Medical Technology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Medical Technology is an interdisciplinary field that integrates biology, chemistry, physics, and engineering principles to develop and apply advanced diagnostic, therapeutic, and monitoring tools in healthcare. This course covers topics such as laboratory instrumentation, clinical chemistry, hematology, immunology, medical imaging, and the use of information technology in medicine. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of laboratory procedures, quality control, and safety practices, as well as the ethical and regulatory aspects of medical technology. The course prepares students for roles in clinical laboratories, research settings, and the biotech industry, emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills essential for supporting accurate diagnosis and effective patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
1596 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reactive lymphocytes are present in the evaluation of certain diseases such as:
A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Cancer
C) Bacterial infections
D) Tumors
E) Anemias
Answer: A
Q2) The stage in granulocyte maturation where the nucleus appears kidney shaped is evident in what cell?
A) Promyelocyte
B) Band neutrophil
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EDTA chelation method is used for iron studies in bone biopsy. What purpose does it serve?
A) Binds hemosiderin
B) Binds magnesium
C) Binds calcium
D) Binds ferritin
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) In adults, fat cells average about what percentage of the total volume in the vertebrae and flat bones of the pelvis?
A) 20%
B) 80%
C) 50%
D) 10%
E) 90%
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dissociation and binding of oxygen by hemoglobin is not directly proportional to the pO<sub>2</sub> of its environment but instead exhibits a sigmoid-curve relationship termed:
A) The Embden-Meyerhof pathway
B) The phosphogluconate pathway
C) The hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve
D) The Luebering-Rapaport pathway
E) None of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Circulating methemalbumin gives the plasma or blood what color?
A) Purple
B) Red
C) Brown
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the MCH based on the following parameters: hemoglobin = 12 g/dL, RBC count = 4.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/ L:
A) 30 pg
B) 24 pg
C) 27 pg
D) 32 pg
E) None of the above
Q2) A patient's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL. What would you expect the hematocrit to be?
A) 36%
B) 33%
C) 42%
D) 39%
E) None of the above
Q3) Which physical symptoms may relate to moderate anemia?
A) Fatigue
B) Dyspnea on exertion
C) Muscle weakness
D) Increased heart rate
E) All of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What might cause a microcytosis?
A) Decreased globin synthesis
B) Decreased hemoglobin synthesis
C) Ineffective iron utilization
D) Deficiency of iron
E) All of the above
Q2) A 4+ grading for anisocytosis would indicate what percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) would differ from the normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
Q3) What hematologic condition is associated with the appearance of Heinz bodies?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
C) Liver disease
D) Aplastic anemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders represent(s) a problem in forming the RBC hemoglobin molecule, resulting in a microcytic hypochromic anemia?
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Sideroblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Approximately what percent of ingested iron is absorbed?
A) 1%
B) 5-10%
C) 25-50%
D) 90%
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following characterize(s) the microcytic hypochromic sideroblastic anemia?
A) Increased ringed sideroblasts
B) Increased serum ferritin
C) Dimorphic blood picture
D) Basophilic stippling
E) All of the above
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a cause of vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficiency?<sub>
</sub>
A) Gastrectomy
B) Blind loop syndrome
C) Blood loss
D) Fish tapeworm (Diphyllobothrium latum)
E) Diseases of the ileum
Q2) What statement is true regarding pancytopenia?
A) Decreased RBC
B) Decreased white blood cells (WBCs)
C) Decreased platelets
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following can lead to a folic acid deficiency?
A) Malabsorption
B) Poor diet
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 9
Chapter
Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the major complications of PNH is:
A) Iron overload
B) Venous thrombosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Hepatomegaly
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the function of decay-accelerating factor (DAF) as a complement protein?
A) Accelerates the spontaneous decay of C5-convertase
B) Accelerates the spontaneous decay of C3-convertase
C) Slows the spontaneous decay of C5-convertase
D) Slows the spontaneous decay of C3-convertase
E) None of the above
Q3) The presentation of hemoglobinuria in a PNH patient is due to:
A) Intravascular hemolysis
B) Extravascular hemolysis
C) Biphasic hemolysis
D) Immune hemolysis
E) None of the above
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the autohemolysis test measure?
