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Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that introduces students to the principles and practices of caring for adult patients with a wide variety of medical and surgical conditions. The course emphasizes patient-centered care, critical thinking, and the integration of theoretical knowledge with clinical skills. Topics include assessment and management of common health problems, perioperative care, pharmacology, infection control, fluid and electrolyte balance, and the nursing process. Students learn to collaborate with multidisciplinary teams, prioritize patient safety, and deliver evidence-based interventions to promote optimal health outcomes in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5455
Sample Questions
Q1) Graduates of the first school for training the practical nurse were referred to as ___________ nurses.
Answer: attendant
The first school for training the practical nurse started in Brooklyn, New York in 1892 and was conducted under the auspices of the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA). The Ballard School, as it was known, was approximately 3 months in duration and trained its students to care for the chronically ill, invalids, children, and the elderly. The main emphasis was on home care and included cooking, nutrition, basic science, and basic procedures. Graduates of this program were referred to as attendant nurses.
Q2) What is the wellness/illness continuum defined as?
A) A concept that never changes
B) The range of a person's total health
C) A continuum influenced only by one's physical condition
D) An idea that focuses strictly on an individual's social well-being
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse protects the information in a patient's record what ethical responsibility is the nurse fulfilling?
A) Privacy
B) Disclosure
C) Confidentiality
D) Absolute secrecy
Answer: C
Q2) A lumbar puncture was performed on a patient without a signed informed consent form. This patient might sue for:
A) punitive damages.
B) civil battery.
C) assault.
D) nothing; no violation has occurred.
Answer: B
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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30 Flashcards
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Q1) What form explains the lapse when events are not consistent with facility or national standards of expected care?
A) Subjective data
B) Focus chart
C) Incident report
D) Nursing assessment
Answer: C
Q2) What is the nurse required to do to adhere to the concept of confidentiality for the patient's medical record?
A) Provide information only to another nurse
B) Provide information only to an attorney
C) Share information only with the family
D) Have a clinical reason for reading the record
Answer: D
Q3) What is the documentation format that uses the acronym SOAPE?
A) Problem-oriented
B) Focused
C) Traditional
D) Crisis Answer: A
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Q1) A patient roughly asks the nurse to bring him some ice cream. What would be considered an assertive response by the nurse?
A) "You are hungry and want a snack."
B) "I can do that in 10 minutes when I finish my rounds."
C) "Maybe I can get one of the aides to bring you something in a while."
D) "Call the nursing station and ask them to have the kitchen bring whatever you want."
Q2) A nurse actively avoids the use of one-way communication. What is the major problem with one-way communication?
A) The receiver is in control.
B) Feedback is provided to the sender.
C) Participation is not equal.
D) The communication is unstructured.
Q3) A nurse must violate the personal space of a patient to perform an invasive procedure. How can the nurse reduce the discomfort of the patient?
A) By approaching the interaction in a professional manner
B) By distracting the patient with jokes and humor
C) By asking another nurse to be present at the bedside
D) By assuring the patient that all people dislike invasion of personal space
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a urinary tract infection is assessed using a clinical pathway. When a projected outcome is not met by a predetermined date, it is determined that what has occurred?
A) Omission
B) Variance
C) Failure
D) Error
Q2) The standards that name and measure patient outcomes are referred to as
Q3) When a nurse selects interventions to assist the patient to meet the needs demonstrated, the nurse is in which phase of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Q4) A clinical judgment about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems/life processes is known as a _____________
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a meal tray for a patient who is a Latter-Day Saint. What beverage should the nurse prepare?
A) Tea with all meals
B) Coffee each morning
C) Cola beverages
D) Fruit juice
Q2) Culture varies from patient to patient. Why is it important that the nurse understand and accept each person as an individual?
A) To develop a plan of care
B) To provide holistic care
C) To identify differences
D) To support each patient
Q3) A set of learned values, beliefs, customs, and practices that are shared by a group and are passed from one generation to another is known as ________________.
Q4) The nurse should not maintain eye contact with a Korean patient because many Asians believe prolonged eye contact is _____________.
