Medical-Surgical Nursing Textbook Exam Questions - 1446 Verified Questions

Medical-Surgical Nursing

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that equips students with the knowledge and skills necessary to care for adult patients experiencing a wide variety of medical and surgical conditions. The course emphasizes the assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing interventions for patients with acute and chronic illnesses across different body systems. Students learn to integrate evidence-based practice, critical thinking, and clinical reasoning to ensure safe, patient-centered care. Core topics include perioperative nursing, fluid and electrolyte balance, pain management, infection control, wound care, and the management of common disorders affecting respiratory, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and neurological systems. The course also highlights the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration and culturally competent care in promoting recovery and well-being.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum

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110 Chapters

1446 Verified Questions

1446 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before administering a medication,what does the nurse need to know to evaluate how individual patient variability might affect the patient's response to the medication? (Select all that apply.)

A) Chemical stability of the medication

B) Ease of administration

C) Family medical history

D) Patient's age

E) Patient's diagnosis

Answer: C,D,E

Q2) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postoperative patient has orders for morphine sulfate 1 to 2 mg IV every 1 hour PRN for severe pain and acetaminophen-hydrocodone [Lortab] 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours

PRN for moderate pain. The patient reports pain at a level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10,with 10 being the worst pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 hours.

B) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 6 hours and change to every 4 hours if not effective.

C) Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 1 hour until pain subsides.

D) Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV and evaluate the patient's pain in 15 to 30 minutes.

Answer: D

Q2) A patient tells a nurse that a medication prescribed for recurrent migraine headaches is not working. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about the number and frequency of tablets taken.

B) Assess the patient's headache pain on a scale from 1 to 10.

C) Report the patient's complaint to the prescriber.

D) Suggest biofeedback as an adjunct to drug therapy.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA)was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety?

A) Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses

B) Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use

C) Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly

D) Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market

Answer: B

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer penicillin G intramuscularly to a child. The child's parents ask why the drug cannot be given in an oral liquid form. What is the nurse's reply?

A) "This drug causes severe gastric upset if given orally."

B) "This drug has a narrow therapeutic range, and the dose must be tightly controlled."

C) "This drug is absorbed much too quickly in an oral form."

D) "This drug would be inactivated by enzymes in the stomach."

Q2) A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:

A) excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.

B) reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.

C) recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.

D) transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.

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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth

B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms

D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body

E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain

Q2) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.

B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.

C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The prescriber has ordered an antibiotic for a patient with a bacterial infection. The nurse provides patient education at discharge and instructs the patient to take the drug on an empty stomach. When should the patient take the drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) 1 hour or more before a meal

B) Only after an 8-hour fast

C) Only after the patient has missed a meal

D) At least 2 hours after a meal

E) Shortly before a meal

Q2) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?

A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.

B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.

C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.

D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.

Q3) In a discussion of drug-drug interactions,which would be the best example of a beneficial inhibitory interaction?

A) Naloxone [Narcan] blocking morphine sulfate's actions

B) Antacids blocking the action of tetracycline [Sumycin]

C) Propanolol [Inderal] blocking the effects of albuterol

D) Cholestyramine blocking the actions of antihypertensive drugs

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients are at increased risk for adverse drug events? (Select all that apply.)

A) A 2-month-old infant taking a medication for gastroesophageal reflux disease

B) A 23-year-old female taking an antibiotic for the first time

C) A 40-year-old male who is intubated in the intensive care unit and taking antibiotics and cardiac medications

D) A 7-year-old female receiving insulin for diabetes

E) An 80-year-old male taking medications for COPD

Q2) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement?

A) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO

B) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO

C) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily

D) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily

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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?

A) Altered bioavailability of the drug

B) Patient compliance with the therapeutic regimen

C) Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals

D) Placebo effects enhancing expectations of drug efficacy

Q2) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:

A) drug receptor sites.

B) hypersensitivity potential.

C) metabolism of drugs.

D) psychosocial response.

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?

A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.

B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.

C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient and her newborn immediately after delivery. The patient's medication history includes prenatal vitamins throughout pregnancy,one or two glasses of wine before knowing she was pregnant,occasional use of an albuterol inhaler in her last trimester,and intravenous morphine during labor. What will the nurse expect to do?

A) Administer opioids to the infant to prevent withdrawal syndrome.

B) Monitor the infant's respirations and prepare to administer naloxone if needed.

C) Note a high-pitched cry and irritability in the infant and observe for seizures.

D) Prepare the patient for motor delays in the infant caused by the alcohol use.

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11

Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well."

B) "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it."

C) "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults."

D) "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."

Q2) An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The infant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What should the nurse tell them?

A) Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed as well in children.

B) Applying an antihistamine to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group.

C) The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results.

D) Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.

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12

Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital,along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?

A) Financial concerns

B) Inability to open drug containers

C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects

D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary

Q2) A thin older adult woman is admitted to the hospital after several days of vomiting,diarrhea,and poor intake of foods and fluids. She has not voided since admission. In preparing to care for this patient,the nurse will look for what laboratory values to help guide medication administration? (Select all that apply.)

A) Creatinine clearance

B) Gastric pH

C) Plasma drug levels

D) Serum albumin

E) Serum creatinine

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?

A) Bradycardia

B) Positive inotropic effects

C) Prolonged receptor activation

D) Tachycardia

Q2) A patient receiving botulinum toxin injections to control muscle spasticity asks how the drug works. The nurse knows that this drug affects the transmitter acetylcholine by:

A) inhibiting its release.

B) interfering with its storage.

C) preventing its reuptake.

D) promoting its synthesis.

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a medication that alters sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding,the nurse asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates. Which answer indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "The digestive functions of the body"

B) "The cardiovascular system"

C) "The fight-or-flight response"

D) "Body temperature"

Q2) What is the target organ when a beta₁agonist is administered?

A) heart

B) kidney

C) respiratory

D) liver

Q3) A nurse is explaining activation of beta₂ receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "Beta₂ activation results in bronchodilation."

B) "Beta₂ activation results in contraction of uterine muscle."

C) "Beta₂ activation results in glycogenolysis."

D) "Beta₂ activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."

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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?

A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV

B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]

C) An acetylcholinesterase activator

D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]

Q2) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?

A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."

B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."

C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."

D) "You will begin taking 5 mg three times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."

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16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The prescriber has ordered neostigmine [Prostigmin]. An important initial nursing action before administration of the medication includes assessing:

A) the ability to raise the eyelids.

B) level of fatigue.

C) skeletal muscle strength.

D) swallowing ability.

Q2) A nurse is helping a nursing student who is administering a medication to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "I will ask the patient to sip some water before giving the medication."

B) "I will let the patient sleep after giving the medication, because rest is important."

C) "I will record muscle strength assessments before and after I give the medication."

D) "I will report excessive salivation to the patient's prescriber."

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hepatitis requires endotracheal intubation. Which agent does the nurse expect to be administered to facilitate this procedure?

A) Atropine

B) Cisatracurium [Nimbex]

C) Rocuronium [Zemuron]

D) Vecuronium [Norcuron]

Q2) A patient who will undergo electroconvulsive therapy to treat severe depression will be given succinylcholine just prior to the procedure. When teaching the patient about the procedure the nurse will explain that the succinylcholine is given for what purpose?

A) To minimize the amount of electroshock treatment required

B) To prevent harm caused by electroshock-induced convulsions

C) To prolong the therapeutic electroshock-induced convulsions

D) To stop the electroshock-induced convulsions once therapeutic effects have occurred

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks why albuterol,which is selective for beta₂ receptors,causes an increased heart rate in some patients. How should the nurse respond?

A) "Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."

B) "Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia."

C) "Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects."

D) "Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."

Q2) A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment of shock. The prescriber orders isoproterenol [Isuprel]. The nurse expects this drug to increase tissue perfusion in this patient by activating:

A) alpha₁ receptors to cause vasoconstriction.

