Medical Technology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is an interdisciplinary field focused on the development, application, and management of diagnostic, therapeutic, and monitoring tools used in healthcare. This course explores the principles and methods behind laboratory testing, medical imaging, clinical instrumentation, and biotechnology, highlighting how these technologies contribute to patient care, disease prevention, and medical research. Students examine laboratory procedures, quality assurance, data analysis, and regulatory standards, while also discussing ethical considerations and recent advancements in medical technology that shape modern healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 4th Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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25 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Immunity and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the:
A) peripheral blood.
B) connective tissue.
C) thymus.
D) lymph nodes.
Answer: D
Q2) Acquired (adaptive)immunity can be characterized as:
A) nonspecifically activated.
B) immediately responsive.
C) neutrophil dependent.
D) involving memory.
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following cells are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT:
A) eosinophils.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) monocytes.
D) neutrophils.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Nature of Antigens and the Major
Histocompatibility Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) In antigen processing,the function of transporters associated with antigen-processing proteins is to:
A) help digest large proteins.
B) bind to MHC class II molecules in the endoplasmic reticulum.
C) transport digested proteins to MHC class I molecules.
D) recognize and digest exogenous protein.
Answer: C
Q2) A 50-kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called:
A) a hapten but not an antigen.
B) a hapten and an antigen.
C) an antigen but not an immunogen.
D) an immunogen and an antigen.
Answer: D
Q3) The term "human leukocyte antigen" is synonymous with: A) allele.
B) haplotype.
C) major histocompatibility complex.
D) chromosome.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is part of the external defense system?
A) Ceruloplasmin
B) Skin
C) Neutrophils
D) Complement
Answer: B
Q2) Patients with chronic granulomatous disease have neutrophils that cannot kill bacteria because they:
A) cannot phagocytize bacteria.
B) do not have granules containing antibacterial enzymes.
C) cannot produce superoxide.
D) cannot migrate to the site of infection.
Answer: C
Q3) C-reactive protein,complement components,and antibodies are all:
A) acute-phase reactants.
B) enzymes.
C) pathogen-recognition receptors.
D) opsonins.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells are responsible for killing virally infected host cells and tumor cells?
A) CD4 T cells
B) CD8 T cells
C) B cells
D) Plasma cells
Q2) T cells differ from B cells in which of the following ways?
A) T cells express surface immunoglobulin.
B) B cells express CD19 but not CD3.
C) T cells express CD19, CD3, and CD4.
D) B cells express surface immunoglobulin and CD3.
Q3) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen?
A) Viruses
B) Parasites
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
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Chapter 5: Antibody Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best characterizes IgD?
A) Primary response antibody
B) Surface receptor for antigen
C) Responsible for allergic reactions
D) Fixes complement
Q2) The receptor for antigen on a mature B cell is:
A) MHC class I.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) MHC class II.
Q3) Which immunoglobulin activates the classical complement pathway?
A) IgD
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q4) Which option best describes monoclonal antibody?
A) Antibody made against multiple epitopes
B) Antibody made by a variety of B cells
C) Antibody made from a single antibody-producing cell
D) All antibody of any one particular class
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Chapter 6: Cytokines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cytokines is produced by Th1 cells and is suppressive for Th2 lymphocytes?
A) IL-2
B) IL-4
C) TGF-beta
D) IFN-gamma
Q2) Which clinical assay can be used for measuring cytokine concentrations in serum samples?
A) Microbead assay
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) ELISpot
D) Flow cytometry
Q3) Identify the main action of interferon-gamma.
A) Increases synthesis of acute-phase reactants
B) Stimulates cytotoxic T cells
C) Inhibits T-cell activity
D) Stimulates production of white blood cells
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Chapter 7: Complement System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemotactic and anaphylactic factors are produced by proteolytic cleavage of:
A) C1q, C1r, and C1s.
B) C4 and C2.
C) C5 and C3.
D) C5, C6, C7, and C8
Q2) Which statement about complement components is most accurate?
A) They all are active enzymes.
B) They are synthesized only when antigen is present.
C) They play a major part in the inflammatory response.
