Medical-Surgical Nursing Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasizing clinical decision-making, critical thinking, and evidence-based practice, the course covers the pathophysiology, assessment, diagnosis, planning, intervention, and evaluation of common medical-surgical disorders. Students learn to manage patient care across various settings, integrate interdisciplinary collaboration, and promote patient safety and holistic well-being. Through theoretical instruction and clinical experiences, learners develop the foundational competence required for professional nursing practice in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
Q2) A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake.This is an example of A) primary prevention. B) secondary prevention. C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
Q3) A disease that is native to a particular region is called A) epidemic.
B) endemic. C) pandemic.
D) ethnographic.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Q2) Allostasis is best defined as
A) steady state.
B) a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism.
C) the process by which the body heals following disease.
D) the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
Answer: D
Q3) The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is A) energy and repair.
B) invoke resting state.
C) produce exhaustion.
D) set a new baseline steady state.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the
A) mitochondria.
B) ribosome.
C) lysosome.
D) nucleus.
Answer: A
Q2) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q3) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious injury often results from A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
Q2) All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except A) necrosis.
B) metaplasia.
C) atrophy.
D) hyperplasia.
Q3) Reperfusion injury to cells
A) results in very little cellular damage.
B) results from calcium deficiency in cells.
C) occurs following nutritional injury.
D) involves formation of free radicals.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q2) In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to A) pry DNA apart.
B) unwind and separate the DNA strands.
C) prevent tangling of DNA strands as they unwind.
D) match appropriate bases to the template base.
E) proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing.
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the human DNA chromosomes code for proteins?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 80%
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is due to the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q2) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Q3) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q4) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
8
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
Q2) Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass.The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is
A) high-fat diet.
B) urban pollutants.
C) stressful lifestyle.
D) cigarette smoking.
Q3) The most common tumor suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is
A) Rb.
B) P53.
C) DCC.
D) APC.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk of infection is increased in A) use of corticosteroids.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) spleen removal.
D) stomach removal.
E) stress.
Q2) Immune function is likely to be most effective in a A) newborn.
B) 7-month-old infant.
C) 30-year-old.
D) 70-year-old.
Q3) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q2) The primary function of eosinophils is to
A) kill parasitic helminths (worms).
B) kill bacteria.
C) stop viral replication.
D) phagocytize fungi.
Q3) The membrane attack complex formed by complement is similar in function to A) CD4<sup>+</sup>.
B) granzymes.
C) gp120.
D) perforin.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is
A) DiGeorge.
B) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
C) Wiskott-Aldrich.
D) selective IgA.
Q2) Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells.These proteins are called ________ proteins.
A) complement
B) antibody receptor
C) HLA or MHC
D) TCR or BCR
Q3) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
Q4) Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Malnutrition immunodeficiency
C) Cancer immunodeficiency
D) Radiation immunodeficiency
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12
Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
Q2) Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which
A) there is a high rejection rate.
B) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor.
C) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin.
D) stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment.Which treatments may be used to treat this patient's cancer?
A) Radiation
B) Bone marrow transplant
C) Chemotherapy
D) Lymph node transplant
E) Monoclonal antibody therapy
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13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-positive rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
Q2) A patient presents to the clinic with flu-like symptoms and a rash.The nurse knows that the type of rash associated with HIV may include A) maculopapular.
B) vesicular.
C) impetigo.
D) urticarial.
E) psoriasis.
Q3) An HIV-positive patient is hospitalized for evaluation of symptoms of progressive weakness, dyspnea, weight loss, and low-grade fever.A biopsy of lung tissue reveals Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.This diagnosis means that the patient A) has AIDS.
B) has less than 2 years to live.
C) cannot be treated.
D) was an intravenous drug abuser.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the A) Bohr effect.
B) oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.
C) dissociation curve.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
Q2) Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of A) glucose.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) acetyl coenzyme A.
Q3) Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
A) Increased total iron-binding capacity
B) Increased heart rate
C) Hypovolemia
D) Jaundice
Q4) Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both A) hyperchromic.
B) microcytic.
C) genetic.
D) responsive to iron therapy.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department with acute flank pain.What additional signs of bleeding may the patient exhibit?
A) Hematuria
B) Melena
C) Hematemesis
D) Menorrhagia
E) Hemoptysis
Q2) Which diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem?