B) alpha₁ receptors to increase blood pressure.

C) beta₁ receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect.

D) beta₂receptors to cause bronchodilation.

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with pheochromocytoma is admitted for surgery. The surgeon has ordered an alpha-blocking agent to be given preoperatively. What does the nurse understand about this agent?

A) It is ordered to prevent perioperative hypertensive crisis.

B) It prevents secretion of catecholamines by the adrenal tumor.

C) It reduces contraction of smooth muscles in the adrenal medulla.

D) It is given chronically after the surgery to prevent hypertension.

Q2) The nurse is discussing home management with a patient who will begin taking an alpha-adrenergic antagonist for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I need to stop the medication if my heart rate increases."

B) "I should not drive while taking this medication."

C) "I should take the first dose at bedtime."

D) "I will stop taking the medication if I feel dizzy."

Q3) Which are adverse effects of alpha blockade? (Select all that apply.)

A) Hypertension

B) Reflex tachycardia

C) Nasal congestion

D) Ejaculation

E) Hypernatremia

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered methyldopa for a patient with hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about drug actions,adverse effects,and the ongoing blood tests necessary with this drug. The nurse is correct to tell the patient what?

A) "If you have a positive Coombs' test result, you will need to discontinue the medication, because this means you have hemolytic anemia."

B) "Methyldopa can be used for its analgesic effects and for its hypertensive effects."

C) "Xerostomia and orthostatic hypotension are serious side effects and indications for withdrawing the medication."

D) "You will need to contact the provider and stop taking the medication if your eyes look yellow."

Q2) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects

B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon

C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg

D) To change the patch every week

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21

Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier:

A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.

B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses.

C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system. D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."

B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."

C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."

D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."

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22

Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospitalized patient with Parkinson's disease who is receiving apomorphine to treat "off" episodes develops nausea and vomiting. The nurse will discuss the use of which medication with the patient's provider?

A) Levodopa [Dopar]

B) Ondansetron [Zofran]

C) Prochlorperazine [Compazine]

D) Trimethobenzamide [Tigan]

Q2) A 25-year-old patient has been newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease,and the prescriber is considering using pramipexole [Mirapex]. Before beginning therapy with this drug,the nurse will ask the patient about:

A) any history of alcohol abuse or compulsive behaviors.

B) any previous history of hypertension.

C) difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep.

D) whether any family members have experienced psychoses.

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Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. The patient's spouse reports that the patient is often confused and gets lost walking to the store,which is three blocks from their home. That evening,the nurse observes the patient pacing the hall and screaming. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider of this patient's worsening symptoms.

B) Prepare the patient's spouse for impending death from Alzheimer's disease.

C) Request an increase in the medication dose to treat the exacerbation in symptoms.

D) Tell the spouse that this is an expected progression of the disease.

Q2) The spouse of a patient with Alzheimer's disease asks a nurse for more information about the rivastigmine [Exelon] transdermal patch that is being used. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further explanation?

A) "Doses are lower but more steady with the transdermal patch."

B) "Reduced side effects occur with the transdermal patch."

C) "We only need to change the patch every 2 weeks."

D) "We should remove the old patch before applying the new one."

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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Preventing the development of MS

B) Primary progressive MS

C) Progressive-relapsing MS

D) Relapsing-remitting MS

E) Secondary progressive MS

Q2) A patient who stopped taking teriflunomide [Aubagio] 1 year prior tells the nurse that she has just found out she is pregnant. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to obtain an order for serum drug levels.

B) Reassure the patient that her fetus should be safe.

C) Suggest that she consider an abortion.

D) Tell her that she will not be able to nurse her baby when it is born.

Q3) A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Notify the provider of these symptoms.

B) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside.

C) Request an order for an antidepressant medication.

D) Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.

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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital after an increase in seizure frequency,and the prescriber orders carbamazepine [Tegretol] 100 mg twice daily to be added to the patient's medication regimen. The nurse reviewing the patient's medical history notes that the patient is already taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] 375 mg twice daily. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action?

A) Reducing the carbamazepine dose to 50 mg twice daily

B) Reducing the lamotrigine dose to 225 mg twice daily

C) Increasing the carbamazepine dose to 200 mg twice daily

D) Increasing the lamotrigine dose to 500 mg twice daily

Q2) A child who receives valproic acid [Depakote] begins taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] because of an increase in the number of seizures. The nurse will observe this child closely for which symptom?

A) Angioedema

B) Hypohidrosis

C) Rash

D) Psychosis

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26

Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen [Lioresal] but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?

A) Weakness and dizziness

B) Fatigue and drowsiness

C) Seizures and hallucinations

D) Respiratory depression and coma

Q2) A patient with cerebral palsy who has been receiving baclofen [Lioresal] via gastrostomy tube for 3 months is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of new-onset seizures. What may the nurse suspect to be the cause of these seizures?

A) Baclofen toxicity

B) Common adverse effect of baclofen

C) Idiopathic causes related to disease process

D) Missed doses of baclofen

Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient receives an epidural anesthetic during labor and delivery. The nurse caring for the newborn in the immediate postpartum period will observe the infant for:

A) bradycardia.

B) hypoglycemia.

C) jitteriness.

D) tachypnea.

Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?

A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand

B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site

C) Nervousness and tachycardia

D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is given nitrous oxide,along with another inhalation anesthetic. The nurse knows that the benefits of nitrous oxide include what? (Select all that apply.)

A) It is a potent analgesic.

B) It has high anesthetic potency.

C) It is less likely to cause nausea and vomiting.

D) It is less likely to precipitate malignant hyperthermia.

E) It can significantly reduce the dose of inhalation anesthetic.

Q2) The nurse cares for patients who receive propofol extended [Diprivan]. What are important nursing considerations for these patients? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ensuring that respiratory support equipment is readily available

B) Maintaining the rate of intravenous infusion at 6 mg/kg/hr

C) Refrigerating open vials of the drug up to 24 hours

D) Stopping the infusion if a patient's CPK is greater than 5000 units/L

E) Using a local anesthetic at the IV site prior to infusing the drug

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Chapter 28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8421

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a postoperative patient. Which are appropriate routine nursing actions when giving this drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Counting respirations before and after giving the medication

B) Encouraging physical activity and offering increased fluids

C) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure closely for hypertension

D) Palpating the patient's lower abdomen every 4 to 6 hours

E) Requesting an order for methylnaltrexone [Relistor] to prevent constipation

Q2) A patient has been taking methadone [Dolophine] for 5 months to overcome an opioid addiction. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following electrocardiographic changes?

A) Prolonged QT interval

B) Prolonged P-R interval

C) AV block

D) An elevated QRS complex

Q3) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?

A) Decreased analgesic effect

B) Decreased constipation

C) Increased euphoria

D) Increased respiratory depression

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking a fixed-dose combination drug with an opioid and acetaminophen for cancer pain reports increased muscular pain. The patient asks the nurse if the pain medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) An adjuvant analgesic medication will probably be used to help with this pain.

B) An additional dose of acetaminophen can be used to enhance pain relief.

C) Increasing the dose is possible, because there is no ceiling to opioid pain relief.

D) The provider will prescribe separate dosing of the opioid and acetaminophen.

Q2) A patient who has cancer reports pain as "burning" and "shooting" alternating with feelings of numbness and coldness. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the use of which medication?

A) Acetaminophen

B) Ibuprofen

C) Imipramine [Tofranil]

D) Oxycodone [OxyContin]

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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Q1) A patient who has recurrent migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex]. Which aspect of this patient's history is of concern when taking this drug?

A) Asthma

B) Coronary artery disease

C) Diabetes

D) Renal disease

Q2) A patient who has migraine headaches has been using sumatriptan [Imitrex] with good results,but reports frequent migraine recurrence 24 hours later. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Aspirin

B) Ergotamine [Ergomar]

C) Naratriptan [Amerge]

D) Zolmitriptan [Zomig]

Q3) Which drugs are used to prevent migraine headaches? (Select all that apply.)

