Medical-Surgical Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of medical conditions and surgical interventions. The course emphasizes the development of critical thinking skills, evidence-based practice, and holistic patient care in both pre-operative and post-operative settings. Students learn to assess patient needs, implement appropriate nursing interventions, and manage complex health problems such as cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and musculoskeletal disorders. The curriculum integrates pharmacology, pathophysiology, and contemporary health issues, preparing students to collaborate effectively with interdisciplinary healthcare teams and promote optimal patient outcomes in diverse clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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50 Chapters
879 Verified Questions
879 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?
A) They are not listed in the USP-NF.
B) A prescription from a health care provider is needed.
C) They are sold without a prescription.
D) They are known only by their brand names.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
A) Drug Facts and Comparisons
B) Drug Interaction Facts
C) Handbook on Injectable Drugs
D) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
Answer: B
Q3) What is the name under which a drug is listed by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
A) Brand
B) Nonproprietary
C) Official
D) Trademark
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes when drug interactions occur?
A) On administration of toxic dosages of a drug
B) On an increase in the pharmacodynamics of bound drugs
C) On the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug
D) On increase of drug excretion
Answer: C
Q2) What is the process by which a drug is transported by circulating body fluids to receptor sites?
A) Osmosis
B) Distribution
C) Absorption
D) Biotransformation
Answer: B
Q3) What occurs when two drugs compete for the same receptor site, resulting in increased activity of the first drug?
A) Desired action
B) Synergistic effect
C) Carcinogenicity
D) Displacement
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients require special considerations for medication administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) 29-year-old pregnant woman
B) 2-month-old baby
C) 18-year-old college student
D) 45-year-old farmer
E) 82-year-old retired nurse
Answer: A, B, E
Q2) The nurse is administering an antibiotic intravenously. Which blood level determines the lowest amount of medication present in the patient?
A) Peak
B) Serum
C) Therapeutic
D) Trough
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an interdependent nursing action?
A) Assess lung sounds every 4 hours.
B) Educate the patient about the prescribed medication.
C) Administer Demerol 50 mg IM every 4 hours PRN.
D) Encourage the patient to express feelings.
Q2) What do the classification systems NIC and NOC provide?
A) Individualized data banks of treatments related to disease processes
B) Standardized language for reporting and analyzing nursing care delivery
C) A measure for cost containment within medical institutions
D) Specialized interventions for rare diseases
Q3) Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for an older adult with diabetes hospitalized for pneumonia?
A) Deficient Knowledge related to lack of information about diabetic medication
B) Risk for Falls related to weakness
C) Impaired Gas Exchange related to decreased pulmonary ventilation
D) Imbalanced Nutrition: More than Body Requirements related to obesity
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is writing a teaching plan for a 30-year-old patient who has AIDS. Which objectives are written in the correct format? (Select all that apply.)
A) The patient will state adverse effects of the daily medications before discharge.
B) The patient will correctly fill the daily medication pillbox with the correct medications in the appropriate time slots prior to discharge.
C) The patient will adjust the medications accordingly.
D) The patient will schedule an appointment with the infectious disease physician before discharge.
E) The patient will have lab tests performed regularly.
Q2) Which would positively affect readiness to learn?
A) Fear and denial
B) Willingness to attain an optimal level of health
C) Poor cognitive and motor development
D) Lack of trust and confidence in the staff
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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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87 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) 7/10 ÷ 3/5 = _____
Q2) 10,000 \(\times\) 0.75 = _____
Q3) Convert 25 g to mg: _____
Q4) 0.305 = _____
Q5) 1/2 \(\times\) 1/3 = _____
Q6) 0.125/0.25 = _____
Q7) 4.302 + 1.88 + 0.009 = _____
Q8) 1/7 + 3/7 = _____
Q9) 75 lb = _____ kg
Q10) 500 mL of solution containing 350 mL alcohol in water: _____
Q11) The physician has ordered 3500 units of heparin subcutaneously q12h
Available: Heparin 5000 units/mL
What volume of heparin will you administer? _____
Q12) 3/32 ÷ 1/8 = _____
Q13) 1000 mL of solution containing 50 g glucose in water: _____
Q14) 300/125 \(\times\) 5/1 = _____
Q15) 1 mg = _____ mcg
8
Q16) 0.125 \(\times\) 10 = _____
Q17) 1 tsp = _____ mL
Q18) 200 mL of solution containing 2 g of boric acid in water. _____
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Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lab tests are used to assess liver and/or renal function before administering medications? (Select all that apply.)
