develop cardiopulmonary disease due to:
A) Untreated leg ulcers
B) High blood viscosity
C) Increased Hgb F levels
D) Hemolytic crisis
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Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma cell is responsible for:
A) Humoral immunity
B) Cell mediated immunity
C) Tumor suppression
D) Delayed hypersensitivity
Q2) At present, most lymphocyte subpopulations are recognized by their CD markers.
CD refers to:
A) Codon designation
B) Cluster designation
C) Cytoplasmic designation
D) Cytokine designation
Q3) Which of the following CD markers is more appropriately associated with the myelocyte?
A) CD4, CD8
B) CD33, CD13, CD14
C) CD45, CD33, CD13
D) CD19, CD22
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with a fever of unknown origin.His WBC count is 20.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L.All of the following can be seen on his peripheral smear except:
A) Toxic granulation
B) Reactive monocytes
C) Increased band neutrophils
D) Dohle bodies
Q2) A typical blood picture in infectious mononucleosis is an absolute:
A) Lymphocytosis and anemia with many reactive lymphocytes
B) Lymphocytosis without anemia and many reactive lymphocytes
C) Monocytosis and anemia with many atypical monocytes
D) Monocytosis without anemia and many atypical monocytes
Q3) Toxic granulation in neutrophils is a direct result of:
A) Cytokine production
B) Enhanced lysosome enzyme production
C) Toxic granulation
D) Ehrlichia infection
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Greater than __of bone marrow cells must be identified as lymphoblasts to meet the WHO definition of ALL.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Q2) The monoclonal marker that is often positive in T-ALL is:
A) CD1
B) CD7
C) CD10
D) CD41
Q3) ___is the rarest form of the AMLs.
A) M1
B) M4
C) M6
D) M7
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia is marked by:
A) Increased basophils
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Increase in blasts
D) Increased fibrosis
Q2) Myocardial infarctions, transient ischemic attacks, and deep vein thrombosis are likely to be complications of:
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Acute myelocytic leukemia
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Q3) ____has the worst prognosis of all the myeloproliferative disorders.
A) Polycythemic vera
B) Essential thrombocythemia
C) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
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Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immunoglobulin responsible for secondary immunological response is:
A) Ig A
B) Ig M
C) Ig D
D) Ig G
Q2) The CD markers associated with CLL include all of the following except:
A) CD 4
B) CD 15
C) CD 19
D) CD 20
Q3) Patients with CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukemia):
A) Die most often of blast crisis
B) Are usually younger than 40 years
C) May develop monoclonal spikes
D) Often are immunocompromised
Q4) Reed Sternberg cells are associated with:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) CLL
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Multiple myeloma
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Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone marrow and peripheral smear of a patient with an MDS will show dysplastic changes in _over time.
A) white cells
B) red cells
C) platelets
D) All of the above
Q2) Reticulocytopenia is a feature of MDS.Which one of the following is the mechanism behind this process?
A) Heavy tumor burden
B) Marrow aplasia
C) Ineffective erythropoiesis
D) Toxic effects
Q3) The most common hematological malignancy in the adult population is:
A) Acute leukemia
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Myelodysplastic syndrome
D) Chronic leukemias
Q4) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factor III
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
Q2) The first response of a cut vessel is:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Platelet aggregation
C) Activation of the intrinsic pathway
D) Vasodilation
Q3) Tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI):
A) Prevents activation of factor X by VIIa
B) Activates the common pathway
C) Inhibits fibrinolysis
D) Inhibits the kallikrein proteins
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Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombocytosis is defined as a platelet count that is:
A) Greater than 450 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) Less than 450 \(\times\)w10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) Greater than 600 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) Less than 300 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q2) A platelet release defect in which there is a severe deficiency of dense granules in platelets is known as:
A) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
B) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Q3) Several hours after birth, a baby boy develops the following symptoms, petechiae, purpura, and hemorrhage.The platelet count is 18,000.The most likely explanation is:
A) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
B) Secondary thrombocytopenia
C) Isoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia
D) Neonatal DIC
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is:
A) Factor V
B) Factor VII
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor IX
Q2) Factor assays measure the percentage of activity of a given factor by mixing the patient's plasma with:
A) Normal plasma
B) Adsorbed plasma
C) Factor-deficient plasma
D) Factor-specific plasma
Q3) Keloid scar formation is most commonly associated with:
A) Factor VIII deficiency
B) Factor IX deficiency
C) Factor XII deficiency
D) Factor XIII deficiency
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19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) D-dimers may be elevated in which of the following?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Q2) An excess of which of the following is indicative of the breakdown of fibrin products within the circulating blood?
A) D-dimers
B) Alpha-2-antiplasmin
C) Protein C
D) Plasmin
Q3) The best component to use for patients with afibrinogenemia is:
A) Whole blood
B) Fresh frozen plasma
C) Tissue plasminogen activator
D) Factor XIII
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary hemostasis refers to the process by which:
A) The platelet plug is formed
B) A cross-linked fibrin clot is formed
C) Fibrin degradation products are generated
D) None of the above
Q2) The most common tests used to detect Lupus anticoagulants include all of the following except:
A) aPTT
B) Kaolin clotting time
C) PT/INR
D) Dilute Russell viper venom test
Q3) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) usually:
A) Occurs as a result of protein C deficiency
B) Will show an increase in platelets
C) Occurs 5 to 14 days after heparin therapy
D) Occurs only in males
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