A) Surface-to-volume ratio of the RBC
B) Structural and metabolic integrity of RBC membrane
C) Amount of RBC membrane spectrin
D) RBC metabolic pathways
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following characterizes hereditary spherocytosis (HS)?
A) Decreased surface-to-volume ratio
B) Increased MCHC
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Spherocytes on the peripheral smear
E) All of the above
Q3) The majority of hereditary RBC membrane defects are inherited by what pattern?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex-linked
D) Codominant
E) None of the above
11
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of PK deficiency?
A) The severity of the hemolytic anemia varies widely
B) Varying degrees of polychromasia and poikilocytosis may be found on the peripheral smear and nucleated red cells may be seen
C) Clinical manifestations commonly found include splenomegaly and cholelithiasis
D) Onset may be during infancy or early childhood and mild cases may not be detected until adulthood
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents the pattern of inheritance of G6PD deficiency?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked
D) Any of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Occasionally transfusions may be required in which type of G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of a hemolytic crisis in a sickle cell anemia patient?
A) Decrease in hemoglobin
B) Decrease in hematocrit
C) Increase in reticulocyte count
D) Jaundice
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents causes of methemoglobinemia?
A) Hemoglobin M variants
B) NADH-diaphorase deficiency
C) Toxic substance
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following represents major categories of hemoglobinopathies?
A) Aggregating hemoglobins
B) Unbalanced synthesis of hemoglobin
C) Unstable hemoglobin
D) Hemoglobins with abnormal heme function
E) All of the above
13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv
Thalassemia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following comprise the clinical categories of alpha thalassemia except:
A) Bart's hydrops fetalis syndrome
B) Hemoglobin H disease
C) Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
D) Alpha thalassemia 1
E) Alpha thalassemia 2
Q2) A 13-year-old boy presents with the following hematologic results: RBC = 5.76 million, Hb, 10.4 g/dL; Hct, 35.9%; MCV (mean corpuscular volume), 63 fL: MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin), 18.2 pg; MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration), 29%; and RDW (red blood cell distribution width), 13.5. Morphology includes mild anisocytosis and occasional target cells. All iron studies are normal. Electrophoresis on cellulose acetate at pH 8.4 indicates an increase in HbF and HbA<sub>2</sub>. What thalassemia syndrome is evident?
A) -thalassemia
B) -thalassemia
C) Hemoglobin E disease
D) Sideroblastic anemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the case of partial phagocytosis, the red cell membrane reforms to form what type of red cell?
A) Target cell
B) Spherocyte
C) Schistocyte
D) Macrocyte
E) Drepanocyte
Q2) Which of the following clinical features suggests a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction has occurred?
A) Mild fever
B) Mild jaundice
C) Unexpected fall in hemoglobin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following are classifications of immune hemolytic anemias?
A) Alloimmune
B) Autoimmune
C) Drug-induced
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of anemia of inflammation?
A) Decreased red blood cell life span
B) Impaired iron metabolism
C) Decreased erythropoiesis levels
D) Suppression of erythropoiesis
E) All of the above
Q2) The term that best describes bone marrow infiltration by malignant tumors is:
A) Myelofibrosis
B) Myelodysplasia
C) Myelophthisic
D) Myeloproliferative
E) Hyperproliferative
Q3) Most HIV-infected patients develop __________.
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Leukocytosis
C) Pancytopenia
D) Macrocytosis
E) Erythrocytosis
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A white blood cell count (WBC) found in the blood of a healthy adult is:
A) 5-10 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 1.5-7.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 1-5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 3-5 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) 12- 14 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q2) Which of the following features are seen in reactive lymphocytes?
A) Low N:C ratio
B) Blue cytoplasm
C) Indented cytoplasmic borders
D) All of the above
Q3) The classic response to infectious and inflammatory processes is an increase in the _____________ number of __________________.