A) CBC
B) LDH
C) ALT
D) Cr<sub>s</sub>
E) BUN
F) APTT
Q2) Which medication route provides the most rapid onset of a medication, but also poses the greatest risk of adverse effects?
A) Intradermal
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intramuscular
D) Intravenous
Q3) Which is known as the "fifth vital sign"?
A) Temperature
B) Respirations
C) Pain
D) Pulse
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dressings would be appropriate to use for treating wounds with exudates?
A) AlgiDERM
B) Telfa
C) Kaltostat
D) Sorbsan
E) OpSite
Q2) Where will the nurse administer a medication that was ordered to be given sublingually?
A) Between the molar teeth and cheek
B) Below the skin surface
C) Under the tongue
D) Into the conjunctival sac
Q3) Which effect would be important for the nurse to address when teaching a patient about the overuse of nose drops?
A) Rebound
B) Ceiling
C) Idiosyncratic
D) Measured
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11
Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which position would the nurse place a patient before the administration of an enteral feeding?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Left lateral
D) Prone
Q2) The nurse is administering an oral medication to a 90-year-old patient who has difficulty swallowing pills. One of the medications to be administered is a spansule-type capsule. What nursing considerations are important in this case? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wash hands before preparing medications and before administration.
B) Crush medications and administer with a soft food such as applesauce.
C) Check the patient's ID band with the MAR to ensure patient rights are followed.
D) Have an 8-ounce glass of water available.
E) Check with the pharmacist to see if the spansule medication comes in a liquid form.
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12
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of
Parenteral Medications
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Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principles are correct for mixing insulin? (Select all that apply.)
A) Insulin orders and calculations must be checked with another nurse.
B) Air is injected into the vial of the shorter-acting insulin first.
C) The longer-acting insulin is drawn up first.
D) The nurse must verify the compatibility of the insulin types.
E) Withdraw the shorter-acting insulin first.
Q2) Which nursing action is accurate when administering parenteral medication?
A) Adjust the route of the medication if needed.
B) Document the response to PRN medications at the end of the shift.
C) Request the pharmacist to provide education about the medication to the patient.
D) Use clinical judgment when rescheduling missed doses of a medication.
Q3) Which information provided by the nurse is most important to include when teaching a patient about the use of an EpiPen?
A) "Hold the syringe at a 45-degree angle against the skin."
B) "Monitor the expiration date of this medication."
C) "After using the EpiPen, lie down for 1 hour."
D) "Place the syringe in a cartridge prior to using."
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by the nurse is most accurate when administering an intradermal injection?
A) Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
B) Inject 0.1 mL.
C) Use a 22-gauge needle.
D) Wipe the site with alcohol after injection.
Q2) Which gauge needles are used for subcutaneous injections?
A) 14 to 16 gauge
B) 18 to 21 gauge
C) 22 to 24 gauge
D) 25 to 29 gauge
Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when administering an intramuscular injection using the Z-track method?
A) Use a 1-inch needle.
B) Add 0.5 mL of air to the syringe.
C) Vigorously massage the injection site.
D) Pinch up the skin.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the composition of hypotonic intravenous solutions such as 0.45% NaCl?
A) Fewer dissolved particles than blood
B) Approximately the same number of dissolved particles as blood
C) Higher concentrations of dissolved particles than blood
D) Electrolytes and dextrose
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with cancer and requires 6 months of chemotherapy infusions. Which type of intravenous access device will likely be used?
A) Peripheral venous access device
B) Midline catheter
C) Winged-needle venous access device
D) Implantable venous infusion port
Q3) In assessing a patient with a central venous access device, which sign or symptom indicates that the patient is experiencing an air embolism?