A) Divalproex [Depakote]

B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]

C) Timolol

D) Ergotamine [Ergomar]

E) Acebutolol

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an oral FGA for 1 week. The patient has been taking the drug daily in two divided doses. The individual complains of daytime drowsiness. The patient's family reports a decrease in the person's hostility and anxiety but states that the patient remains antisocial with disordered thinking. What will the nurse tell the patient and the family?

A) An increased dose of the drug may be needed.

B) Intramuscular dosing may be needed.

C) Some symptoms take months to improve.

D) The entire dose may be taken at bedtime.

Q2) A patient with schizophrenia shows suicidal behaviors,and the provider orders clozapine [Clozaril]. The nurse teaches the family about the medication and its side effects. Which statement by a family member indicates a need for further teaching about this drug?

A) "Blood counts are necessary for several weeks after discontinuation of the drug."

B) "Fever, sore throat, and sores in the mouth should be reported immediately."

C) "If the ANC is less than 3000, the drug will be discontinued permanently."

D) "Use of this drug requires weekly evaluation of blood work."

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "TCAs block receptors for histamine, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine."

B) "TCAs block the uptake of norepinephrine and 5-HT."

C) "TCAs have many side effects, but none of them are serious."

D) "TCAs have other uses than for depression."

Q2) A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient?

A) Whether any antihypertensive medications are used

B) Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice

C) To list all foods eaten that day

D) Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI

Q3) A neonate is born to a patient who reports taking venlafaxine [Effexor XR]. The nurse caring for the infant will observe the infant for:

A) irritability, tremor, and respiratory distress.

B) poor appetite and disturbed sleeping patterns.

C) serotonin syndrome.

D) sustained mydriasis.

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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who is taking divalproex sodium [Valproate] has just been admitted to the hospital. During the admission assessment,the patient tells the nurse about recent suicidal ideation. The nurse observes several areas of bruising over soft tissue areas and notes a weight gain of 10 pounds since the last admission 1 year ago. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient whether the bruises are self-inflicted.

B) Contact the provider to report these findings.

C) Give the patient information about weight loss.

D) Request an order for an increased dose to help with depressive symptoms.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for 3 days. The patient is complaining of mild nausea and abdominal bloating. The patient's lithium level is 0.8 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the dose and tell the patient that the side effects are temporary.

B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for serum electrolytes.

C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber of the patient's lithium level.

D) Request an order for amiloride [Midamor].

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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be:

A) alternative medications.

B) improved sleep hygiene.

C) short-term barbiturates.

D) triazolam [Halcion].

Q2) A patient who has been using secobarbital for several months to treat insomnia tells the nurse that the prescriber has said the prescription will be changed to temazepam [Restoril] because it is safer. The patient asks why this agent is safer. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that temazepam:

A) does not depress the central nervous system.

B) shows no respiratory depression, even in toxic doses.

C) mimics the actions of a central nervous system inhibitory neurotransmitter.

D) potentiates endogenous gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) producing a finite CNS depression.

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are known to be effective for which disorders? (Select all that apply.)

A) Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

C) Panic disorder

D) Post-traumatic stress disorder

E) Social anxiety disorder

Q2) A patient reports having occasional periods of tremors,palpitations,nausea,and a sense of fear,which usually dissipate within 30 minutes. To treat this condition,the nurse anticipates the provider will prescribe a drug in which drug class?

A) Benzodiazepines

B) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

D) Tricyclic antidepressants

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin],10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600,for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta].

B) Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication.

C) Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed.

D) Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.

Q2) A young adult begins taking clonidine [Kapvay] to treat ADHD symptoms after suffering anorexia with methylphenidate [Ritalin]. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about taking clonidine?

A) "Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication."

B) "Insomnia may still occur while taking this drug."

C) "You will need to pick up a written prescription every 30 days."

D) "You may crush the tablets and put them in food."

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder?

A) A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year

B) An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief

C) A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due

D) A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain

Q2) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:

A) abstinence from the drug.

B) decreasing episodes of relapse.

C) minimizing drug cravings.

D) reduction of drug use.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing education to a group of college students about the long-term effects of alcohol. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Chronic alcohol use contributes to the development of osteoporosis."

B) "Chronic use of alcohol can actually decrease the risk of cardiomyopathy."

C) "Even small amounts of alcohol are related to the development of certain cancers."

D) "Pancreatitis is not a common problem among chronic users of alcohol."

Q2) A male patient tells a nurse that he drinks a six-pack of beer a day. When the nurse begins to question him further about his alcohol consumption,he says,"You sound like my wife. She's always nagging me to quit. It's only beer!" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) "Because the alcohol in beer is diluted in a larger volume, it is absorbed more slowly."

B) "Have you considered switching to wine? It has chemicals that protect your heart."

C) "The amount you drink is equivalent to six shots of whiskey each day."

D) "You could try to cut the amount in half to a level that is better for your health."

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix],which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."

B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."

C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."

D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."

Q2) A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting and a weak,thready pulse of 120 beats per minute after ingesting several cigarettes at home. The nurse caring for this child will expect to provide which treatment?

A) Gastric lavage

B) Hemodialysis

C) Respiratory support

D) Vasoconstrictors

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is a heroin addict is admitted to a methadone substitution program. After administering the first dose of methadone,the nurse notes that the patient shows signs of euphoria and complains of nausea. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer nalmefene [Revex].

B) Contact the provider to obtain an order for naloxone [Narcan].

C) Question the patient about heroin use that day.

D) Suspect that the patient exaggerated the amount of heroin used.

Q2) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?

A) Ease of access

B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm

C) Peer pressure

D) Prolonged sense of euphoria

Q3) Which factors make meperidine an opioid of choice among nurses and physicians who abuse opioids? (Select all that apply.)

A) Easy access to syringes for administration of the drug

B) Highly effective oral dosing

C) Increased effects on smooth muscle function

D) Less pupillary constriction than other opioids

E) Shorter half-life than other opioids

Page 42

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Chapter 41: Diuretics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally,and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Furosemide [Lasix]

C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

Q2) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication,the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Elevated creatinine clearance

B) Elevated serum potassium level

C) Normal blood glucose level

D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

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43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a child whose respirations are shallow and marked by a prolonged expiratory phase. The nurse auscultates wheezes and poor air movement bilaterally. The child's respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute,and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What does the nurse suspect?

A) Metabolic acidosis

B) Metabolic alkalosis

C) Respiratory acidosis

D) Respiratory alkalosis

Q2) A child who ingested a handful of aspirin tablets from a medicine cabinet at home is brought to the emergency department. The nurse caring for the child notes a respiratory rate of 48 breaths per minute. The nurse understands that this child's respiratory rate is the result of the body's attempt to compensate for:

A) metabolic acidosis.

B) metabolic alkalosis.

C) respiratory acidosis.

D) respiratory alkalosis.

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44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?

A) Decreased stroke volume

B) Increased stroke volume

C) Decreased myocardial contractility

D) Increased myocardial contractility

Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication,the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?

A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days

B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days

C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days

D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week

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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse administers an ACE inhibitor to a patient who is taking the drug for the first time. What will the nurse do?

A) Instruct the patient not to get up without assistance.

B) Make sure the patient takes a potassium supplement.

C) Report the presence of a dry cough to the prescriber.

D) Request an order for a diuretic to counter the side effects of the ACE inhibitor.

Q2) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?

A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."

B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."

C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."

D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension complains of constipation. The patient will begin taking amlodipine [Norvasc] to avoid this side effect. The nurse provides teaching about the difference between the two drugs. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed?

A) "I can expect dizziness and facial flushing with nifedipine."