A) Absolute, neutrophils
B) Absolute, myeloblasts
C) Relative, reticulocytes
D) Absolute, lymphocytes
E) Relative, lymphocytes
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cases of pure __________ ALL have the best prognosis.
A) L1
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
E) None of the above
Q2) Cell morphology is evaluated on a Romanowsky (Wright-Giemsa)-stained blood or bone marrow smear in a carefully chosen area in which cells are:
A) Overcrowded
B) Distorted
C) Swelled
D) Evenly distributed
E) None of the above
Q3) A positive nonspecific esterase stain indicates __________ differentiation.
A) Megakaryocytoid
B) Monocytic
C) Lymphoid
D) Plasmacytoid
E) Erythrocytic
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the M/E ratio in patients with CML?
A) 1:10
B) 1:5
C) 10:1
D) 3-4:1
E) 4:1
Q2) What is the chromosomal abnormality in CML?
A) t(8;14)
B) t(9;22)
C) t(1;12)
D) Trisomy 12
E) t(15;17)
Q3) Philadelphia chromosome is present in __________ percent of patients with typical leukemia cells.
A) 90-95%
B) 40-50%
C) 40-60%
D) 30-40%
E) 65-75%
Page 19
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Chapter
Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons living in high altitudes may present with what clinical features due to tissue hypoxia?
A) Increased hematocrit
B) Ruddy cyanosis
C) Normocytic/normochromic erythrocytosis
D) Increased reticulocytes
E) All of the above
Q2) In the hypercellular (prefibrotic) phase of chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), the bone marrow displays panhyperplasia with a predominance of __________.
A) Megakaryocytes
B) Granulocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) A and B are correct
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most current system used for scoring MDS?
A) FAB score
B) International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)
C) Sanz
D) Bournemouth
E) None of the above
Q2) Which MDS classification has the worst prognosis?
A) Refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation (RAEB-T)
B) Refractory anemia (RA)
C) Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)
D) Refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB)
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the MDS subtypes is more closely related to the chronic myeloproliferative disorders?
A) RAEB
B) CMML with WBC > 13 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) CMML with WBC < 13 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) RARS
E) None of the above
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by monoclonality?
A) Presence of kappa and lambda chains
B) Presence of either kappa or lambda light chains
C) Absence of kappa and lambda light chains
D) Presence of epsilon chain
E) None of the above
Q2) The laboratory test for detecting minimal residual disease in patients who have previously been treated for CLL but currently lack histopathologic evidence of relapse is the:
A) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B) Complete blood count (CBC) and differential
C) Electrophoresis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the classification of anemia in CLL?
A) Macrocytic/hyperchromic
B) Normocytic/normochromic
C) Microcytic/hypochromic
D) Microcytic/normochromic
E) None of the above
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which infectious agent is most commonly associated with the pathogenesis of Hodgkin's disease?
A) Echo virus
B) Herpes virus
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) Picornavirus
Q2) A lymphoma associated with infection by a type C retrovirus is:
A) Endemic to Japan
B) Associated with hypercalcemia
C) Usually rapidly fatal
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) A lymphoma expressing a monoclonal B-cell phenotype with coexpression of CD10 and rearrangement of the bcl-2 gene is most likely derived from:
A) Follicular center cells
B) Mantle cells
C) Marginal zone cells
D) Interfollicular cells
E) None of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 63-year-old black man presents with an elevated ESR, 10-30% plasma cells in the bone marrow, M-spike by SPEP, and 4.0 g/dL of serum IgG by radial diffusion. Which plasma cell disorder is implicated?
A) Solitary plasmacytoma
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
D) Alpha heavy chain disease
E) Gamma heavy chain disease
Q2) Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) demonstrates the absence of a gamma peak. This finding is consistent with which plasma cell disorder?
A) IgG myeloma with M-spike
B) Hypergammaglobulinemia
C) Hypogammaglobulinemia
D) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
E) None of the above
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What substance is present in excess in Gaucher cells?
A) Metabolized glucocerebroside
B) Unmetabolized glucocerebroside
C) Metabolized hexosaminidase
D) Unmetabolized hexosaminidase
E) None of the above
Q2) Niemann-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency of __________.