A) Chest pain
B) Erythema
C) Frothy sputum
D) Sweating
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15
Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition would alert the nurse of the need to use beta-adrenergic blockers cautiously?
A) Hypertension
B) Raynaud's phenomenon
C) Emphysema
D) Cardiac dysrhythmias
Q2) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reports having insomnia and a racing heart after starting terbutaline therapy. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "The symptoms are usual and indicate that the medication is at a therapeutic level."
B) "The symptoms will tend to resolve with continued therapy."
C) "The symptoms are unusual and need to be reported to the health care provider immediately."
D) "The symptoms are indicative of toxicity."
Q3) Which nerve endings liberate norepinephrine?
A) Cholinergic
B) Adrenergic
C) Anticholinergic
D) Muscarinic
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving diazepam (Valium) is complaining of nausea and vomiting and is becoming jaundiced. Which type of blood work will be performed?
A) Renal function tests
B) Liver function tests
C) Clotting times
D) Electrolyte panels
Q2) Which disease is associated with insufficient sleep?
A) Cancer
B) Glaucoma
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Renal failure
Q3) What can occur as a result of rapid withdrawal from long-term use of barbiturate therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anxiety
B) Delirium
C) Weakness
D) Grand mal seizures
E) Severe pain
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17
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dopamine agonists have been linked with which adverse effects in patients with Parkinson's disease?
A) Oculogyric crisis
B) Tardive dyskinesia
C) Sudden sleep events
D) Akathisia
Q2) Which adverse effects associated with levodopa therapy would support the nursing diagnosis Risk for Injury?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Anorexia and depression
D) Tachycardia and palpitations
Q3) What is the rationale for administering levodopa for treatment of Parkinson's disease instead of dopamine?
A) Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier when administered orally.
B) Levodopa is much less expensive.
C) The half-life of dopamine is too short.
D) Dopamine has too many reactions with other medications.
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18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the drug of choice to treat a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
A) Lorazepam (Ativan)
B) Buspirone (BuSpar)
C) Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
D) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
Q2) The nurse is preparing to educate a patient and significant other about antianxiety medications before the patient's discharge. Which is pertinent information to be included in the teaching plan?
A) Discuss, review, and validate the behavior monitoring system and intervention flow sheet the patient and significant other will continue to use following discharge.
B) Discuss the possible dependence associated with the medication at length to make sure the patient does not overuse the drug.
C) Instruct the patient to educate family members about the medication therapy based on recollection of discussions with the nurse.
D) Provide all instructions verbally, with repetition as needed when requested by the patient.
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding the pharmacologic actions of certain antidepressant drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A) MAOIs block the effects of dopamine in the central nervous system.
B) SSRIs inhibit the destruction and reuptake of serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C) Tricyclic antidepressants block the action of norepinephrine and epinephrine in the SNS.
D) Monocyclic antidepressants such as bupropion (Wellbutrin) have an unknown mechanism of action.
E) SNRIs prolong the action of neurotransmitters by decreasing the destruction of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Q2) Which assessment would the nurse expect to observe in a patient who has been prescribed trazodone for treatment anxiety?
A) Excessive thirst
B) Hand tremor
C) Drowsiness
D) Diarrhea
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Spasmodic movements of muscle groups.
B) Masklike expression
C) Lip smacking
D) Inability to sit in one place for extended period
E) Weight gain
Q2) Which is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient who has recently been prescribed clozapine (Clozaril)?
A) Assess for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Encourage a low-fiber diet.
C) Measure the patient's waist circumference.
D) Monitor for insomnia.
Q3) Which type of adverse effects is present when a patient displays prolonged tonic contractions of the tongue, oculogyric crisis, and torticollis?
A) Dystonic reactions
B) Pseudoparkinsonism
C) Akathisia
D) Tardive dyskinesia
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg IV stat for a patient who was admitted with status epilepticus. What are important nursing considerations associated with administration of this medication IV? (Select all that apply.)
A) Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient to assess for continuous heart rate, if not already done.
B) Administer the prescribed dosage over 1 minute.
C) Mix diazepam in a primary IV solution to avoid overdosing.
D) Continuously assess the patient's airway.