B) "I should notify the provider if I have swelling of my hands and feet."

C) "I will need to take a beta blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia."

D) "I will need to take this drug once a day."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber."

B) "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug."

C) "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside."

D) "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?

A) "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair."

B) "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate."

C) "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time."

D) "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."

Q2) A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient?

A) Decreased cardiac preload

B) Decreased cardiac output

C) Increased tissue perfusion

D) Increased ventricular contraction

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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses."

B) "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents."

C) "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success."

D) "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."

Q2) A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha₁ blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug.

B) Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug.

C) Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug.

D) Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.

Q3) A patient with diabetes develops hypertension. The nurse will anticipate administering which type of medication to treat hypertension in this patient?

A) ACE inhibitors

B) Beta blockers

C) Direct-acting vasodilators

D) Thiazide diuretics

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has heart failure and is taking an ACE inhibitor. The patient has developed fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication to counter this development?

A) Aldosterone antagonist

B) Angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)

C) Beta blocker

D) Direct renin inhibitor (DRI)

Q2) Which medications are included in first-line therapy for heart failure? (Select all that apply.)

A) Agents that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)

B) Aldosterone antagonists

C) Beta blockers

D) Cardiac glycosides

E) Diuretics

Q3) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides? (Select all that apply.)

A) Decreased cardiac output

B) Decreased force of contraction

C) Decreased heart rate

D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems

E) Positive inotropic effects

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the intensive care unit who is receiving intravenous lidocaine. The patient is drowsy and confused and reports numbness of the fingers and toes. Which standing order will the nurse initiate at this time?

A) Administer diazepam.

B) Reduce the rate of infusion.

C) Discontinue the infusion.

D) Prepare for mechanical ventilation.

Q2) The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about dofetilide [Tikosyn] to treat dysrhythmias. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Dofetilide is a first-line medication to treat atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation."

B) "Dofetilide carries a lower risk of causing torsades de pointes than other drugs."

C) "Dofetilide is used for patients with severe symptoms of atrial dysrhythmias."

D) "Dofetilide may be safely used as outpatient therapy to treat atrial fibrillation."

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Q1) A nurse is providing patient education about colesevelam [Welchol],a bile acid sequestrant. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "Colesevelam will reduce my levels of low-density lipoprotein."

B) "Colesevelam will augment my statin drug therapy."

C) "I will not have to worry about having as many drug interactions as I did when I took cholestyramine."

D) "I will need to take supplements of fat-soluble vitamins."

Q2) A patient taking gemfibrozil [Lopid] and rosuvastatin [Crestor] concurrently begins to complain of muscle aches,fatigue,and weakness. What should the nurse monitor?

A) For tendon tenderness

B) For a lupus-like syndrome

C) The patient's liver function test results

D) The patient's creatinine kinase levels

Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?

A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels

B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke

C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients

D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who takes nitroglycerine to treat stable angina reports having erectile dysfunction and states that he plans to ask his primary provider for a prescription for tadalafil [Cialis]. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "You may take these two drugs together safely as long as you take them as directed."

B) "You should not take tadalafil and nitroglycerine within 30 to 60 minutes of each other."

C) "You should discuss another anti-angina medication with your provider."

D) "You should avoid sexual activity since this increases oxygen demands on the heart."

Q2) A nursing student is helping to care for a patient who takes verapamil for stable angina. The nurse asks the student to explain the purpose of verapamil in the treatment of this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "It relaxes coronary artery spasms."

B) "It reduces peripheral resistance to reduce oxygen demands."

C) "It reduces the heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility."

D) "It relaxes the peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload."

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to prevent stroke. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient?

A) Dabigatran should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

B) It is important not to crush, chew, or open capsules of dabigatran.

C) The risk of bleeding with dabigatran is less than that with warfarin [Coumadin].

D) To remember to take dabigatran twice daily, a pill organizer can be useful.

Q2) A postoperative patient will begin anticoagulant therapy with rivaroxaban [Xarelto] after knee replacement surgery. The nurse performs a history and learns that the patient is taking erythromycin. The patient's creatinine clearance is 50 mL/min. The nurse will:

A) administer the first dose of rivaroxaban as ordered.

B) notify the provider to discuss changing the patient's antibiotic.

C) request an order for a different anticoagulant medication.

D) request an order to increase the dose of rivaroxaban.

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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately?

A) Aspirin 325 mg chewable

B) Beta blocker given IV

C) Ibuprofen 400 mg orally

D) Morphine intravenously

Q2) A patient has undergone a PCI,and the provider orders clopidogrel to be given for 12 months,along with an ACE inhibitor and heparin. What will the nurse do?

A) Question the need for heparin.

B) Request an order for a beta blocker.

C) Request an order for aspirin.

D) Suggest ordering clopidogrel for 14 days.

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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child with severe hemophilia A receives factor VIII. The nurse expects this drug to be given:

A) on demand when bleeding occurs.

B) on demand when plasma factor VIII activity is less than 1% above normal.

C) prophylactically once weekly to maintain normal factor VIII activity.

D) prophylactically three times weekly to maintain factor VIII activity above 1% of normal.

Q2) The parents of a boy with hemophilia A want to know why their son will receive factor replacement on an ongoing basis rather than when needed for bleeding episodes. They tell the nurse that the boy's grandfather,who had the same disease,received the drug only when he had bleeding. The nurse will give the parents which information about ongoing therapy?

A) It can reverse progression of the disease.

B) It is cheaper, because the amounts of the drug used are less.

C) It is used to minimize long-term damage to the joints.

D) It prevents the development of inhibitors.

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56

Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient after hip replacement surgery. The patient has been receiving iron replacement therapy for 2 days. The nurse notes that the patient's stools appear black. The patient is pale and complains of feeling tired. The patient's heart rate is 98 beats per minute,respirations are 20 breaths per minute,and the blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) report possible gastrointestinal hemorrhage.

B) request a hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H).

C) request an order for a stool guaiac.

D) suggest giving a hypertonic fluid bolus.

Q2) The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B₁₂. The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can:

A) cause fetal malformation.

B) mask the signs of vitamin B₁₂ deficiency.

C) negatively affect potassium levels.

D) worsen megaloblastic anemia.

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Page 57

Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients are eligible to receive erythropoiesis stimulating agents? (Select all that apply.)

A) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies who require transfusions

B) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies whose chemotherapy is palliative

C) All patients whose goal of therapy is curative

D) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies and chemotherapy-induced anemia

E) All patients with leukemias or myeloid malignancies

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of epoetin alfa to a patient and notes that the patient has a hemoglobin level of 11.7 gm/dL. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the dose as ordered.

B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.

C) Request an order for a reduced dose.

D) Suggest that the provider increase the dose.

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for one injection. What should the nurse tell the patient?

A) This is an acceptable practice.

B) These two forms of insulin are not compatible and cannot be mixed.

C) Mixing these two forms of insulin may increase the overall potency of the products.

D) NPH insulin should only be mixed with insulin glargine.

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes expresses concern about losing her vision. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care to reduce this risk? (Select all that apply.)

A) Initiation of reliable contraception to prevent pregnancy

B) Ways to reduce hyperglycemic episodes

C) Use of a prokinetic drug (eg, metoclopramide)

D) Smoking cessation

E) Emphasis on the importance of taking antihypertensive drugs consistently

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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.

B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal.

C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.

D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking methimazole [Tapazole] for Graves' disease about the medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Because of the risk for liver toxicity, I will need frequent liver function tests."

B) "I should report a sore throat or fever to my provider if either occurs."

C) "I will need a complete blood count every few months."

D) "It is safe to get pregnant while taking this medication."

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale,dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?

A) Diabetes insipidus

B) Diabetes mellitus

C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

D) Water intoxication

Q2) A male patient reports decreased libido and the nurse notes galactorrhea during a physical assessment. The nurse will report these findings to the provider and will anticipate an order for which medication?