A) Sulfaminidase
B) -Glucuronidase
C) -Glucocerebrosidase
D) Sphingomyelinase
E) Hexosaminidase A
Q3) Histiocytes produced in sea-blue histiocyte syndrome will stain positive with all the following except:
A) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
B) Toluidine blue
C) Sudan Black B
D) Acid fast
E) None of the above
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood coagulation leading to fibrin formation is separated into the __________ and __________ pathways.
A) Intracorpuscular/extracorpuscular
B) Intramedullary/extramedullary
C) Intravascular/extravascular
D) Extrinsic/intrinsic
E) None of the above
Q2) Early fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs) consist of:
A) D and E fragments
B) D and Y fragments
C) X monomer and Y fragments
D) X monomer and D fragments
E) X monomer and E fragments
Q3) Which event activates the common pathway?
A) Activation of factor X by factor VIIa, factor III, and calcium
B) Activation of factor X by IXa, factor VIII, calcium, and PF3
C) Activation of factor XII to XIIa
D) A and C
E) A and B
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prolonged bleeding time and abnormal platelet adhesion seen in vWD is due to the lack of __________.
A) Glycoprotein Ib
B) vWD
C) Glycoprotein IIb
D) Protein 4.1
E) None of the above
Q2) The platelet count is a routine screening test used to detect __________ changes such as thrombocytosis and thrombocytopenia.
A) Qualitative
B) Quantitative
C) Phagocytic
D) Glomerular
E) None of the above
Q3) Endothelial cells and __________ are known to synthesize vWF.
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Megakaryocytes
D) Erythrocytes
E) None of the above
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor of the contact system, if deficient, may lead to a bleeding condition?
A) Fitzgerald factor (high-molecular-weight kininogen)
B) Fletcher factor (prekallikrein)
C) Hageman factor (factor XII)
D) Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (factor XI)
E) None of the above
Q2) In the laboratory assessment of hemophilia B, the one-stage APTT factor assay for factor IX is __________.
A) Increased
B) Normal
C) Decreased
D) Variable
E) None of the above
Q3) Which laboratory test is abnormal in afibrinogenemia?
A) TT
B) PT
C) APTT
D) Reptilase time
E) All of the above
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Page 28
Chapter
27: Interaction of the Fibrinolytic, Coagulation,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) DIC associated with conditions activated by factor X include which of the following?
A) Acute pancreatitis
B) Snake venom
C) Liver disease
D) Fat emboli syndrome
E) All of the above
Q2) The secondary action of the fibrinolytic system in DIC involves the action of __________ on fibrin/fibrinogen.
A) Thrombin
B) Prothrombin
C) Plasmin
D) Plasminogen
E) None of the above
Q3) What is meant by primary fibrinolysis?
A) Thrombin is formed without coagulation taking place.
B) Plasmin is formed without coagulation taking place.
C) Formation of plasmin with evidence of coagulation
D) Formation of thrombin with evidence of coagulation
E) None of the above
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is thrombogenesis greatly accelerated by the presence of platelets?
A) The phospholipid platelet membrane offers support for the surface-dependent activation process of coagulation.
B) Thrombin can stimulate the platelet release reaction.
C) Alpha granules contain, among other things, fibrinogen, factor V, and von Willebrand's factor (vWF)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT among the standard criteria for aPL syndrome?
A) Arterial thrombosis
B) Venous thrombosis
C) The patient must have systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Certain patterns of pregnancy loss
E) LA or medium to high aCL titer on at least two occasions at least 6 weeks apart
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not considered a postanalytical factor?
A) Entering patient's results into the computer
B) Calculating patient's results
C) Transporting the specimen to the laboratory
D) Notifying physician of patient's results
Q2) Which quality approach requires performance to be measured against another world-class company?
A) Root cause analysis
B) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
Q3) Which Westgard rule refers to one data point exceeding the ±3 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
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Chapter
Serous,
Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of crystal suggests that a significant hemarthrosis has occurred?
A) Hematoidin
B) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
C) Calcium oxalate
D) Basic calcium phosphate
E) Cholesterol
Q2) Which of the following is not true of cytocentrifugation?