Q5) Following the death of a Presbyterian infant, the nurse should help arrange for
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient in isolation may experience psychological or emotional deprivation. What should the nurse do to help minimize these feelings?
A) Be cheerful
B) Spend extra time with the patient
C) Protect the patient from additional infection
D) Answer the call light quickly
Q2) The nurse is instructing a bioterrorism class regarding anthrax. How can anthrax be transmitted?
A) From person to person
B) Through microscopic skin punctures
C) Through inhalation of the spores
D) By exposure to animals that have anthrax
Q3) The infection control practitioner plans an in-service on control of health care-associated infections. What should be the focus of this program?
A) Observing nurses caring for patients
B) Screening patients who are admitted to the hospital
C) Educating hospital personnel about aseptic practices
D) Discharging infectious patients from the hospital
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the site of the most common strain injury acquired by the nurse when working?
A) Trapezius muscle group
B) Thoracic muscle group
C) Lumbar muscle group
D) Thigh muscle group
Q2) What is considered to be the minimum number of hours of daily activity necessary to prevent the negative consequences of immobility?
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
Q3) Where should the nurse place the load when carrying heavy objects?
A) In a low position
B) To the side of the body
C) Close to the body midline
D) With another's assistance
Q4) _________________________________machines flex and extend joints to mobilize them passively without the strain of active exercises.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the nurse recognize is important to consider when using the nursing process to plan hygiene care of the patient?
A) Nurse's orders
B) Physician's orders
C) Patient's preferences
D) Outcome goals
Q2) As a safety precaution against breakage of dentures, the nurse should place __________ in the emesis basin before cleaning the dentures.
Q3) The physician orders a patient to be placed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. How should the nurse place the bed?
A) On the floor
B) Parallel with the floor
C) Tilted with the head of the bed down
D) Tilted with the foot of the bed down
Q4) When must the nurse remember to use an electric razor when shaving a patient?
A) When a bleeding tendency is present
B) When there is a risk for suicide
C) When the facial hair is fine
D) When speed is essential
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A) Vacuum the spill
B) Open interior doors
C) Close all outside windows
D) Open any outside windows
Q2) The nurse conducting a seminar on bioterrorism reviews several types of agents that may be used as weapons. An agent that does not seriously damage or kill the target population but only impairs it is classified as _____________.
Q3) What type of fire extinguisher should the nurse use when the oxygen concentrator machine malfunctions and causes an electrical fire?
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
Q4) ___________ is a violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda.
Q5) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pulse-the expansion and contraction of an artery- produced by?
A) Contraction of the right atrium
B) Contraction of the right ventricle
C) Contraction of the left atrium
D) Contraction of the left ventricle
Q2) A patient is admitted to a medical surgical unit. What factors will determine how frequently vital signs will be assessed? (Select all that apply.)
A) Desire of the patient
B) Judgment of need by the nurse
C) Discretion of the family
D) Orders of the health care provider
E) Patient's condition
Q3) What is the term for a fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well?
A) Constant
B) Intermittent
C) Remittent
D) Elevated
Q4) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Listening for bowel sounds should be done over all four quadrants of the abdomen using the diaphragm of the stethoscope. What is the normal rate of bowel sounds per min-ute?
A) 2-10
B) 3-20
C) 4-32
D) 5-40
Q2) The nurse is meeting a patient for the first time. What is the first thing the nurse will do to initiate a nurse-patient relationship?
A) Appear interested
B) Introduce herself/himself
C) Provide support
D) Communicate trust
Q3) During a physical assessment, the nurse notes a patient passes frequent loose liquid stools. What should the nurse document that the patient is experiencing?
A) Dyspnea
B) Cyanosis
C) Diaphoresis
D) Diarrhea
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Q1) Where can a nurse refer the family of a patient to find a source of financial aid to meet medical expenses?
A) A local bank
B) A clinical nurse specialist
C) The hospital administration
D) Social services
Q2) What essential part of the admission procedure is performed by the RN?
A) Securing the patient's valuables
B) Confirming the type of insurance coverage
C) Obtaining a health history
D) Familiarizing the patient with the room
Q3) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
Q4) Because of the stress caused by hospitalization, the nurse assesses a newly admitted older adult patient for ________________.