A) Urinary retention
B) Renal failure
C) Cirrhosis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Ovarian cancer
Q3) Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q2) The smallest vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic vessels are commonly referred to as the ________.
Q3) Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow by controlling A) perfusion pressure.
B) arterial blood pressure.
C) vascular resistance.
D) venous return to the heart.
Q4) Velocity of blood flow is measured in A) centimeters per second.
B) millimeters per minute.
C) yards per hour.
D) kilometers per minute.
Q5) The primary functions of the circulatory system are
A) transport oxygen.
B) transport nutrients.
C) remove metabolic waste.
D) reabsorb leaking fluid.
E) return leukocytes to the circulation.
17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for A) stroke.
B) cognitive impairment.
C) death.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) urinary retention.
Q2) An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by
A) positioning the arm above the heart level.
B) using a cuff that is too small.
C) positioning the arm at heart level.
D) measuring blood pressure after exercise.
Q3) After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later.The patient reports "moderate" adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 mm Hg to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure.What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
A) Continue lifestyle modifications only.
B) Continue lifestyle modifications plus diuretic therapy.
C) Continue lifestyle modifications plus ACE inhibitor therapy.
D) Continue lifestyle modifications plus b-blocker therapy.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial cells are connected by gap junctions enabling them to A) all be stimulated simultaneously.
B) function as a coordinated syncytium.
C) be affected by the autonomic nervous system.
D) share ATP.
Q2) Which is true about blood flow from the atria?
A) Occurs primarily during systole, because perfusion pressure is high
B) Is controlled primarily by the autonomic nervous system
C) Is increased with elevated right atrial pressure
D) Occurs primarily during ventricular diastole
Q3) Which is a true statement about the affect of the Frank-Starling law on the heart?
A) Increased diastolic stretching of myocardial fibers produces increased stroke volume.
B) Sympathetic activation leads to increased myocardial contractility and heart rate.
C) An increase in heart chamber diameter increases myocardial wall tension.
D) An increase in coronary artery diameter results in less rapid coronary blood flow.
Q4) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of
A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpes virus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q2) An elderly patient's blood pressure is measured at 160/98.How would the patient's left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?
A) This is an expected blood pressure in the elderly and has little effect on left ventricular function.
B) Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.
C) High blood pressure enhances left ventricular perfusion during systole.
D) High-pressure workload leads to left ventricular atrophy.
Q3) An example of an acyanotic heart defect is
A) tetralogy of Fallot.
B) transposition of the great arteries.
C) ventricular septal defect.
D) all right-to-left shunt defects.
Q4) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Q5) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/min on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?
A) Third-degree heart block
B) Junctional tachycardia
C) Ventricular escape rhythm
D) Sinus bradycardia
Q2) A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit A) jugular vein distention.
B) pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.
C) peripheral edema.
D) hepatomegaly.
Q3) Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
Q4) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
Q5) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sepsis has been recently redefined as
A) a systemic infection with viable organisms in the bloodstream.
B) a systemic inflammatory response to ischemia.
C) a systemic inflammatory response to infection.
D) severe hypotension in an infected patient.
Q2) In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 ml of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?
A) Class I, Initial Stage
B) Class II, Compensated Stage
C) Class III, Progressive Stage
D) Class IV, Refractory Stage
Q3) A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath.The lung sounds are absent on one side.This patient is experiencing ________ shock.
A) cardiogenic
B) obstructive
C) hypovolemic
D) distributive
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22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulmonary structure that has the least pulmonary blood flow is
A) lung apex.
B) middle lung.
C) lower lung.
D) zone 4.
Q2) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are
A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
Q3) Most of the carbon dioxide in blood is transported
A) as bicarbonate.
B) on the hemoglobin molecule.
C) as carbonic acid.
D) dissolved in plasma.
Q4) Surfactant is a phospholipid that reduces
A) pulmonary vascular capacitance.
B) elastic recoil force.
C) alveolar surface tension.
D) pulmonary capillary fragility.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acute asthma attack is associated with A) bronchoconstriction.
B) bronchial mucosal edema.
C) hypersecretion of mucus.
D) alveolar collapse.
E) hypoxemia.
Q2) The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by
A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased expiratory flow rates.
C) increased residual lung volumes.
D) decreased chest wall compliance.
Q3) Allergic (extrinsic)asthma is associated with A) hyporesponsiveness of airways.
B) unknown precipitating factors.
C) IgE-mediated airway inflammation.