E) Obtain the correct dose (10 mg) and administer over slow IV push.
Q2) Which response by the nurse is accurate when a patient who has been on lamotrigine (Lamictal) for seizure control reports a skin rash and urticaria?
A) Reassure the patient that this is a common adverse effect of the medication and not to worry.
B) Instruct the patient to discontinue use of the drug immediately.
C) Instruct the patient to decrease the dosage of the medication until the rash disappears.
D) Advise the patient that this adverse effect usually resolves but should be reported to the health care provider.
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sign or symptom displayed by a patient would be indicative of opiate withdrawal?
A) Bradycardia
B) Diarrhea
C) Lethargy
D) Hypothermia
Q2) Which statement is true about neuropathic pain?
A) This pain is the result of a stimulus to pain receptors.
B) Patients describe it as dull and aching.
C) It commonly originates in the abdominal region.
D) The pain is a result of nerve injury.
Q3) In which case would the nurse be correct in withholding an opiate agonist?
A) Evidence of postural hypotension
B) Presence of constipation
C) Pain rating of 7 on a 0 to 10 scale
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 25 would be considered to be in which weight category?
A) Underweight
B) Normal weight
C) Overweight
D) Obese
Q2) What is the incidence of metabolic syndrome in the United States?
A) 1 in 4000
B) 1 in 400
C) 1 in 40
D) 1 in 4
Q3) What lifestyle choices may aggravate metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Excessive tobacco smoking
B) Inadequate hydration
C) Excessive exercise
D) Inadequate caloric intake
E) Excessive consumption of alcohol
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin has antilipemic actions?
A) C
B) A
C) D
D) B<sub>3</sub>
Q2) What is the desired effect of any antilipemic therapy?
A) Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels
B) Reduced HDLs and total cholesterol levels
C) Reduced LDLs and HDLs
D) Reduced HDLs and dietary cholesterol levels
Q3) Which lipoprotein contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?
A) Chylomicrons
B) VLDL
C) LDL-C
D) HDL-C
Q4) Which antilipemic agent is most potent?
A) Niacin
B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
C) Bile acid-binding resin
D) Fibric acid
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complications are associated with uncontrolled hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina
B) Stroke
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Renal failure
E) Heart failure
Q2) A patient who has just begun taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor calls the nurse and reports feeling very dizzy when standing up, and asks if the medication should be discontinued. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Stop taking the medication immediately."
B) "Rise to a sitting or standing position slowly; your symptoms will resolve."
C) "I will schedule you to visit the health care provider today."
D) "Cut the pill in half and take a reduced dosage."
Q3) What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
A) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures
B) An indicator of the tone of the arterial blood vessel walls
C) The average pressure throughout each cycle of the heartbeat
D) The product of the cardiac output and the peripheral vascular resistance
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Page 26
Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to mix a lidocaine infusion for a patient. Which considerations should the nurse take into account before administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lidocaine with preservatives should be used.
B) Dextrose 5% is the solution to mix with lidocaine.
C) Therapeutic blood levels should be 1 to 5 mg/L.
D) The rate of administration is 1 to 4 mg/min.
E) Monitor for changes in neurological status.
Q2) Amiodarone is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Severe sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
Q3) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin), who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone), should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) CNS depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) How frequently are nitroglycerin tablets discarded and prescriptions refilled?
A) Monthly
B) Every 3 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Yearly
Q2) What will the nurse advise the patient to do to avoid the development of tolerance to nitroglycerin?
A) Use the sublingual form only.
B) Administer subsequent doses parenterally.
C) Allow for a daily 8- to 12-hour nitrate-free period.
D) Store the drug in a dark container, free from light and moisture.
Q3) Which lifestyle modifications will the nurse include when educating the patient with angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.)
A) Weight reduction therapy
B) Low-potassium diet
C) Smoking cessation
D) Stress management
E) Independent exercise
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the action of pentoxifylline (Trental), a hemorheologic agent used to treat chronic occlusive arteriole disease?