Q5) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifies wounds according to the amount of contamination. What is the classification for an uninfected surgical wound with less than a 5% chance of becoming infected postoperatively?
A) Dirty wound
B) Clean-contaminated wound
C) Contaminated wound
D) Clean wound
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes bright red drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q3) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
Q4) The nurse encourages a patient recovering from a hysterectomy to drink at least _______ mL of fluid a day.
Q5) The nurse assures a patient that the purple, raised, immature scar of a surgical wound is normal and caused by _______ formation.
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) New physician orders are transcribed for a patient to receive a colonoscopy. What must be completed before the colonoscopy to indicate the patient has been given full knowledge about what will be done along with its risks and complications?
A) Patients' rights
B) Advance directive
C) Informed consent
D) Patient protection
Q2) When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes.
Q3) The nurse is collecting a specimen for a wound culture. What should be avoided when collecting this specimen?
A) A dressing
B) Deep in the wound
C) The outer edge of the wound
D) Old drainage
Q4) When initiating a 24-hour urine collection, the nurse asks the patient to void. The nurse then _______ the specimen.
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse determines clinical death and initiates CPR immediately. How long is resuscitation considered possible?
A) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 2 minutes
B) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 3 minutes
C) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 4 minutes
D) If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 5 minutes
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who is severely bleeding and at risk for hypovolemic shock. What can the nurse anticipate?
A) Slow, labored breathing
B) Hot, flushed skin
C) Edematous extremities
D) Weak, thready pulse
Q3) The acronym RICE directs the nurse in the care of a sprain. The "C" in the acronym stands for ________.
Q4) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recommends that a patient have animal-assisted therapy sessions (AAT) because this therapy has been found to have what effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement in mood
B) Decrease in blood pressure
C) Decrease in blood sugar
D) Reduction of allergies
E) Increase in socialization skills
Q2) During a follow-up visit with a patient recently started on Coumadin, the home health nurse is concerned after seeing an herbal remedy that enhances the effect of anticoagulants by the patient's bedside. What is this herbal remedy?
A) Cayenne
B) Aloe vera
C) Asian ginseng
D) Kava
Q3) What will placing an herb in alcohol or vinegar make?
A) A suspension
B) An emulsion
C) An infusion
D) A tincture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) provides a continuous mild electrical current to the skin. How does the TENS unit act to reduce pain?
A) Distracts the patient
B) Blocks endorphin production
C) Warms the skin
D) Blocks pain impulses
Q2) The nurse teaches noninvasive pain relief techniques, such as guided imagery, biofeedback, and relaxation. What is the primary advantage of these techniques?
A) Can be done any time
B) Does not require a nurse
C) Gives the patient some control
D) Is most effective
Q3) The nurse reassures a patient that most acute pain is intense and of short duration. How long does can acute pain usually last?
A) 1 week
B) Less than 6 months
C) At least 9 months
D) More than 1 year
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with renal failure is unable to excrete protein waste products and develops a condition that requires a protein-restricted diet. The nurse instructs the patient that azotemia can be diminished by substituting other food groups for protein. What is an example of a food that this patient can substitute for protein?
A) Potatoes
B) Beans
C) Cheese
D) Soy products
Q2) Careful attention to carbohydrate consumption can improve metabolic control of diabetes. The nurse teaches a meal planning approach that focuses on the total amount of carbohydrates eaten at a meal. What is this meal planning approach called?
A) Carbohydrate splitting
B) Reduced caloric intake
C) Carbohydrate counting
D) Carbohydrate balancing
Q3) _____________________softens stools, speeds transit of foods through the digestive tract, and reduces pressure in the colon.
Q4) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lactating mother is counseled by the nurse to eat adequate amounts of meat and legumes. What level will this help to increase?
A) Potassium
B) Chloride
C) Magnesium
D) Phosphorus
Q2) Sodium is the most abundant electrolyte in the body. The location of electrolytes is important for maintaining homeostasis. Sodium is the major electrolyte in which fluid compartment?
A) Intracellular
B) Intravascular
C) Extracellular
D) Interstitial
Q3) The nurse is educating a patient regarding the need to avoid foods high in potassium. What food choices led the nurse to conclude that teaching was not effective?