D) irreversible airway obstruction.
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24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via A) sputum culture.
B) Mantoux skin test.
C) chest x-ray.
D) blood culture.
Q2) The organism that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B) Haemophilus tuberculosis.
C) Tuberculosis tuberculoci.
D) Mycococcidio tuberculosis.
Q3) Restrictive respiratory disorders include A) pneumothorax.
B) emphysema.
C) chronic asthma.
D) type B COPD.
E) ARDS.
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25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?
A) Infants
B) Adolescents
C) Young adults
D) Older adults
Q2) A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures.To determine if her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly
A) check the patellar reflex; if it becomes more and more hyperactive, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
B) check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
C) check the patellar reflex; if it stays the same, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
D) check for seizure activity; if no seizures occur, her infusion rate is correct.
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q2) Respiratory acidosis is associated with A) increased carbonic acid.
B) hypokalemia.
C) increased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased pH.
Q3) Respiratory acidosis may be caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q4) A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) metabolic acidosis.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding on urinalysis should prompt further evaluation?
A) pH 4.5
B) Red blood cells 2 per high-power field
C) Specific gravity of 1.015
D) White blood cells 20 per high-power field
Q2) The glomerular filtration rate is most accurately reflected in the
A) blood urea nitrogen level.
B) urinary output.
C) serum osmolality.
D) serum creatinine level.
Q3) Renin is released from
A) the posterior pituitary gland.
B) the liver.
C) juxtaglomerular cells.
D) macula densa cells.
Q4) It is true that glucose reabsorption in the tubules
A) occurs passively.
B) occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule.
C) is unlimited.
D) simply does not occur.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal stone formation is affected by
A) urine concentration.
B) urine PH.
C) metabolic/congenital conditions.
D) dietary intake.
E) potassium level.
Q2) Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because
A) hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.
B) lipids are not excreted in the urine.
C) body fats are catabolized.
D) muscles stop burning triglycerides for energy.
Q3) The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is
A) kidney stone formation.
B) hydronephrosis.
C) dilation of the urethra.
D) anuria.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is
A) decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
B) decreased serum sodium.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) increased serum creatinine.
Q2) Renal insufficiency occurs when _____ of the nephrons are not functional.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75% to 90%
D) more than 90%
Q3) One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)is
A) ischemic conditions.
B) cytotoxic agents.
C) immune reaction.
D) prolonged postrenal kidney injury.
Q4) The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
A) insufficient filtration of bicarbonate ions at the glomerulus.
B) excessive production of respiratory and metabolic acids.
C) insufficient metabolic acid excretion due to nephron loss.
D) hypoventilation secondary to uremic central nervous system depression.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence
A) occurs in women, whereas urge incontinence occurs in both men and women.
B) occurs during sleep, whereas urge incontinence occurs during the waking hours.
C) is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.
D) is caused by a detrusor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a neurological problem.
Q2) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
Q3) Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for A) overflow incontinence.
B) reflux prevention.
C) urge incontinence. D) functional incontinence.
Q4) The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis include the presence of A) WBCs and RBCs. B) nitrites.
C) casts.
D) bacteria.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q2) Characteristics of declining reproductive function in the aged male include A) decline in sperm production.
B) reduced testosterone production.
C) shrinking testes.
D) increased penile sensation.
E) reduction in size of the penis.
Q3) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
Q4) The activation of sperm after they enter the vagina is called A) flagellation.
B) ejaculation.
C) emission.
D) capacitation.
Q5) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of A) prostatitis.
B) urinary calculi.
C) bladder carcinoma.
D) prostatic enlargement.
Q2) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q3) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q4) A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for A) endocrine disorders.
B) vascular abnormalities.
C) female sex assignment.
D) epispadias.
Q6) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______. Page 33
Q5) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before the onset of menstruation, water retention and breast swelling is thought to be due to high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q2) Which organs are part of the female reproductive tract?
A) Ovaries
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Urethra
Q3) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes, tachycardia, palpitations, and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to
A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
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35
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes
A) a history of fibrocystic breast disease.
B) more than three pregnancies prior to age 35.
C) malnourishment.
D) early menarche and late first pregnancy.
Q2) Which symptom would be manifested in a woman diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Excessive vomiting
B) Proteinuria
C) Peripheral edema
D) Increased arterial pressure
E) Hemorrhage
Q3) The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
A) ovarian cysts.
