Medical Technology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is a dynamic field that integrates laboratory science, clinical practice, and advanced technology to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. This course covers foundational concepts in biomedical sciences, diagnostic laboratory techniques, medical instrumentation, and quality control, emphasizing the crucial role of medical technologists in modern healthcare. Students will gain hands-on experience with cutting-edge laboratory equipment and develop analytical, problem-solving, and communication skills necessary for effective collaboration in clinical settings. The course prepares graduates to perform critical laboratory tests, interpret results, and contribute to evidence-based patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices 4th Edition by Paula R.
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16 Chapters
461 Verified Questions
461 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/896 Page 2
Chapter 1: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood
Industry and Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17670
Sample Questions
Q1) The standard operating procedure is a document that:
A) helps achieve consistency of results.
B) may be substituted with package inserts.
C) is necessary only for training new employees.
D) must be very detailed to be accurate.
Answer: A
Q2) The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing unsoiled gloves between donors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are:
A) current good manufacturing practices.
B) standard operating procedures.
C) change control plan.
D) continuous quality improvement plan.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications
in the Blood Bank
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17671
Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype?
A) Light chain
B) Heavy chain
C) Kappa chain
D) Lambda chain
Answer: B
Q2) What process is described by opsonization?
A) Lysis of cells
B) Binding to cells or antigens
C) Ingestion of cells
D) Phagocytosis
Answer: B
Q3) Associated with intravascular cell destruction
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgE
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17672
Sample Questions
Q1) Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A)Indirect antiglobulin test
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following red cell antigens do proteolytic enzymes destroy?
A) Rh system antigens
B) Antigens Fy and Fy in the Duffy system
C) Antigens in the Kidd system
D) Lewis system antigens
Answer: B
Q3) Why is polyethylene glycol reagent added to the screen or panel?
A) Enhance detection of IgM antibodies.
B) Eliminate the reactivity of certain antigens.
C) Increase the avidity of IgG antibodies.
D) Eliminate the need for washing in the indirect antiglobulin test.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17673
Sample Questions
Q1) Amplified target sequences of DNA produced by polymerase chain reaction
A)Primer
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)Hybridization
D)Probe
E)Amplicon DNA sequence
Q2) In a random population,16% of the population is homozygous for a particular trait.What percentage of the same population is heterozygous for that particular trait?
A) 32%
B) 64%
C) 48%
D) 84%
Q3) Technique used to replicate a specific DNA sequences
A)Primer
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)Hybridization
D)Probe
E)Amplicon DNA sequence
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Chapter 5: ABO and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17674
Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of the group A population are type as A ?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 35%
Q2) Predict the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype when combined with anti-H lectin.
A) Strong 4+
B) Mixed field
C) Weak 1+
D) Negative
Q3) What is the test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A and B reagent red cells?
A) ABO forward grouping
B) ABO reverse grouping
C) Antibody screen
D) Antibody panel
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Rh Blood Group System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17675
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the immunoglobulin class of most Rh system antibodies?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q2) Which of the following is associated with the Rhn ll phenotype?
A) Membrane abnormalities
B) Immunized Rhnull individuals may produce anti-Rh29
C) Mutation of the RhAG regulator gene
D) All of the above
Q3) If a D-positive person appears to have anti-D in their serum,what is the most likely explanation?
A) D-deletion phenotype
B) Compound antigen
C) Partial D antigen
D) Transposition effect
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Chapter 7: Other Red Cell Blood Group Systems, Human
Leukocyte Antigens, and Platelet Antigens
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) System associated with resistance to malaria
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Vel
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido/Rodgers
H)Kell
I)Duffy
Q2) Antibodies to Kidd,Kell,and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except:
A) can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test.
C) enhanced with enzyme treatment.
D) can cause transfusion reactions.
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Chapter 8: Antibody Detection and Identification
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17677
Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-Fy was identified in a patient's serum.The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fy(a+)using commercial antisera.What is the next step?
A) Repeat the panel to confirm the antibody.
B) Report the antibody because this result is normal.
C) Investigate a recent transfusion history.
D) Wash the cells and use monoclonal anti-Fy antibodies.
Q2) Anti-D,anti-K,and anti-Jk are the antibodies that are tentatively identified on a panel after initially ruling out on negative cells.What selected cell from another panel should be chosen to confirm the presence of anti-K?
A) K-, D+, Jk(a+)
B) K+, D+, Jk(a+)
C) K+, D-, Jk(a+)
D) K+, D-, Jk(a-)
Q3) An autoadsorption may be performed to investigate underlying autoantibodies.When is this procedure acceptable?
A) When the autoantibody is reactive at 4° C
B) When the patient has not been recently transfused
C) Only if complement is coating the red cells
D) When the eluate is negative
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following blood products requires a crossmatch before issuing?