A) Apples and green beans
B) Kiwis and onions
C) Apricots and asparagus
D) Grapes and lima beans
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient comes into the emergency department with a narcotic overdose, the nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with Narcan. What drug classification is Narcan?
A) Enhancer
B) Substitute
C) Control
D) Antagonist
Q2) Tylenol gr V is ordered. The available tablet is 0.3g. What dosage should the nurse administer?
A) 1 tablet
B) 1.5 tablets
C) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) tablet
D) 2 tablets
Q3) What is \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) divided b \(\frac { 1 } { 5 }\) y ?
A) \(\frac { 3 } { 20 }\)
B) \(\frac { 15 } { 4 }\)
C) \(\frac { 31 } { 45 }\)
D) \(\frac { 4 } { 15 }\)
Q4) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appliance that connects to an IV drip and delivers a continuous irrigation to the eye is known as a ________ _________ _________.
Q2) After a Foley catheter has been removed, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A) hemorrhage.
B) constipation.
C) urinary retention.
D) bladder spasm.
Q3) During insertion of a Foley catheter, the patient grimaces as the balloon is inflated. What is the immediate reaction of the nurse?
A) Withdraw the catheter
B) Ask the patient to bear down
C) Continue to inflate the balloon
D) Advance the catheter into the bladder
Q4) To what temperature should water for eye compress be heated?
A) 95° F
B) 110° F
C) 115° F
D) 120° F
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young mother asks the nurse how long she should wait before introducing solid food to her infant. The nurse explains that breast milk will provide all the nutrition her infant needs for how many months?
A) 2 to 3 months
B) 4 to 6 months
C) 7 to 9 months
D) 10 to 12 months
Q2) What is the family pattern in which the female assumes primary dominance in the areas of child care and homemaking, as well as financial decision making?
A) Autocratic family pattern
B) Patriarchal family pattern
C) Matriarchal family pattern
D) Democratic family pattern
Q3) The nurse tells a mother that the blueprint for all inherited traits, such as height, is found in which of the following?
A) Sperm
B) Ovary
C) Chromosomes
D) Nucleus of the cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in health care reimbursement measures have resulted in which of the following changes regarding care of the terminally ill?
A) Patients spend more time in hospitals
B) Nurses provide more care in hospitals
C) More patients die at home
D) Patients spend more time in rehab facilities
Q2) The home health nurse assesses that the goal of grief resolution has been accomplished when the nurse observes that a widow has performed which activities? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adjusted to an environment without the spouse
B) Put financial affairs in order
C) Made plans for a lengthy trip
D) Sought new relationships
E) Acquired a job
Q3) What should the nurse do before approaching a grieving family member?
A) Offer sympathy
B) Assess level of resolution
C) Give assurance that the pain will pass
D) Encourage the family member to return to normal activities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse concludes that the prenatal patient has no need for further instruction when she correctly states that amniocentesis can determine which of the baby's characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sex
B) Maturity
C) Approximate weight
D) Health
E) Genetic defects
Q2) Why is the nurse concerned about a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy being exposed to German measles?
A) The disease is capable of causing a spontaneous abortion.
B) The disease is capable of causing birth defects.
C) The disease is capable of causing high fever and convulsions.
D) The disease is capable of interfering with placental implantation.
Q3) Smoking by the mother can have what effect in the fetus?
A) Hearing deficits
B) Neuromuscular deformities
C) Cerebral palsy
D) Low birth weight
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest diameter of the fetal skull?
A) Temporal
B) Biparietal
C) Lateral
D) Frontal-occipital
Q2) What method is used to visualize soft tissue and to determine adequacy of the pelvis with no detrimental effects to the fetus?
A) Pelvimetry
B) Palpation
C) Ultrasonography
D) X-ray
Q3) What is the ideal attitude for the fetal body during labor?
A) Extension
B) Lateral
C) Flexion
D) Transverse
Q4) A primigravida has a pelvis of the android type, which usually means the delivery will be a _______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is characteristic of a normal breastfed infant's stool?