A) Vasodilates the peripheral arteries
B) Potentiates the blood clotting mechanism
C) Increases erythrocyte flexibility
D) Increases blood viscosity
Q2) The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient with Raynaud's disease who is soon to be discharged. Which information will be included to improve circulation and prevent complications of this disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Begin a daily exercise program.
B) Keep hands and feet warm.
C) Surgery is often the most effective treatment.
D) Elevate the lower extremities when reclining.
E) Smoking cessation will improve outcomes.
Q3) Which assessment verifies increased blood perfusion to the lower extremities?
A) Toes cool to the touch
B) Decreased sensation below the knees
C) Increased amplitude of pedal pulses
D) Paleness of the foot
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving 1400 units of heparin/hour on an IV pump. The aPTT time is 54. The laboratory control is 25. Which action by the nurse is accurate?
A) Bolus the patient with an additional 5000 units of heparin.
B) Stop the heparin immediately and notify the health care provider that the patient's blood level is toxic.
C) Administer protamine sulfate stat.
D) Continue with the prescribed rate.
Q2) The pharmacologic agents used to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT) may act in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prevent platelet aggregation
B) Prevent the extension of existing clots
C) Inhibit steps in the fibrin clot formation cascade
D) Prolong bleeding time
E) Lower serum triglycerides
Q3) Anticoagulant therapy may be used for which situations? (Select all that apply.)
A) To prevent stroke in patients at high risk
B) Following a myocardial infarction
C) Following total hip or knee joint replacement surgery
D) With deep vein thrombosis
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction by the nurse will be included when teaching an adult patient about digoxin (Lanoxin) for management of heart failure?
A) "Report nausea and vomiting to your health care provider."
B) "Decrease the amount of high-potassium foods you eat."
C) "Omit your dose of digoxin if your pulse is 60."
D) "Visual disturbances are common adverse effects."
Q2) Which is the initial manifestation of digoxin toxicity in children?
A) Hallucinations
B) Weakness
C) Atrial dysrhythmia
D) Diuresis
Q3) Which action will the nurse implement while providing care to a patient with heart failure?
A) Encourage fluid intake of 2 L/day.
B) Ambulate the patient within 1 hour after eating.
C) Maintain the patient in the supine position.
D) Weigh the patient daily.
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72612
Sample Questions
Q1) How soon will diuresis be expected to occur after the nurse has administered 20 mg of furosemide (Lasix) intravenously to a patient with heart failure?
A) As soon as injected
B) Within 10 minutes
C) After 2 hours
D) After 4 hours
Q2) On admission, a patient with a history of cardiac insufficiency complains of shortness of breath. The nurse auscultates the lungs and notes bilateral crackles throughout both fields. In addition, there is bilateral +2 edema of the lower extremities.
Which medication does the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will prescribe?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Mannitol
D) Furosemide (Lasix)
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72613
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Orbital edema
D) Facial flushing
Q2) Which medication may be given to patients with allergic seasonal rhinitis who do not respond to antihistamines and sympathomimetics?
A) Leukotrienes
B) Mineralocorticoids
C) Corticosteroids
D) Cortisol
Q3) What occurs in the nasal structures when cholinergic fibers are stimulated?
A) Dryness of mucous membranes in the nostrils
B) Bleeding in the mucous membranes in the nostrils
C) Production of serous and mucous secretions in the nostrils
D) Enhanced olfactory perception in the mucous membranes of the nostrils
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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72614
Sample Questions
Q1) Within minutes of the initiation of a nebulizer treatment with a sympathomimetic bronchodilator, the patient turns on his call light and states that he feels "panicky" and his heart is racing. Which action will the nurse take?
A) Reassure the patient this is expected.
B) Add more diluents to the nebulizer.
C) Administer a sedative.
D) Stop treatment and notify the health care provider.
Q2) The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent) to a patient with COPD. Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy?
A) Anxiety
B) Dry mouth
C) Tachycardia
D) Urine retention
Q3) What is the reason for administering potassium iodide to a patient with emphysema?