A) Cabergoline

B) Conivaptan

C) Dopamine

D) Prolactin

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about glucocorticoid therapy to a patient preparing to be discharged home. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of glucocorticoid therapy?

A) "I will take the entire dose early with breakfast."

B) "I may take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the afternoon."

C) "I will divide the dose in half and take half in the morning and half in the evening."

D) "I will take a dose with each meal."

Q2) A patient with Cushing's syndrome has undergone surgery and radiation treatment. The nurse will expect to teach the patient about which medication?

A) Cosyntropin

B) Dexamethasone

C) Fludrocortisone acetate [Florinef]

D) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."

B) "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."

C) "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."

D) "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."

Q2) The nurse is providing patient education for a postmenopausal patient who is considering EPT. Which risks associated with EPT should the nurse discuss with the patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) Increased colon cancer

B) Stroke

C) Deep vein thrombosis

D) Ovarian cancer

E) Decreased bone density

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Chapter 62: Birth Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has just purchased a 1-year supply of 28-day-cycle oral contraceptives. She tells the nurse she wishes she had planned things better,because she has calculated that her period will begin during her upcoming honeymoon. What will the nurse suggest?

A) She should discard the inert pills and start a new pack during the honeymoon.

B) She should discontinue the oral contraceptives and use an alternative form of birth control.

C) She should discuss a prescription for an extended-cycle product with her provider.

D) She should discuss DMPA (Depo-Provera) injections in addition to the OC with her provider.

Q2) A patient has been taking a progestin-only,or "minipill," OC for 3 months and reports spotting and irregular menstrual cycles. The nurse will:

A) question the patient about any possible missed doses of the pill.

B) reassure the patient that this is normal with this form of contraception.

C) recommend that she take a pregnancy test to rule out pregnancy.

D) suggest that she use a backup form of contraception until these symptoms resolve.

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Page 64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse counseling a couple who cannot conceive learns that female infertility problems have been ruled out. What will the nurse expect to tell this couple?

A) "If medication is necessary for male infertility, treatment will last a few months."

B) "Male infertility is usually treatable with a combination of medications."

C) "Most male infertility is not linked to known endocrine disorders."

D) "Treatment with sildenafil [Viagra] will be necessary to improve fertility."

Q2) An infertile patient has received two 5-day courses of clomiphene [Clomid] to help her conceive. An ultrasound 1 week after the last dose reveals that follicular maturation has occurred without ovulation. The nurse expects the next step for this patient to be:

A) administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

B) an order for cabergoline to be given twice weekly.

C) evaluation of ovarian and pituitary function.

D) repeating clomiphene once daily for 5 days.

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65

Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cervical ripening

B) Fetal monitoring

C) Renal function

D) Respiratory function

E) Uterine activity

Q2) A nurse is caring for a woman during the perinatal and postnatal period. To stop postpartum hemorrhage,how will the nurse administer oxytocin [Pitocin] to this patient?

A) 20 units in 1000 mL of IV solution after delivery of the placenta

B) 20 units intramuscularly prior to delivery of the placenta

C) 40 units intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta

D) 60 units per rectum prior to delivery of the placenta

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent male patient is beginning androgen therapy for delayed puberty. His parents ask the nurse when this treatment may be stopped. The nurse will offer which response?

A) After 3 to 4 years of therapy

B) If acne and facial hair develop

C) When complete sexual maturation has occurred

D) When testicular enlargement occurs

Q2) A nurse is obtaining a history and reviewing the chart of an adult male patient who has been taking oral androgens. Which assessment would warrant notifying the provider?

A) Acne and increased facial hair

B) Breast enlargement

C) Increased libido

D) Nausea, anorexia, and fatigue

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A healthy male patient who does not have erectile dysfunction asks about medications to improve sexual stamina. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Medications for ED can improve the duration of erection in healthy men."

B) "Medications for ED can improve the quality of erection in healthy men."

C) "Medications for ED have no effect on erections in healthy men."

D) "Medications for ED will cause priapism in healthy men."

Q2) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:

A) doxazosin [Cardura].

B) finasteride [Proscar].

C) silodosin [Rapaflo].

D) a transurethral prostatectomy.

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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a Type IV hypersensitivity (delayed-type hypersensitivity)response to an infection. The nurse understands that which two types of cells are necessary for this response?

A) Antigen-presenting cells and mast cells

B) Cytolytic T lymphocytes and target cells

C) Immunoglobulin cells and dendritic cells

D) Infected macrophages and CD4 helper T cells

Q2) A nurse is discussing the role of antibodies in the complement system with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student is correct?

A) "Antibodies activate the complement cascade by turning on the alternative pathway."

B) "Antibodies that are free in solution can activate the complement system."

C) "Antibodies flag target cells to be lysed by membrane attack complexes."

D) "Antibody receptors are nonspecific to antigenic determinants."

Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

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69

Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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Sample Questions

Q1) An immigrant child is in the clinic for MMR vaccination. The nurse learns that the child has recently received an immune globulin injection for a viral infection,currently has an upper respiratory infection with a temperature of 100°F,and has a recent history of thrombocytopenia,which has resolved. What does the nurse tell the child's parents?

A) "The vaccine is contraindicated in this child because of the history of thrombocytopenia."

B) "The child should be brought back for the vaccine when the temperature is back to normal."

C) "The child is at increased risk of developing autism from this vaccine."

D) "The vaccine must be postponed for 3 months after administration of the immune globulin."

Q2) A clinic nurse receives a phone call from a parent who states that a 2-month-old infant has a severe cough,a low-grade fever,and a runny nose that have lasted over a week. What will the nurse ask the parent?

A) Whether the infant has had the first set of vaccines

B) Whether the infant received a hepatitis B vaccine as a newborn

C) Whether the infant attends day care

D) Whether there is a family history of respiratory disorders

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering medications to a patient who is receiving cyclosporine [Sandimmune]. Which medication,when administered concurrently with cyclosporine,would warrant a reduction in the dosage of cyclosporine?

A) Phenytoin [Dilantin]

B) Prednisone

C) Ketoconazole [Nizoral]

D) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]

Q2) A patient has undergone liver transplantation. The provider orders cyclosporine [Sandimmune],prednisone,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. What will the nurse do?

A) Question the order for sirolimus.

B) Request an order for a serum glucose level.

C) Request an order for a macrolide antibiotic.

D) Suggest changing the cyclosporine to tacrolimus.

Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?

A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]

B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]

C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]

D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which parenteral antihistamines have sedative effects that are classified as low to none? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cetirizine [Zyrtec]

B) Clemastine [Tavist Allergy]

C) Desloratadine [Clarinex]

D) Fexofenadine [Allegra]

E) Loratadine [Claritin]

Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.

C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.

D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors:

Nonsteroidal

Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL,and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do?

A) Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache.

B) Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity.

C) Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose.

D) Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps,but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?

A) The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye's syndrome.

B) The patient should increase the dose to a level that suppresses inflammation.

C) The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.

D) The patient should use acetaminophen because of its selective effects on uterine smooth muscle.

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has arthritis has been taking ibuprofen [Motrin] and a glucocorticoid medication. The patient reports having tarry stools but denies gastric pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to discuss ordering an antiulcer medication.

B) Counsel the patient to use over-the-counter antacids.

C) Reassure the patient not to worry unless there is gastric pain.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the glucocorticoid immediately.

Q2) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)

A) Allergic rhinitis

B) Anaphylaxis

C) Bronchiolitis

D) Gout

E) Ulcerative colitis

Q3) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.

B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.

C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.

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Page 74

Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:

A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.

B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.

C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.

D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.

Q2) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?

A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective

B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept

C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept

D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia,and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.