D) They are mainly produced in lymphoid tissue.
Q3) What reagent is present in a CH50 assay and absent in an AH50 assay?
A) Calcium
B) Red blood cells
C) Ethylene glycol
D) Magnesium
Q4) Which complement receptor is involved in mediating phagocytosis?
A) CR1
B) CR2
C) CR3
D) CR4
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Safety and Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most appropriate laboratory safety wear?
A) Cloth laboratory coat worn unbuttoned
B) Fluid-resistant laboratory gown with wrist cuffs
C) A patient gown worn tied in the back
D) No laboratory coat unless you have to clean up a spill
Q2) Which option is considered the primary goal of a Six Sigma program?
A) To increase laboratory productivity
B) To cut laboratory costs
C) To decrease the amount of reagent used
D) To reduce variables and decrease errors
Q3) What does the acronym RACE stand for?
A) Run, active, call, escape
B) Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
C) Recall, alarm, call, exit
D) Run, alarm, code, extinguish
Q4) What does the acronym PASS stand for?
A) Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep
B) Pass, activate, sweep, scram
C) Pull, alarm, squeeze, sweep
D) Pass, activate, scram, scream
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Chapter 9: Principles of Serological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
Q2) The probability that a person with a positive screening test actually has the disease screened for is called:
A) sensitivity.
B) specificity.
C) positive predictive value.
D) negative predictive value.
Q3) Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a 1:3000 dilution?
A) 1:10, 1:3, 1:10
B) 1:5, 1:6, 1:100
C) 1:3, 1:100, 1:100
D) 1:30, 1:10, 1:100
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11
Chapter 10: Precipitation and Agglutination Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If antibody is uniformly distributed in a gel and antigen is added to a well cut into the gel,the process is called:
A) single diffusion.
B) double diffusion.
C) immunofixation.
D) retrodiffusion.
Q2) A solution has 4 pentomeric IgM antibodies per microliter.What concentration of antigen molecules is necessary for the solution to be in the zone of equivalence? The antigen has 4 identical epitopes on each molecule.
A) 4 antigen molecules per microliter
B) 5 antigen molecules per microliter
C) 10 antigen molecules per microliter
D) 20 antigen molecules per microliter
Q3) In performing blood typing using the tube method,if the red cell button is not resuspended properly,what are the most likely results?
A) False positive
B) False negative
C) Does not affect the results
D) Makes the reaction weaker
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Chapter 11: Labeled Immunoassays
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Sample Questions
Q1) An immunoassay is performed in the following way: Antigen is bound to a solid support.Patient serum is added,and patient antibodies bind to the antigen.The well is washed,and enzyme-labeled anti-immunoglobulin antibodies are added.The well is washed,and enzyme substrate is added.Enzyme activity is determined.Which immunoassay is described?
A) Capture
B) Competitive
C) ELISA
D) Homogeneous
Q2) You must choose between two widely accepted,commonly used colorimetric enzyme immunoassay kits to measure a plasma protein that circulates at a moderately high concentration.Each kit uses a different enzyme and substrate.What is the most important consideration in making your choice?
A) Shelf life of reagents
B) Speed of detection
C) Wavelengths detected by microtiter plate reader
D) Sensitivity
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Chapter 12: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a ligase chain reaction:
A) target sequences are joined together.
B) primers are joined together.
C) targets sequences are cleaved.
D) primer sequences are cleaved.
Q2) Select the strand of RNA that is complementary to this single strand of DNA: A T T A G
C C G T A T
A) T A A T C G G C A T A
B) U A A U C G G C U A U
C) T U U T C G G C A U A
D) T A A T U G G U A T A
Q3) What process confers specificity in molecular biology methods?
A) Amplification
B) Polymorphism
C) Strand cleavage
D) Hybridization
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14
Chapter 13: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which light signal in flow cytometry could be used to provide information about the expression of a protein on the outer surface of a cell membrane?
A) Forward-angle light scatter
B) Red light emitted by phycoerythrin
C) Polarized light
D) Right-angle light scatter
Q2) What is meant by "gating" in flow cytometry?