A) To increase blood iodide levels
B) To decrease mucus viscosity
C) To reduce metabolic needs of the body
D) To decrease bronchial irritation
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Page 34
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72615
Sample Questions
Q1) What infection is often called the "disease of the diseased" because it appears in debilitated patients?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Brucellosis
Q2) The nurse is completing education for a patient who will be undergoing chemotherapy next week. In anticipation of adverse effects associated with oral mucositis secondary to chemotherapy, which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid acidic and spicy foods.
B) Using docosanol (Abreva) will decrease the pain.
C) Milk of Magnesia can be used to rinse the mouth and coat mucous membranes.
D) Nystatin liquid can be taken orally to eliminate fungal infections.
E) Cleanse the oral cavity before applying topical agents.
F) Rinse the mouth with an OTC mouthwash.
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which explanation by the nurse is accurate to include when teaching a patient who is beginning therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with metoclopramide?
A) "This medication decreases esophageal muscle tone to reduce reflux."
B) "Peristalsis is increased, so food is digested more quickly."
C) "Gastric emptying is delayed, so you may feel full for longer intervals."
D) "This medication is an antikinetic agent, so you may have difficulty with motor skills."
Q2) Cimetidine (Tagamet) is an example of which class of drug?
A) Protokinetic agent
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Histamine (H2) receptor antagonist
D) Coating agent
Q3) Which drug therapy is aimed at reducing gastric acid secretions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prokinetic agents
B) Antacids
C) H2 antagonists
D) Proton pump inhibitors
E) Coating agents
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72617
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A) Initiates or induce vomiting
B) Coordinates the vomiting reflex
C) Activates the vomit center (VC) to induce vomiting
D) Samples blood and spinal fluid for potentially toxic substances
Q2) Why is drug therapy important for selected causes of nausea and vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A) Relieves the distress associated with nausea and vomiting
B) Prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lung
C) Prevents dehydration
D) Prevents electrolyte imbalances
E) Increases intracranial pressure
Q3) Which are important nursing assessments for monitoring the hydration status of infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Monitor oral mucous membranes, vital signs, and skin turgor twice each shift.
B) Monitor intake and output every shift.
C) Weigh every other day.
D) Monitor electrolyte and specific gravity laboratory values.
E) Provide diversional activities during hospitalization.
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72618
Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction by the nurse will assist in the patient's understanding of lactulose, an osmotic laxative?
A) "This medication draws water into the intestine and stimulates defecation."
B) "There is increased irritability directly on the intestinal wall."
C) "There is lubrication of the intestinal wall that softens the stool."
D) "There is an effect on the nerves to increase the peristalsis of the intestinal smooth muscle."
Q2) Which effect will the nurse expect when a patient is taking psyllium while on digoxin?
A) Decreased effectiveness of the laxative
B) Increased laxative effect
C) Increased absorption of the digoxin
D) Decreased absorption of the digoxin
Q3) Which drug would be most effective for an obstetric patient who is complaining of constipation secondary to her enlarging uterus and use of prenatal vitamins?
A) Saline laxative
B) Lubricant laxative
C) Stimulant laxative
D) Mineral oil
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72619
Sample Questions
Q1) It is 1400 and a patient who has been NPO since 12 AM for a bronchoscopy is complaining of a headache and shakiness, and is extremely irritable. Vital signs are within normal limits, and a one-touch glucose reads 50 mg/dL. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A) Have the patient eat a snack and drink milk.
B) Administer glucagon subcutaneously.
C) Call the bronchoscopy room to follow up with the delay.
D) Obtain an A<sub>1c</sub> test.
Q2) After a blood glucose reading, it is determined that the patient should receive 4 units of Lispro and 8 units of NPH. Which action will the nurse take to administer these medications?
A) Draw up each insulin in separate syringes and administer two injections.
B) Draw up the NPH first and then the Lispro using the same syringe.
C) Administer the Lispro before the meal and the NPH after the meal.
D) Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.
Q3) What test determines glycemic control over the previous 8 to 10 weeks?