A) increasing; allopurinol

B) increasing; warfarin

C) reducing; allopurinol

D) reducing; warfarin

Q2) A patient with chronic gout is admitted to the hospital for treatment for an infection. The patient is receiving allopurinol and ampicillin. The nurse is preparing to administer medications and notes that the patient has a temperature of 101°F and a rash. What will the nurse do?

A) Withhold the allopurinol and notify the prescriber of the drug reaction.

B) Withhold the ampicillin and contact the provider to request a different antibiotic.

C) Request an order for an antihistamine to minimize the drug side effects.

D) Suggest giving a lower dose of the allopurinol while giving ampicillin.

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postmenopausal patient develops osteoporosis. The patient asks the nurse about medications to treat this condition. The nurse learns that the patient has a family history of breast cancer. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?

A) Estrogen estradiol

B) Pamidronate [Aredia]

C) Raloxifene [Evista]

D) Teriparatide [Forteo]

Q2) A postmenopausal patient is at high risk for developing osteoporosis. The patient's prescriber orders raloxifene [Evista],and the nurse provides teaching about this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may experience breast tenderness while taking this drug."

B) "I may experience fewer hot flashes while taking this drug."

C) "I should discontinue this drug several weeks before any surgery."

D) "I should walk as much as possible during long airline flights."

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child is receiving a combination albuterol/ipratropium [DuoNeb] inhalation treatment. The patient complains of a dry mouth and sore throat. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to report systemic anticholinergic side effects.

B) Discontinue the aerosol treatment immediately.

C) Notify the provider of a possible allergic reaction.

D) Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.

Q2) A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask whether the patient is rinsing the mouth after each dose.

B) Request an order for an antifungal medication.

C) Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection.

D) Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.

Q3) A young adult woman will begin using an inhaled glucocorticoid to treat asthma. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of which action?

A) Lowering her calcium intake and increasing her vitamin D intake

B) Participating in weight-bearing exercises on a regular basis

C) Taking oral glucocorticoids during times of acute stress

D) Using two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child who has perennial allergic rhinitis has been using an intranasal glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered montelukast [Singulair] to replace the glucocorticoid,because the child has frequent nosebleeds. When teaching this child's parents about montelukast,the nurse will include which statement?

A) "Montelukast is also effective for treating infectious rhinitis."

B) "Montelukast may cause behavior changes in your child."

C) "Montelukast will treat both congestion and rhinitis."

D) "Montelukast works best when combined with a topical decongestant."

Q2) A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used."

B) "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old."

C) "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays."

D) "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."

Q3) What is ipratropium bromide [Atrovent]?

A) A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis

B) An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds

C) A medication that is used only in patients with asthma

D) A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis

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Page 79

Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which medication does the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Cimetidine [Tagamet]

B) Esomeprazole [Nexium]

C) Ranitidine [Zantac]

D) Sucralfate [Carafate]

Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The patient takes ranitidine [Zantac] and sucralfate [Carafate]. The patient tells the nurse that discomfort is usually controlled but that symptoms occasionally flare up. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the provider about ordering an endoscopic examination.

B) Contact the provider to discuss serologic testing and an antibiotic.

C) Contact the provider to discuss switching to a proton pump inhibitor.

D) Counsel the patient to avoid beverages containing caffeine.

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which condition would cause the nurse to withhold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide?

A) Chronic renal failure

B) Cirrhosis

C) Hemorrhoids

D) Prostatitis

Q2) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.

B) Give another dose of the psyllium.

C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.

D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.

Q3) A patient with renal disease is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Before the procedure,the nurse will anticipate administering:

A) glycerin suppository.

B) magnesium hydroxide (MOM).

C) polyethylene glycol and electrolytes.

D) sodium phosphate.

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Page 81

Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who has been undergoing chemotherapy. The patient has oral mucositis as a result of the chemotherapy,and the provider has ordered palifermin [Kepivance]. Which is an appropriate nursing action when giving this drug?

A) Administering the drug as a slow IV infusion

B) Flushing the IV line with heparin before infusing the drug

C) Giving the drug within 6 hours of the chemotherapy

D) Warning the patient about the potential for distortion of taste

Q2) A nurse caring for a patient who is undergoing a third round of chemotherapy is preparing to administer ondansetron [Zofran] 30 minutes before initiation of the chemotherapy. The patient tells the nurse that the ondansetron did not work as well the last time as it had the first time. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the ondansetron at the same time as the chemotherapy.

B) Contact the provider to suggest using high-dose intravenous dolasetron [Anzemet].

C) Request an order to administer dexamethasone with the ondansetron.

D) Suggest to the provider that loperamide [Lomotil] be given with the ondansetron.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing nutrition with a patient who expresses concern about not always consuming vitamins in amounts consistent with the recommended dietary allowances (RDAs). What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) The RDA is only an estimate of the amount of vitamins required and does not represent a scientific number.

B) The RDA is the amount of vitamin needed by 50% of the population regardless of age or gender.

C) The RDA represents the highest amount that can be consumed safely, so amounts less than this can be sufficient.

D) The RDA represents an average, so low intake one day can be compensated for by increased amounts on another day.

Q2) A patient will begin taking iron supplements to treat anemia. The nurse will recommend that the patient take the iron with which food to facilitate absorption?

A) Cereal

B) Dairy products

C) Orange juice

D) Red meats

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 50-year-old patient with a body mass index (BMI)of 26 and a waist circumference (WC)of 37 who smokes asks a nurse about drugs for weight loss. She tells the nurse,"I keep trying to eat less,but it doesn't work." What will the nurse do?

A) Ask her to begin keeping a log of her food intake and activities.

B) Counsel her to quit smoking to reduce her health risk.

C) Suggest she begin walking every day to increase the number of calories burned.

D) Tell her she is a candidate for drug therapy and suggest she contact her provider.

Q2) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?

A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."

B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."

C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."

D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A recent campaign,initiated by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC),to delay the emergence of antibiotic resistance in hospitals,has what as one of its objectives?

A) Allowing patients to stop antibiotics when symptoms subside

B) Allowing prescribers to develop their own prescribing guidelines

C) Increased adherence to prescribed antibiotics

D) Increased use of antibiotics among parents of young children

Q2) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?

A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."

B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."

C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."

D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs)work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins:

A) disinhibit transpeptidases.

B) disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis.

C) inhibit autolysins.

D) inhibit host cell wall function.

Q2) A nurse is discussing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student correctly identifies the basis for MRSA resistance?

A) "MRSA bacteria have developed PBPs with a low affinity for penicillins."

B) "MRSA bacteria produce penicillinases that render penicillin ineffective."

C) "MRSA occurs because of host resistance to penicillins."

D) "MRSA strains replicate faster than other Staphylococcus aureus strains."

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefoxitin

D) Cefotaxime

Q2) A provider has ordered ceftriaxone 4 gm once daily for a patient with renal impairment. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed.

B) Contact the provider to ask about giving the drug in divided doses.

C) Discuss increasing the interval between doses with the provider.

D) Discuss reducing the dose with the provider.

Q3) A prescriber has ordered cefoxitin for a patient who has an infection caused by a gram-negative bacteria. The nurse taking the medication history learns that the patient experienced a maculopapular rash when taking amoxicillin [Amoxil] several years earlier. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the cefoxitin and observe for any side effects.

B) Give the cefoxitin and have epinephrine and respiratory support available.

C) Request an order for a different, nonpenicillin, noncephalosporin antibiotic.

D) Request an order to administer a skin test before giving the cefoxitin.

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 6-week-old infant who has not yet received immunizations develops a severe cough. While awaiting nasopharyngeal culture results,the nurse will expect to administer which antibiotic?

A) Clindamycin [Cleocin]

B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin]

C) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

D) Penicillin G

Q2) To prevent yellow or brown discoloration of teeth in children,tetracyclines should not be given:

A) to children once the permanent teeth have developed.

B) to patients taking calcium supplements.

C) to pregnant patients after the fourth month of gestation.

D) with dairy products or antacids.