A) The chromatic arrangement of cellular populations
B) The process by which one cell population adheres to another population
C) An electronic window separating subpopulations of cells
D) An electronic device measuring all populations of cells
Q3) Hydrodynamic focusing in flow cytometry refers to the:
A) diameter of the laser beam.
B) refractive properties of the assay buffer.
C) orientation of the photomultiplier tubes.
D) alignment of the cells flowing past the laser beam.
Q4) In flow cytometry,forward scatter provides a measure of:
A) cell size.
B) cell granularity.
C) membrane receptor expression.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Hypersensitivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypersensitivities to poison ivy and nickel are:
A) mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies.
B) immunodeficiency diseases.
C) IgE responses to a hapten.
D) macrophage and T-cell responses to a hapten.
Q2) To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts,the best test to perform is:
A) allergen-specific IgE.
B) total serum IgE.
C) serum protein electrophoresis.
D) RID to measure IgG.
Q3) A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by the presence of IgG that reacts with soluble antigen best describes:
A) type III hypersensitivity.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) type II hypersensitivity.
D) asthma.
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Chapter 15: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluorescent antinuclear antibody test for lupus is an example of which of the following?
A) Competitive immunoassay
B) Immunofixation
C) Indirect fluorescence testing
D) Direct fluorescence testing
Q2) A perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (p-ANCA)staining pattern consists of:
A) diffuse, granular staining at the outer edges of the cell cytoplasm.
B) a continuous fluorescent ring (rim) in the cytoplasm, close to the plasma membrane.
C) fluorescence surrounding the lobes of the nuclei.
D) dense staining of neutrophilic granules.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a systemic autoimmune disease?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Graves disease
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
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17
Chapter 16: Transplantation Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a patient who is exhibiting signs of graft-versus-host disease,which cell type is most likely responsible for the reaction?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Macrophages
D) Eosinophils
Q2) The type of allograft rejection associated with fibrosis and scarring of vessel lumens is:
A) a hyperacute rejection.
B) an acute antibody-mediated rejection.
C) an acute cellular rejection.
D) a chronic rejection.
Q3) In direct allorecognition,the recipient T cells bind and respond directly to foreign HLA proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has a history of ovarian cancer in her family goes to her physician for a "cancer test." What is the test that is most likely to be positive if the woman has ovarian cancer?
A) Carcinoembryonic antigen
B) Alpha-fetoprotein
C) Cancer antigen 125
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q2) An example of a tumor-specific antigen is the BCR/ABL protein for chronic myelogenous leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that has a positive influence on cell proliferation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tumor-associated antigens are expressed only in tumor cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic in the identification of lymphoma of B-cell origin?
A) Surface immunoglobulins
B) Cell-surface proteins CD19 and CD20
C) Rearrangement of immunoglobulin genes
D) Presence of CD14 and CD15
Q2) A patient's immunofixation electrophoresis shows excessive amounts of free monoclonal light chains.These light chains are referred to as:
A) Bence Jones proteins.
B) precipitated immunoglobulin A
C) albumin.
D) alpha-1 antitrypsin.
Q3) Which marker is highly specific for hairy-cell leukemia?
A) CD19
B) CD20
C) CD25
D) CD103
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Chapter 19: Immunodeficiency Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-month-old infant is seen by a physician because of a persistent skin infection.His white and red blood cell counts are normal.However,immunofixation electrophoresis indicates a low level of IgG.When the infant returns to the physician for a follow-up visit in a month,his IgG level has increased.What condition do these results indicate?
A) Severe combined immunodeficiency
B) Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Common variable immunodeficiency
D) DiGeorge anomaly
Q2) An inflammatory syndrome involving recurrent fevers is
A) ataxia telangiectasia.
B) Wiskott-Aldrich.
C) autoimmune lymphoproliferative.
D) hyper IgD.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes common variable immunodeficiency?
A) Symptoms appear in infancy.
B) It is inherited as an X-linked recessive.
C) It is invariably fatal for the patient.
D) There is a deficiency of IgA, IgG, or both.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Serological and Molecular Detection of Bacterial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stevens-Johnson syndrome,in which the top layer of the skin dies and sheds,is caused by:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C) Rickettsia rickettsii.