B) endometriomas.
C) hydatidiform moles.
D) leiomyomas.
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Page 36
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy?
A) Syphilis
B) Nongonococcal cervicitis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Molluscum contagiosum
Q2) Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear __________days after infection.
A) 1 to 2
B) 3 to 7
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 14
Q3) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation of the stomach would
A) decrease motility.
B) decrease hydrogen chloride secretion.
C) inhibit acidity.
D) stimulate motility.
Q2) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
Q3) How much fluid is secreted from the intestinal glands daily?
A) 1/2 liter
B) 1 liter
C) 2 liters
D) 4 liters
Q4) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proton pump inhibitors may be used in the management of peptic ulcer disease to A) increase gastric motility.
B) inhibit secretion of pepsinogen.
C) neutralize gastric acid.
D) decrease hydrochloric acid (HCl) secretion.
Q2) Barrett esophagus is a A) gastrin secreting lesion.
B) preneoplastic lesion.
C) benign condition.
D) gastrin-secreting tumor.
Q3) Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of A) pancreatitis.
B) cardiac angina.
C) gastric ulcer.
D) dysphagia.
Q4) Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by A) maintaining a low-fiber diet.
B) maintaining the current level of activity.
C) fecal disimpaction.
D) increasing fiber in the diet.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
Q2) Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for A) respiratory depression.
B) narcotic dependency.
C) sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
D) allergic reaction.
Q3) The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is A) lithotripsy of stones.
B) chemical dissolution of stones.
C) antibiotics and anti-inflammatories.
D) cholecystectomy.
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Page 40
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
Q2) Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to A) elevated bilirubin.
B) diminished protein metabolism.
C) fluid accumulation.
D) portal hypertension.
Q3) A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia.The expected diagnosis is A) ascites.
B) cerebral edema.
C) hepatic encephalopathy.
D) gastroesophageal varices.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary endocrine disorder occurs when
A) the pituitary gland oversecretes hormones.
B) the pituitary gland undersecretes hormones.
C) exogenous hormones suppress endogenous production.
D) the target gland is unresponsive to pituitary regulation.
Q2) In primary thyroid hormone deficiency, the TSH levels are A) high.
B) low.
C) undetectable.
D) constantly fluctuating.
Q3) An example of a lipid-soluble hormone is A) catecholamine.
B) thyroid hormone.
C) peptide hormone.
D) pituitary hormone.
Q4) The tightness of the hormone-receptor bond is known as A) specificity.
B) affinity.
C) half-life.
D) set point.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes insipidus is a condition that A) results from inadequate ADH secretion.
B) is characterized by oliguria.
C) is associated with anterior pituitary dysfunction. D) leads to glycosuria.
Q2) Which are major classifications of deficiencies in growth hormone secretion?
A) Increased IGF-1
B) Decreased GH secretion
C) Defective GH action
D) Decreased IGG secretion
E) Defective IGF-1 generation
Q3) A patient presenting with muscle cramps, fatigue, anxiety, depression and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of A) hyperparathyroidism.
B) hypoparathyroidism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) SIADH.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with A) nonketotic hyperosmolality.
B) childhood.
C) autoimmune destruction of the pancreas.
D) ketoacidosis.
Q2) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q3) A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is A) acetone breath.
B) warm, dry skin.
C) tremors.
D) hyperventilation.
Q4) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) insulin resistance and b-cell dysfunction.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metabolic response to fever is
A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
Q2) During times of fasting, the body uses ________ as a source of energy.
A) protein
B) fat
C) carbohydrates
D) glucagon
Q3) Which are effects of malnutrition on the cardiovascular system?
A) Primary cardiomyopathy
B) Increased oxygen demand
C) Increased cardiac output
D) Atrophy of cardiac muscle
E) Decreased cardiac output
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pupil constriction is controlled by cranial nerve
A) II.
B) III.
C) VIII.
D) IX.
Q2) The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
A) extracellular sodium ion concentration.
B) the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ion.
C) activation of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D) activity of energy-dependent membrane ion pumps.
Q3) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning?
A) Spontaneous eye opening, movement to command, oriented to self only
B) Eyes open to light touch on shoulder, pupils briskly reactive to light bilaterally
C) Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response
D) No eye opening, responds to painful stimulus by withdrawing
Q2) The most important preventative measure for hemorrhagic stroke is
A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q3) The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)may be
A) decorticate posturing.