A) Green and loose
B) Dark green and sticky
C) Pale yellow and frequent
D) Light brown and pasty
Q2) Which of the following measures could help prevent infant abduction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Only transport infants by carrying them
B) Require staff members to wear appropriate identification badges
C) Respond immediately when an alarm sounds
D) Never leave infants unattended at any time
E) Take all the infants to their mothers at the same time
Q3) A new mother asks for advice on how to quiet her fussy newborn. Which responses would be appropriate to suggest to the mother? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prewarm the crib sheets with a hot water bottle
B) Swaddle the newborn tightly in a receiving blanket
C) Place the baby in a larger crib or infant bed
D) Offer a pacifier or allow the infant to suckle at the breast
E) Take the infant for a ride in the car
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate is born with weak muscle tone, froglike extremities, and ears that fold easily. From these observations, what gestational age should the nurse give this infant?
A) Full term
B) Small for gestational age
C) Preterm
D) Post-term
Q2) What percent of first-trimester pregnancies spontaneously abort?
A) 5% to 10%
B) 10% to15%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 40% to 50%
Q3) The nurse reports to the charge nurse that the 3-hour postpartum patient is bleeding excessively as she has saturated one peripad in less than ______ minutes.
Q4) What is the cause of gestational hypertension?
A) Too much salt
B) A toxin
C) Unknown
D) Diabetes
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Q1) What is the leading cause of fatal injury in children younger than 1 year old?
A) Burns
B) Poisons
C) Asphyxiation
D) Motor vehicle accidents
Q2) The nurse sets up a sample physical activities schedule to fit the FDA's Dietary Guidelines for Americans that recommends that children get at least how many minutes of physical activity per day?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q3) The pediatric nurse reminds the parents of a 2-year-old that by this age the child should be protected against how many vaccine-preventable childhood diseases?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
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Sample Questions
Q1) When communicating with parents suspected of child abuse, what should the nurse be sure to do?
A) Tell them the law requires reporting of the incident
B) Be sympathetic to their needs
C) Interact with them in a nonjudgmental manner
D) Suggest psychiatric counseling
Q2) What is one way to enhance the nutrition of the hospitalized toddler?
A) Reward with sweets for eating meals
B) Discourage participation in noneating activities
C) Offer nutritious fluids frequently
D) Leave nutritious finger foods out for the child to eat
Q3) After observing parental behavior that leads the nurse to suspect child abuse, when should the nurse report the abuse?
A) If the parent confesses to child abuse
B) If the child admits to being abused
C) Whenever maltreatment of a child is suspected
D) When the type of abuse can be determined
Q4) The pediatric nurse, along with the primary caregiver(s), has a special duty to ________ the child and the family.
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Q1) When interacting with the parents of a SIDS infant, the nurse should attempt to assist the parents with:
A) encouraging the parents to have another baby.
B) encouraging the parents to remain stoic.
C) allaying feelings of guilt and blame.
D) learning how the event could have been prevented.
Q2) When the nurse performs the initial assessment of an adolescent with depression, what is the most important question to ask?
A) "What is making you depressed?"
B) "Have you ever thought about suicide?"
C) "What could we do to make you happy?"
D) "Would you like your friends to visit?"
Q3) What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
A) Mucus-like stools
B) Currant jelly-like stools
C) Tarry, black stools
D) Green, soft stools
Q4) The nurse reminds a family that people with autism are also referred to as
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Q1) When discussing aging, to whom does the term older adulthood apply?
A) Age 55 and above
B) Age 65 and above
C) Age 70 and above
D) Age 75 and above
Q2) What is the result of a slowing of the impulse transmission in the nervous system?
A) Hypertension
B) Hearing deficit
C) Decrease in tactile sensations
D) Longer reaction time
Q3) For what is the older adult patient at increased risk because of age-related changes in the musculoskeletal system?
A) Fractures due to poor uptake of calcium
B) Heart attacks due to increased effort to ambulate
C) Respiratory failure due to kyphosis
D) Falls related to posture changes
Q4) The nurse initiates the application of a draw sheet on every bedfast patient on her unit to facilitate lifting and to prevent _________ forces.