Q3) A patient is diagnosed with periodontal disease,and the provider orders oral doxycycline [Periostat]. The patient asks the purpose of the drug. What is the nurse's response?

A) "It is used because of its anti-inflammatory effects."

B) "It inhibits collagenase to protect connective tissue in the gums."

C) "It reduces bleeding and the pocket depth of oral lesions."

Page 88

D) "It suppresses bacterial growth in the oral mucosa."

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking gentamicin for 5 days reports a headache and dizziness. What will the nurse do?

A) Request an order for a gentamicin peak level.

B) Suspect ototoxicity and notify the prescriber.

C) Tell the patient to ask for help with ambulation.

D) Tell the patient to report any tinnitus.

Q2) A patient is receiving an intraperitoneal aminoglycoside during surgery. To reverse a serious side effect of this drug,the nurse may expect to administer which agent?

A) Amphotericin B

B) Calcium gluconate

C) Neuromuscular blocker

D) Vancomycin

Q3) A patient is receiving tobramycin 3 times daily. The provider has ordered a trough level with the 8:00 AM dose. The nurse will ensure that the level is drawn at what time?

A) 4:00 AM

B) 7:00 AM

C) 7:45 AM

D) 8:45 AM

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an African American patient who has been admitted to the unit for long-term antibiotic therapy with sulfonamides. The patient develops fever,pallor,and jaundice. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient has developed: A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

B) kernicterus.

C) hepatotoxicity.

D) hemolytic anemia.

Q2) A patient with a urinary tract infection is given a prescription for TMP/SMZ. When reviewing the drug with the patient,the nurse learns that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus and consumes alcohol heavily. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request a different antibiotic for this patient.

B) Obtain frequent blood glucose determinations while giving TMP/SMZ.

C) Suggest that the patient take a potassium supplement while taking TMP/SMZ.

D) Tell the patient to avoid excessive fluid intake while taking TMP/SMZ.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking nitrofurantoin calls the nurse to report several side effects. Which side effect of this drug causes the most concern and would require discontinuation of the medication?

A) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting

B) Brown-colored urine

C) Drowsiness

D) Tingling of the fingers

Q2) A pregnant patient with fever,flank pain,and chills has a history of two previous bladder infections before getting pregnant. She is allergic to several antibiotics. She reports having taken methenamine successfully in the past. What will the nurse tell her?

A) "This agent is not effective against infections of the upper urinary tract."

B) "This antiseptic agent is safe for use during pregnancy and has no drug resistance."

C) "This drug is linked to many serious birth defects and is not recommended during pregnancy."

D) "You will need to take this medication with meals to avoid gastric upset."

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Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex

Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why tuberculosis resistance is so high. Which reasons are correct? (Select all that apply.)

A) Adherence to drug regimens is erratic.

B) Drug doses are often too low.

C) Many hosts are immunocompromised.

D) Many regimens contain too few drugs.

E) Some TB drugs are bacteriostatic.

Q2) A patient is about to begin treatment for latent tuberculosis with a short course of daily rifampin. The patient asks why rifapentine [Priftin] cannot be used,because it can be given twice weekly. What will the nurse tell this patient about rifapentine?

A) It is more toxic than rifampin.

B) It is not approved for treatment of latent TB.

C) It is not well absorbed and thus not as effective.

D) It will stain contact lenses orange.

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92

Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin? (Select all that apply.)

A) It causes significant renal impairment.

B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.

C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.

D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.

E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?

A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a superficial fungal infection and notes that the provider has ordered 200 mg of ketoconazole [Nizoral] 200 mg PO once daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the drug as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss twice daily dosing.

C) Discuss a 400-mg daily drug regimen with the provider.

D) Request an order for a different antifungal medication.

Q2) A patient is being treated with amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. After several weeks of therapy,the provider orders flucytosine [Ancobon] in addition to the amphotericin. The nurse understands that the rationale for this combination is that it:

A) broadens the antifungal spectrum.

B) improves the effectiveness of the amphotericin B.

C) lowers the dose of amphotericin B and reduces toxicity.

D) treats fungal central nervous system (CNS) infection.

Q3) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?

A) Tinea capitis

B) Tinea corporis

C) Tinea cruris

D) Tinea pedis

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Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A female patient who has hepatitis C is being treated with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin [Ribasphere]. It will be important for the nurse to teach this patient that:

A) if she gets pregnant, she should use the inhaled form of ribavirin [Virazole].

B) if she is taking oral contraceptives, she should also take a protease inhibitor.

C) she should use a hormonal contraceptive to avoid pregnancy.

D) she will need a monthly pregnancy test during her treatment.

Q2) A patient with hepatitis B begins treatment with adefovir [Hepsera] and asks the nurse how long the drug therapy will last. The nurse will tell the patient that the medication will need to be taken for:

A) a lifetime.

B) an indefinite, prolonged period of time.

C) 48 weeks.

D) until nephrotoxicity occurs.

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Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) After starting an antiviral protease inhibitor,a patient with HIV telephones the nurse,complaining,"I'm so hungry and thirsty all the time! I'm urinating 10 or 12 times a day." The nurse recognizes these findings to be consistent with:

A) pancreatic infiltration by HIV.

B) allergic reaction.

C) nonadherence to the antiviral regimen.

D) hyperglycemia.

Q2) The nurse is providing education to a group of patients who are HIV positive. The nurse is discussing the various medications used to treat HIV infection. A patient asks about nevirapine [Viramune]. Which statements by the nurse most accurately reflect the facts about nevirapine? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Some herbal preparations can reduce the levels of this drug."

B) "This agent can damage the liver; therefore, liver function tests are needed periodically."

C) "Usually no adverse effects occur when this medication is used alone."

D) "The drug must be dosed five times per day at evenly spaced intervals."

E) "You should call your healthcare provider immediately if you develop a rash."

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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which treatment regimen is most appropriate for reducing the risk of sterility in this patient?

A) Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IM once in the clinic

B) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, with doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days as an outpatient

C) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IV every 6 hours in the hospital

D) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days, and metronidazole [Flagyl], 500 mg PO twice daily for 14 days in the hospital

Q2) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?

A) Gonorrhea

B) Herpes simplex

C) Nongonococcal urethritis

D) Syphilis

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted,the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:

A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.

B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.

C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.

D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student how to care for patients in the perioperative period. Which statement by the student about preventing postoperative infections indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Applying hexachlorophene to the operative site preoperatively will help prevent infection."

B) "It is important to ensure that all surgical instruments have been sterilized appropriately."

C) "Operating room personnel should all perform a presurgical scrub with antimicrobial soap."

D) "Preventing contamination by microorganisms in the environment is the most important perioperative measure."

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Page 98

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient tells the nurse that a close friend has ascariasis. The patient expresses worry about becoming infested. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Ascariasis usually resolves without treatment, so you should not worry."

B) "Avoid going barefoot and practice good hygiene and you won't become infested."

C) "Treatment is always indicated if you are exposed, because ascariasis is contagious."

D) "You should be tested, because serious complications can occur without treatment."

Q2) A child is seen in the clinic after complaining of intense perianal itching. The provider diagnoses the child with pinworms and orders mebendazole [Vermox]. The nurse will expect to teach the child's parents to:

A) administer the drug with a high-fat meal to improve absorption.

B) avoid driving or other hazardous activities until the drug's effects wear off.

C) give each family member one dose of the drug now and another dose in 2 weeks.

D) report serious adverse effects that can occur with death of the causative parasite.

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99

Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a newly admitted African American patient who has just returned from a mission trip to Africa. The patient contracted malaria and is being treated with primaquine. What will the nurse monitor?

A) The patient's blood for evidence of hyperlipidemia

B) The patient's eyes for evidence of icterus

C) The patient's skin for photosensitivity

D) The patient's urinary output for evidence of darkening urine

Q2) A patient who has contracted falciparum malaria has received a prescription for artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem] and tells the nurse she thinks she may be pregnant.