A) Group AB fresh frozen plasma that is transfused to a group O
B) Human leukocyte antigen-matched platelets
C) Cryoprecipitated AHF
D) Granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 mL of red blood cells
Q2) How long following transfusion must the recipient's sample be stored?
A) 5 days
B) 7 days
C) 10 days
D) 14 days
Q3) When type O blood is not available for transfusion for a type O recipient,what is the next alternative?
A) Group A red blood cells
B) Group AB red blood cells
C) Washed group B red blood cells
D) None
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11
Chapter 10: Blood Bank Automation for Transfusion Services
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a negative reaction in the MTS Gel Test look like in the gel card?
A) pellet of cells at the bottom of the column.
B) layer of cells at the top of the column.
C) cells evenly distributed throughout the column.
D) cells distributed only in the bottom half of the column.
Q2) A smooth layer of cells in the bottom of the well is interpreted as a/an ____________ reaction when the solid-phase red cell adherence method is completed for the antiglobulin test:
A) positive
B) negative
C) indeterminate
D) mixed field
Q3) Random access is an important feature in selecting an automated instrument for testing in the transfusion service.What is random access?
A) Ability of multiple users to sign into the system
B) The recognition of various types of barcodes
C) The need for minimal maintenance procedures
D) The ability to accommodate STAT testing
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Chapter 11: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17680
Sample Questions
Q1) In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction,what is a typical DAT result?
A) Negative
B) Positive due to C3
C) Mixed field positive
D) Very strongly positive
Q2) Graft-versus-host disease
A)Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
Q3) What antibodies cause an anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) All of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17681
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the most common antibody specificity associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
A) Anti-A,B
B) Anti-C
C) Anti-D
D) Anti-K
Q2) Which elution method is ideal in the investigation of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A) Glycine-acid
B) Lui freeze-thaw
C) Xylene
D) Chloroform
Q3) A weakly reactive anti-D was detected in a sample from a D-negative mother one day following delivery of a D-negative baby.Based on these results,what is the next step?
A) Titer the anti-D
B) Perform a rosette test
C) Review records for prenatal RhIG administration
D) Administer RhIG
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14
Chapter 13: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17682
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential female allogeneic donor?
A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL
Q2) Below are the results of the medical screening for a prospective female donor:
Age: 16
Hematocrit: 35%
Temperature: 37.2° C
Hemoglobin: 12.0 g/dL
History: HPV immunization,1 week ago
How many of the above results would exclude this donor from donating?
A) None, she is acceptable.
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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Chapter 14: Testing of Donor Blood
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17683
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common mode of transmission for hepatitis C virus?
A) Contaminated food and water
B) Transfusion
C) Sexual transmission
D) Intravenous drug use
Q2) Which of the following diseases relies on obtaining a thorough donor history to reduce potential transmission in blood donors?
A) Syphilis
B) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Malaria
Q3) Some donor centers have implemented the practice of diverting the first few milliliters of blood collected into a pouch attached to the collection bag.What is the purpose of this procedure?
A) Reduce leukocyte contamination
B) Prepare pedipacks for neonates
C) Avoid bacterial contamination
D) Collect blood for viral testing
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Chapter 15: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17684
Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature of a RBC unit shipment from the local blood center was recorded as 8° C upon arrival at the hospital.What is the correct course of action?
A) Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable.
B) Quarantine the units until approved by the supervisor.
C) Send the units back to the blood center.
D) Have the units tested for bacterial contamination before release.
Q2) What patient population needs leukocyte-reduced red blood cells?
A) Patients with febrile transfusion reactions
B) Patients with iron deficiency anemia
C) Patients with hemophilia A
D) Patients with cancer undergoing chemotherapy treatments
Q3) Plasma,cryoprecipitate reduced,thawed
A)20° to 24° C, 4 hours
B)1° to 6° C, 24 hours
C)20° to 24° C, 6 hours
D)< -18° C, 1 year from collection
E)1° to 6° C, up to 5 days
F)< -65° C, 7 years
G)20° to 24° C, 48 hours
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17685
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient,group AB,D-positive,has a bleeding aortic aneurysm.A massive transfusion is undertaken for lifesaving measures.What ABO phenotype is recommended for transfusion to this patient?
A) Group A
B) Group B
C) Group O
D) Group AB
Q2) Which of the following situations contributes to red blood cell loss in chronic renal disease?
A) Below normal erythropoietin levels
B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis
C) Elevated uremia
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following contributes to the high blood usage in a liver transplant surgery?
A) The liver is a very large organ.
B) It is difficult to find close human leukocyte antigen matches for liver transplants.
C) Platelets are stored in the liver.
D) The liver produces the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.
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Page 18