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Q1) A family is informed that the brain damage to their daughter is irreversible. The father is later overheard making vacation plans and discussing what the family will do when his daughter leaves the hospital. The nurse recognizes the father is in which crisis stage?
A) High anxiety
B) Denial
C) Reconciliation
D) Adaptation
Q2) When developing a care plan for a mentally ill patient, what should the nurse assess first?
A) Coping strategies
B) Emotional status
C) Medications taken
D) Nutritional status
Q3) Using Freud's personality theory, what action by a patient identifies the influence of the superego?
A) Eating an entire chocolate pie
B) Becoming anxious about having no visitors
C) Monopolizing the attention of the physician
D) Returning a $5 bill that another patient left on the table
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Q1) The nurse cautions a patient to watch his step. What response indicates concrete thinking?
A) The patient fixedly begins to watch his feet.
B) The patient immediately examines his watch.
C) The patient begins to watch the nurse's feet.
D) The patient stands rigidly in one place without moving.
Q2) What disorder is a severe form of self-starvation that can lead to death?
A) Bulimia nervosa
B) Anorexia nervosa
C) Teenage nervosa
D) Obesity nervosa
Q3) The nurse alters the care plan for a patient with depression to include what type of activity?
A) Domino game with three other patients
B) Ping-Pong game with one other patient
C) Group outing to view wildflowers
D) Magazine to read alone
Q4) The nurse instructs a patient who has just been prescribed a protocol of fluoxetine HCl (Prozac) that the drug takes ____ to ____ weeks to take effect.
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Q1) The nurse assesses an alcoholic patient carefully for signs of withdrawal. How soon after cessation of alcohol intake do withdrawal symptoms usually appear?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
Q2) What must a patient in the late stages of dependence do in order to recover?
A) Gain insight into the addiction
B) Receive treatment for substance abuse
C) Pledge to lead a completely different lifestyle
D) Seek a nondrug-oriented support system
Q3) What should the nurse do when suspecting a co-worker of abusing drugs while at work?
A) Confront the abuser
B) Report observations to a supervisor
C) Call the state board of nursing
D) Discuss the problem with another co-worker
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Q1) Medical social services focus on the emotional and social aspects of illness. What is another area of service?
A) Home problems
B) Marriage problems
C) Crisis intervention
D) Work problems
Q2) By offering enteral, parenteral, intravenous, and blood transfusion therapies, what can home care services prevent?
A) Morbidity
B) Hospitalization
C) Hospice care
D) Mortality
Q3) Nurses who work in home settings rather than a hospital setting require a different level of ability to be technically proficient, self-motivated, and innovative. This requires a higher level of what quality?
A) Knowledge
B) Performance
C) Independence
D) Cooperation
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Q1) The Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) conducts unannounced institutional surveys annually to assess the quality of life for the patients. The findings of the surveys are reported to:
A) various licensing boards.
B) facility administrators.
C) the public.
D) the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
Q2) A 48-year-old long-term care facility resident expresses concern that the cost of his care has used up his assets. For what program should the nurse suggest that the resident apply to cover the continued cost of living in a long-term facility?
A) Medicare
B) Hospitalization insurance
C) Medicaid
D) Public health funds
Q3) What is the correct term for people who live in long-term care facilities?
A) Patients, because they will be receiving acute care
B) Residents, because the facility has become their home
C) Patients, because they seek professional medical services
D) Customers, because they are purchasing care service
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Q1) The rehabilitation nurse can use basic rehabilitation skills regardless of the origin of the disability. What intervention would be effective for a person with arthritis, a person with a brain injury, or a person with a spinal cord injury?
A) Encouraging large fluid intake
B) Seeking spiritual support from a higher being
C) Using the spouse as a support system
D) Positioning to maintain alignment
Q2) A 33-year-old patient with a spinal cord injury says to the nurse, "I've let my family down. I don't know what to do." What would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "After your rehabilitation starts, you'll feel better."
B) "You should be grateful you are alive."
C) "What does this injury mean to you?"
D) "Technological advances are changing the future for spinal cord injury victims."
Q3) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
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Q1) What symptom of hospice patients is the most dreaded and feared, and should be a priority of symptom management?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Grief
D) Pain
Q2) What is the role of the hospice medical director?