A) Cell differentiation is determined by Wright-Giemsa staining
B) A good cell recovery is possible.
C) Malignant cells are difficult to identify with this type of preparation.
D) The cytocentrifuge slide becomes a permanent record.
Q3) A technologist is performing a total cell count on a pleural fluid. He prepares the undiluted fluid on a hemacytometer. An average of 251 cells was seen in the entire ruled area on each side of the hemacytometer. Calculate the total cell count.
A) 279 cells/µL
B) 628 cells/µL
C) 12,550 cells/µL
D) 8264 cells/µL
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal hemoglobin value for an adult female is _______.
A) 14-18 g/dL
B) 12-16 g/dL
C) 17-23 g/dL
D) 10-12 g/dL
E) None of the above
Q2) Which blood collection apparatus accommodates a multisample draw?
A) Syringe
B) Butterfly
C) Evacuated tube system
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The normal RBC range for an adult male is ________.
A) 4.2-5.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
B) 4.4-5.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
C) 4.7-6.1 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
D) 3.8-5.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/L
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Q1) In the Coulter S Plus IV differential analysis of WBCs, those cells with volume ranging from 160 to 450 fL are classified as __________.
A) Lymphocytes
B) Granulocytes
C) Mononuclear cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The Coulter S Plus IV differential of granulocytes by cell volume consists of:
A) Metamyelocytes
B) Segmented neutrophils
C) Bands
D) Eosinophils
E) All of the above
Q3) What does "backlighting" refer to in the Coulter S Plus IV instrument?
A) Out-of-range results
B) The presence of abnormal cells or interferences
C) The possibility of erroneous or abnormal results
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Q1) In performing a one-stage quantitative assay method for factor II, results are obtained from an activity curve made from dilutions of normal reference plasma and factor __________ plasma.
A) II
B) II-deficient
C) V
D) V-deficient
E) None of the above
Q2) Fibrinogen can be quantitatively measured by a modification of the __________ because the latter clotting time of dilute plasma is inversely proportional to the concentration of fibrinogen.
A) PT
B) APTT
C) TT
D) Reptilase time
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In flow cytometry, forward-angle light scatter provides information relevant to cell
A) Shape
B) Size
C) Hemoglobin content
D) Iron content
Q2) The specimen of choice for analysis of cell function by flow cytometry is:
A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)-anticoagulated whole blood
B) Sodium heparinized whole blood
C) Thrombonized packed cells
D) Ficoll-treated packed cells
Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal result for lymphocyte subset percentage in adult donors?
A) CD3 (70%)
B) CD4 (42%)
C) CD8 (20%)
D) CD19 (60%)
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnostic procedures for analyzing DNA is the most accurate method for detecting gene rearrangements in lymphoid leukemias and lymphomas?
A) Southern blot analysis
B) Northern blot analysis
C) Western blot analysis
D) Eastern blot analysis
E) None of the above
Q2) In complementary nucleotide pairing, an adenine can bind only with __________________ and guanine can bind only with _________.
A) Cytosine, thymine
B) Thymine, cytosine
C) Guanine, adenine
D) Glucine, thymine
Q3) Which of the following is/are clinical applications of PCR?
A) Detect foreign nucleic acid characteristic of infectious diseases
B) Detect DNA that has a particular cancer-associated defect
C) Detect minimal residual disease
D) Detect clonal immunoglobulin or T-cell receptor gene rearrangement
E) All of the above
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ percent of patients in CML blast crisis exhibit positive TdT activity.
A) 50
B) 5
C) 20
D) 30
E) Zero
Q2) Isoenzyme 5, the acid phosphatase fraction found in hairy cell leukemia, is __________ to the addition of tartaric acid.
A) Sensitive
B) Resistant
C) Variable
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) An LAP classification score of 2 corresponds to what morphology?
A) Colorless
B) Diffuse, slight positivity or occasional granules
C) Diffuse positivity and moderate number of granules
D) Strong positive (granules fill cell)
E) Very deep staining, nucleus almost obscured
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Page 38