A) 24-hour glucose clearance test
B) Fructosamine test
C) Fasting blood sugar
D) A<sub>1c</sub> test
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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72620
Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical symptoms would the nurse observe in a patient with thyrotoxicosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased metabolic rate
B) Decreased heart rate
C) Decreased body temperature
D) Muscle tremors
E) Restlessness
F) Anxiety
G) Sweating
Q2) A patient recently completed radiation treatment for throat cancer and presents to the health care provider's office with symptoms indicating possible hypothyroidism. Which symptoms would most likely be exhibited and/or reported? (Select all that apply.)
A) Inability to sleep
B) Weight gain
C) Lethargy
D) Nervousness
E) Cold intolerance
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72621
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient for adverse effects of long-term glucocorticoid therapy. Which condition would most likely be present?
A) Dehydration
B) Hypotension
C) Osteoporosis
D) Thrombocytopenia
Q2) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
Q3) A patient with type 2 diabetes is being discharged on glucocorticoid (prednisone) therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which information will the nurse include in discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Daily, single-dose therapy should be taken in the morning."
B) "The metabolic needs of your body will be increased."
C) "Steroids should never be abruptly discontinued."
D) "Signs and symptoms of infections may not be evident."
E) "Blood glucose levels will be elevated on corticosteroid therapy."
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72623
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is characterized by seizures?
A) Pregnancy-induced hypertension
B) Preeclampsia
C) Eclampsia
D) Premature rupture of membranes
Q2) Which medication is used to treat a patient with atonic uterus?
A) Estradiol
B) Ergonovine
C) Ergotamine
D) Egophony
Q3) For which reason will betamethasone IM be administered to the mother in premature labor?
A) To stop uterine contractions
B) To prevent precipitous labor
C) To stimulate lung maturity in the fetus
D) To stimulate prolactin to enhance breast-feeding
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is more likely to be experienced by women taking the minipill as an oral contraceptive?
A) Ovulation, dysmenorrhea, and break-through bleeding
B) Excessive weight gain and breast tenderness
C) Increased estrogen-related adverse effects
D) Difficulty breast-feeding after pregnancy
Q2) The nurse will teach the patient beginning therapy with alfuzosin, an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent, to expect which common adverse effects, which tend to be self-limiting? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nausea
B) Insomnia
C) Dizziness
D) Headache
E) Lethargy
F) Anorexia
Q3) What is the mechanism whereby estrogen functions as a contraceptive?
A) Inhibiting LH, blocking release of ovum from a follicle
B) Thinning cervical mucus, which inhibits sperm migration
C) Trapping the ovum in the endometrial wall, preventing its growth
D) Blocking FSH, thereby preventing release of ovum
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72625
Sample Questions
Q1) After undergoing prostate surgery, a patient is discharged on the medication phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) to assist with urinary catheter discomfort. Which information will the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A) Urine will have a foul smell while taking this medication.
B) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping are expected adverse effects.
C) The sclera of the eye is yellow while on therapy.
D) Urine will appear reddish orange.
Q2) A patient has been taking an antimicrobial agent prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection for 2 days. She contacts the health care provider's office to report persistence of symptoms. In evaluating the medication effectiveness, which assessments would be important to inquire about? (Select all that apply.)
A) Complete emptying of the bladder
B) Amount of pain with urination as well as frequency
C) Amount of daily fluid intake and output
D) GI symptom complaints
E) Bleeding with urination
F) Persistence of nocturia
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72626
Sample Questions
Q1) A factory worker had a chemical inadvertently splashed into his right eye. An eyewash was used at the work site. Which nursing assessments are important to include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Visual acuity
B) Presence of pain, blurred or halo vision, or lack of vision
C) Type of chemical
D) Presence of nystagmus
E) Presence of contacts or use of eyeglasses
Q2) Which is a potential serious adverse effect associated with mannitol (Osmitrol)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Fluid overload
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Fever
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of osmotic agents when used to decrease IOP?
A) Promoting outflow of the aqueous humor into the tear ducts
B) Increasing plasma osmolarity and drawing extracellular fluid into the blood
C) Blocking production of aqueous humor
D) Decreasing viscosity of the tears and allowing fluid to drain away from the eye
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72627
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are major chemotherapeutic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alkylating agents
B) Antineoplastic antibiotics
C) Hormones
D) Antimetabolites
E) Antinuclear antibodies
F) Chelating agents
Q2) The nurse is providing education about chemotherapy to a patient who is being discharged. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will shave with an electric razor."