D) Helicobacter pylori.
Q2) Antibodies against streptolysin O,hyaluronidase,and DNase B are measured in the diagnosis of which disease?
A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Acute rheumatic fever
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q3) Obligate intracellular,gram-negative bacteria best describes:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Helicobacter pylori.
C) Rickettsia prowazekii.
D) Mycoplasma pneumonia.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Spirochete Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syphilis is spread by:
A) rodent vectors.
B) insect vectors.
C) sexual transmission.
D) aerosolized respiratory droplets.
Q2) In areas endemic for Lyme disease:
A) residents (especially children) should be screened by EIA.
B) EIA screening is effective only for adults.
C) the only acceptable screening method is IFA.
D) no one should be screened unless they exhibit clinical signs and symptoms.
Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a biological false-positive in the nontreponemal assays for syphilis?
A) Prozone
B) Reagents too cold
C) Sera dried on card
D) Autoimmune disease
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Chapter 22: Serological and Molecular Diagnosis of Parasitic
and Fungal
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes antigenic variation of a parasite?
A) Parasites can change their antigens or create novel antigens.
B) Parasites do not have any surface antigens.
C) Parasites are ingested by macrophages, and antigens are denatured.
D) Parasites have similar host antigens.
Q2) An example of a fungal organism that commonly causes systemic infections is:
A) Malassezia furfur.
B) Trichophyton species.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) Candida albicans.
Q3) What approach can be used to decrease the chance of a false-positive result when performing latex agglutination to identify Cryptococcus infections?
A) Mixing the specimen with India ink
B) Pretreating the specimen with heat and pronase
C) Freezing the specimen
D) Waiting for the patient to be symptomatic before testing
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Chapter 23: Serology and Molecular Detection of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 17-year-old female with suspected mononucleosis tested negative for heterophile antibody using the slide agglutination monotest.Her serum was sent to a reference laboratory,and the following results were obtained: negative for IgM anti-VCA,positive for antibody to EA-D.What do these results suggest?
A) She does not have mononucleosis.
B) She is a healthy carrier of the virus.
C) Mononucleosis has been reactivated.
D) She is in the early stages of the disease.
Q2) A positive rubella titer in a healthy,nonpregnant 22-year-old female most likely indicates which of the following?
A) Immunity after administration of the vaccine
B) Current presence of the disease
C) No immunity
D) Possibility of congenital rubella
Q3) The most common cause of congenital infections is:
A) cytomegalovirus.
B)rubella.
C) varicella-zoster virus.
D) human T-cell lymphotropic virus type I
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Laboratory Diagnosis of HIV Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following peripheral blood measurements is used to determine the stage of HIV infection?
A) The number of CD4 T cells
B) The number of CD8 T cells
C) The number of HIV RNA copies
D) The HIV antibody titer
Q2) When HIV replicates,the DNA in the viral genome is transcribed into RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Histoplasmosis (disseminated or extrapulmonary)is an opportunistic infection of stage 3 HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) p66
A) Component of reverse transcriptase enzyme
B) Transmembrane protein
C) Envelope protein that binds to CD4 on T cells
D) Core coat for nucleic acids
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Chapter 25: Immunization and Vaccines
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Q1) Recombinant protein vaccine
A) Vaccine produced by incorporating a gene from a pathogenic microorganism into the genome of nonpathogenic bacteria, yeast, or other cells
B) Vaccine in which intact, killed viruses or bacteria retain antigenic properties to induce a predominantly humoral immune response
C) The use of bacteria or viruses that have been weakened
D) Chemically inactivated bacterial exotoxins that induce the production of antibodies
Q2) Attenuation
A) Vaccine produced by incorporating a gene from a pathogenic microorganism into the genome of nonpathogenic bacteria, yeast, or other cells
B) Vaccine in which intact, killed viruses or bacteria retain antigenic properties to induce a predominantly humoral immune response
C) The use of bacteria or viruses that have been weakened
D) Chemically inactivated bacterial exotoxins that induce the production of antibodies
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