What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Ask your provider about taking only the artemether component."

B) "The medication should be taken with food to prevent nausea."

C) "This drug is safe during the first trimester of pregnancy."

D) "You should talk to your provider about a different medication."

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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?

A) Atovaquone [Mepron]

B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]

D) Pentamidine [Pentam]

Q2) A 20-kg pediatric patient is being treated for toxoplasmosis,and the provider orders pyrimethamine [Daraprim] 10 mg twice daily. The nurse caring for this patient will anticipate which additional order from the provider?

A) Administer 10 to 15 mg of folinic acid with each dose of pyrimethamine.

B) Give the medication intravenously over 30 to 45 minutes.

C) Increase the dose to 20 mg twice daily after 2 to 4 days.

D) Teach the family to monitor for muscle pain and joint stiffness.

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Q1) A parent has used permethrin [Nix] twice to treat head lice in a child. Two weeks after the last treatment,head lice are again found in the child's hair. The parent asks the nurse what to do. The nurse will recommend asking the child's provider about which therapy?

A) Applying lindane 1% shampoo

B) Cutting the child's hair

C) Ordering permethrin 5% [Elimite]

D) Using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]

Q2) Two days after a child is treated with permethrin [Nix] for head lice,a parent calls the clinic to report seeing nits and a few live lice on the child's scalp. The nurse will tell the parent to:

A) ask the provider about using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia].

B) cut the areas of the child's hair where nits are present.

C) retreat the child's hair with permethrin [Nix].

D) use a fine-toothed comb to remove nits and live lice.

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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has leukemia is receiving chemotherapy and develops severe anemia. The provider has ordered hospitalization and blood transfusions. The patient asks the nurse about using erythropoietin (epoetin alfa)instead. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "Ask your provider about ordering erythropoietin instead of a transfusion."

B) "Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) can make your leukemia worse."

C) "Erythropoietin is used to prolong life in patients with myeloid malignancies."

D) "You will probably receive erythropoietin along with the transfusion."

Q2) Which are guidelines for selecting chemotherapeutic agents to use in combination therapy? (Select all that apply.)

A) Drugs used should have different mechanisms.

B) Each drug should be delivered by different routes.

C) Each drug should be effective.

D) Each drug should have different dosing schedules.

E) Toxicities should be minimally overlapping.

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103

Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving fluorouracil [Adrucil] as a continuous intravenous dose to treat a solid tumor. The patient reports soreness and blisters in the mouth,loose stools,and tingling of the hands and feet. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to discuss bolus dosing instead of continuous dosing.

B) Discontinue the medication and contact the provider to report these symptoms.

C) Reassure the patient that these are expected, uncomfortable side effects.

D) Request an order for dexamethasone to treat these side effects.

Q2) A patient will begin chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which medications will the nurse expect to administer to offset this agent's side effects?

A) Amifostine [Ethyol], diuretics, and antiemetics

B) Antiemetics, vitamin B₁₂, and glucocorticoids

C) Dexamethasone, antiemetics, and vistonuridine

D) Folic acid, gabapentin, and vitamin B₁₂

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104

Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 45-year-old patient with a family history of breast cancer is considering using tamoxifen [Nolvadex] for cancer prevention. The nurse performs a health history and learns that the woman had a child when she was 35 years old,that she has not had a hysterectomy,and that she experienced DVT when she was pregnant. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Because of her family risk and late childbearing, this drug is a good choice for her.

B) Her history of DVT outweighs any possible benefits she may have with this drug.

C) Since she has not had a hysterectomy, the risk of endometrial cancer is too great.

D) When she turns 50 years old, this drug will carry fewer risks for her.

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer a second infusion of trastuzumab [Herceptin] to a patient who has breast cancer. The patient tells the nurse that she experienced chills,fever,pain,and nausea after her first infusion. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request a CBC to assess for neutropenia.

B) Ensure that oxygen and respiratory support measures are readily available.

C) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will diminish with each infusion.

D) Request an order for an electrocardiogram.

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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer timolol [Timoptic] eye drops to a patient who has open angle glaucoma. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse will contact the provider to discuss changing to which medication?

A) betaxolol

B) carteolol

C) levobunolol

D) metipranolol

Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse to discuss the differences between POAG and angle-closure glaucoma. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Angle-closure glaucoma may be asymptomatic until irreversible damage has occurred."

B) "Both types are more common in African American patients."

C) "Drug therapy is the definitive treatment for angle-closure glaucoma."

D) "Early treatment with prostaglandin analogs can stop the progression of POAG."

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106

Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8498

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has severe acne that has been refractory to treatment. The patient is taking tetracycline and using topical tretinoin [Retin-A] and has been applying benzoyl peroxide twice daily. The provider asks the nurse to teach this patient about isotretinoin [Accutane],which the patient will begin taking in a few weeks. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient about this drug?

A) "Alcohol may be consumed in moderation when taking this drug."

B) "Skin rash, headache, and hair loss are common with this drug."

C) "Tetracycline must be discontinued before beginning the isotretinoin."

D) "Two pregnancy tests are required before each monthly refill of your prescription."

Q2) A female patient with baldness asks a nurse about the safety and efficacy of minoxidil [Rogaine]. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Hair regrowth is most effective when baldness has developed recently.

B) Minoxidil cannot be used by female patients.

C) Once hair has been restored, minoxidil may be discontinued, because hair loss will stop.

D) Systemic side effects, such as headaches and flushing, are common.

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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499

Sample Questions

Q1) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?

A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen

B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals

C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear

Q2) The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?

A) Administering refrigerated drops

B) Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops

C) Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops

D) Inserting earplugs after administering the drops

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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH),and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?

A) A beta blocker

B) A calcium channel blocker

C) Nitroglycerin

D) Warfarin

Q2) A patient with cancer is taking rasburicase [Elitek] to treat hyperuricemia and develops neutropenia with fever and respiratory distress on the fourth day of treatment. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:

A) administer allopurinol instead of rasburicase.

B) continue giving the drug and monitor the patient's symptoms closely.

C) tell the patient that this drug should never be used again.

D) tell the patient that these symptoms indicate severe sepsis.

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109

Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?

A) Black cohosh

B) Echinacea

C) Feverfew

D) Glucosamine

Q2) A patient in her twenties has frequent urinary tract infections,and her prescriber suggests drinking cranberry juice. She asks the nurse how drinking this can help. The nurse will tell her that cranberry juice:

A) acidifies the urine to slow the growth of the bacteria.

B) helps treat established infections.

C) prevents bacteria from adhering to the urinary tract wall.

D) reduces the odor of the urine.

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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502

Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber has ordered deferasirox [Exjade] to treat iron overload associated with chronic blood transfusions. The nurse learns that the patient takes cholestyramine to reduce cholesterol. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order to:

A) increase the cholestyramine dose.

B) increase the deferasirox dose.

C) monitor cholesterol levels.

D) monitor liver function tests.

Q2) A young patient is brought to the emergency department by friends,who say they found him unresponsive at his home. The prescriber suspects that the patient was poisoned. During the assessment,the man mumbles a word and becomes comatose. The nurse should immediately prepare to administer:

A) activated charcoal.

B) intravenous dextrose.

C) intravenous flumazenil [Romazicon].

D) syrup of ipecac.

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse responds when a patient asks why the smallpox vaccine is no longer given. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "The smallpox vaccine can cause serious side effects."

B) "The smallpox vaccine can confer protection when given after exposure."

C) "The smallpox vaccine is too expensive to give routinely."

D) "The smallpox vaccine may cause live virus to spread to others."

Q2) A group of people has been exposed to ricin by inhalation of ricin mist. When preparing to receive these victims in the emergency department,nurses will prepare to:

A) administer antidotes.

B) give chelating agents.

C) provide respiratory support.

D) start hemodialysis.

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