B) "I will take aspirin for a headache."
C) "I will wash my laundry separate from other family members."
D) "I will flush the toilet twice after using."
Q3) Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane) therapy most likely to exhibit?
A) Increased respiratory rate and cough
B) Weight gain and peripheral edema
C) Numbness and tingling of hands and feet
D) Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72628
Sample Questions
Q1) Which laboratory values will the nurse review prior to beginning medication therapy for skeletal and muscle disorders?
A) Sodium, magnesium, and chloride
B) C-reactive protein (CRP), human leukocyte antigen (HLA), and liver function tests
C) Arterial blood gases (ABGs), complete blood count (CBC), and electrolytes
D) Glucose, high-density lipoproteins (HDL), and prothrombin time (PT)
Q2) The patient's family asks why neuromuscular blocking agents are used before electroconvulsive therapy. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "They stimulate respirations while therapy is delivered."
B) "They prevent aspiration of respiratory secretions during the therapy."
C) "They decrease intracranial pressure secondary to therapy."
D) "They reduce the risk of injury during therapy."
Q3) Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms secondary to a back injury?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine sulfate
C) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72629
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect?
A) Hepatic toxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Splenotoxicity
Q2) A patient allergic to penicillin is being evaluated for a gram-negative infection. Which antimicrobial drug class would the health care provider be cautious in prescribing because of a possible cross-sensitivity and/or allergic reaction?
A) Cephalosporins
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Sulfonamides
D) Quinolones
Q3) Which drug is incompatible with heparin?
A) Gentamicin
B) Ampicillin (Unasyn)
C) Ticarcillin (Timentin)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which actions will the nurse perform?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Assess for electrolyte imbalance.
B) Check residual volume qid.
C) Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.
D) Monitor blood glucose levels.
E) Discard the solution every 24 hours.
Q2) What is the best way for the nurse to administer liquid iron?
A) With an antacid
B) Mixed with coffee
C) Sipped through a straw
D) Swished and then swallowed
Q3) Which is a macronutrient that is a separate factor necessary for complete nutrition and wellness?
A) A phytochemical
B) A trace mineral
C) Fiber
D) A vitamin
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72631
Sample Questions
Q1) Which dietary supplement is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Ginkgo
B) Ephedra
C) Garlic
D) Saw palmetto
Q2) Which dietary supplement should be used with extreme caution if the patient is on a platelet inhibitor?
A) Aloe
B) Ephedra
C) Green tea
D) Garlic
Q3) What is the primary use of echinacea?
A) Reduce premenstrual symptoms
B) Decrease blood pressure
C) Stimulate the immune system
D) Increase energy
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72632
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has completed substance abuse treatment for alcoholism. Which of the following will assist in long-term goal attainment and promote abstinence? (Select all that apply.)
A) Naltrexone therapy
B) Regular attendance at NA
C) Regular contact with his program sponsor
D) Following the 12-step program of AA
E) Diazepam therapy to reduce the likelihood of DTs
Q2) What must be administered before glucose infusions for a patient in alcohol withdrawal to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B) Thiamine
C) Diazepam (Valium)
D) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Q3) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A) It indicates illegal drug use.
B) It verifies drug dependency.
C) It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D) It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
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Page 52
Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with early Alzheimer's disease is started on tacrine (Cognex), an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. How will the nurse evaluate that the drug has been effective?
A) Decrease in the patient's agitation
B) Improvement in the patient's cognitive skills
C) Slowing of disease progression by using a standardized tool
D) Less frequent repetitive behaviors
Q2) What condition is allopurinol (Zyloprim) used to treat?
A) Gout secondary to antineoplastic therapy
B) Acute attacks of gouty arthritis
C) Cholelithiasis
D) First-time gout attacks
Q3) Which conditions and/or circumstances warrant caution when colchicine is used for a patient with gout? (Select all that apply.)
A) Older adult
B) Compromised immunity
C) Psychosis
D) Renal failure
E) Cardiac compromise
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