B) absence of verbalization.
C) sluggish pupil response to light.
D) Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that Bell palsy is a
A) permanent facial paralysis after stroke.
B) painful neuropathic pain affecting the trigeminal nerve.
C) paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
D) herpetic outbreak in a facial dermatome.
Q2) Before making a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease
A) a brain biopsy demonstrating organic changes is necessary.
B) biochemical tests for aluminum toxicity must be positive.
C) other potential causes of dementia must be ruled out.
D) increased protein is found in a lumbar puncture.
Q3) Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy?
A) Birth trauma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Kernicterus
D) Prenatal maternal infection
E) Scoliosis
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition of ocular misalignment that causes a cross-eyed appearance is referred to as
A) strabismus.
B) amblyopia.
C) cataract.
D) retinopathy.
Q2) Expected management of acute otitis media includes
A) surgical removal of debris in the middle ear.
B) placement of ventilation tubes in the tympanic membrane.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) adenoidectomy.
Q3) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to
A) keep the patient on bedrest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
Q2) Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of A) histamine.
B) endorphins.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) glutamine.
Q3) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symptoms of hallucinations and paranoia that accompany schizophrenia are thought to be due to altered neurotransmitter activity in the brain, which results in excessive ________ receptor activation.
A) D2
B) serotonin
C) a-adrenergic
D) acetylcholine
Q2) The usual age of onset for schizophrenia in men is
A) before puberty.
B) 15 to 25 years.
C) 40 to 65 years.
D) after 65 years.
Q3) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder?
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
Q2) The most common childhood psychiatric disorder is A) bipolar disorder.
B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) psychosis.
Q3) Early treatment of panic anxiety disorder focuses on A) the use of sedative agents.
B) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C) dopamine antagonistic medications.
D) the use of respiratory stimulants.
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52
Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Articular cartilage is avascular and A) completely incapable of regeneration.
B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
Q2) Osteoblastic activity is greatest
A) in areas of increased mechanical stress.
B) during menopause.
C) with vitamin D deficiency.
D) with disuse due to immobility.
Q3) The epiphyseal plate
A) provides support to long bones.
B) prevents overactivity of osteoblasts.
C) allows for continued bone lengthening during maturation.
D) has an unknown function.
Q4) Osteoclast activity leads to
A) hardening of the bones.
B) resorption of bone.
C) deposition of bone.
D) arthritis.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk factor for osteoporosis is
A) endometriosis.
B) early menopause.
C) late menopause.
D) ovarian cysts.
Q2) The most common source of osteomyelitis is
A) an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.
B) direct invasion from a fracture.
C) surgical contamination.
D) a joint prosthesis.
Q3) Characteristics of scoliosis include
A) involvement of lateral curvature of the spine.
B) increase during periods of rapid growth.
C) more common in boys.
D) identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence.
E) possibility of leading to respiratory complications.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis would be
A) systemic manifestations of inflammation.
B) localized pain in weight-bearing joints.
C) reduced excretion of uric acid by the kidney.
D) firm, crystallized nodules or "tophi" at the affected joints.
Q2) Tophi are
A) renal calculi composed of uric acid.
B) deposits of urate crystals in tissues.
C) painful edematous joints.
D) spots that coalesce in a malar rash.
Q3) The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are
A) stress fractures of the epiphysis, inflammation of the diaphysis, and accumulation of excessive synovial fluid.
B) autoimmune damage to the synovium, destruction of articular cartilage by pannus, and thickening of synovial fluid.
C) degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.
D) thinning of the joint capsule, resorption of bone, excessive formation of new bone, and formation of bone spurs.
Page 55
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common, benign form of skin cancer?
A) Basal
B) Squamous
C) Melanoma
D) Actinic keratosis
Q2) Which finding is characteristic of oral candidiasis?
A) Silvery plaques on the skin
B) Itching, oozing rash
C) Thickened, discolored nails
D) Whitish coating on the tongue
Q3) The cancer considered to be the most malignant is A) hyperkeratosis.
B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
Q4) Manifestations of herpes zoster include
A) multiple fluid-filled vesicles on the lips, tongue, and hands.
B) generalized, painful maculopapular rash.
C) red, itchy palms and soles of feet.
D) a dermatomal distribution of lesions and pain.
56
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
Q2) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is
A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
Q3) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by
A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
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