A) To design and direct the plan of care
B) To evaluate the appropriateness of the care
C) To function as mediator between the team and the attending physician
D) To take the place of the patient's attending physician
Q3) The hospice nurse tells the family that the nurse coordinator, an RN, will visit them. What is the role of the nurse coordinator?
A) Collect initial fees for the hospice service
B) Officially admit the patient to the hospice service
C) Assist with accessing community resources
D) Assist with funeral planning
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Q1) ____ explains the processes and functions of many structures of the body and how they interact with one another.
A) Anatomy
B) Mitosis
C) Filtration
D) Physiology
Q2) What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone?
A) Organ
B) System
C) Cell
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) What traits describe visceral muscles?
A) Smooth and voluntary
B) Smooth and involuntary
C) Striated and voluntary
D) Striated and involuntary
Q4) The nurse clarifies that the three functions of epithelial tissue are _____________,___________, and __________.
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Q1) Which circumstance could prevent the patient from signing his informed consent for a cholecystectomy?
A) The patient complains of pain radiating to the scapula.
B) The patient received an injection of Demerol, 75 mg IM, 1 hour ago.
C) The patient is 85 years of age.
D) The patient is concerned over his lack of insurance coverage.
Q2) When the patient asks the nurse to make sure no one sees her with her dentures out, the nurse recognizes the common preoperative fear of:
A) anesthesia.
B) loss of control.
C) fear of separation from family.
D) mutilation.
Q3) The nurse anticipates that the patient will be given ______________anesthesia because of the extensive tissue manipulation involved in a hysterectomy.
A) general
B) regional
C) specific
D) preoperative
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Q1) The home health nurse assessing skin lesions uses the PQRST mnemonic as a guide. What does the S in this guide indicate?
A) Severity of the symptoms
B) Site of the lesions
C) Symptomatology of the lesions
D) Surface area of the lesions
Q2) Prioritize the intervention of the first responder to the victim during the emergent phase of burn management. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.)
A) Transport victim to hospital.
B) Cover victim with clean cloth or sheet.
C) Stop, drop, and roll.
D) Remove all nonadherent clothing and jewelry.
E) Provide an open airway.
F) Control any bleeding.
Q3) What should a patient be assessed for upon the diagnosis of genital herpes?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Syphilis
C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
D) Cirrhosis

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Q1) What is the movement of an extremity away from the midline of the body called?
A) Abduction
B) Adduction
C) Flexion
D) Extension
Q2) How is rheumatoid arthritis distinguished from osteoarthritis?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune, systemic disease; osteoarthritis is a degenerative disease of the joints.
B) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune, degenerative disease; osteoarthritis is a systemic inflammatory disease.
C) People with osteoarthritis are considered to be genetically predisposed; there is no known genetic component to rheumatoid arthritis.
D) Osteoarthritis is often caused by a virus; viruses play no part in the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis.
Q3) The division of the skeletal system that comprises the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thorax is the _____________ division.
Q4) The nurse explains that the use of the _________brace allows a person with a cervical fracture to be mobile.
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Q1) What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with a hiatal hernia to reduce the frequency of heartburn?
A) Drinking 10 oz of milk with every meal
B) Lie down after eating
C) Panting through mouth when symptoms begin
D) Eating small meals
Q2) Bowel sound assessment on a patient with an obstruction who has distention, nausea, and visible peristaltic waves would be:
A) loud and clearly audible.
B) high pitched.
C) hyperactive.
D) absent.
Q3) The nurse explains to the patient with Crohn disease that the tube feedings allow for:
A) Rapid absorption in the upper GI tract
B) Decompression of the stomach
C) Reduction of diarrheic episodes
D) A permanent nutritional support
Q4) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
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Q1) How does the administration of neomycin (Mycifradin) reduce the production of ammonia?
A) By assisting the hepatic cells to regenerate
B) By reducing ascites
C) By decreasing the bacteria in the gut
D) By helping to digest fats and proteins
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient who has had an open cholecystectomy with a T-Tube will:
A) open the T-tube to the air so that it will drain freely.
B) position and secure the drainage bag at the chest level.
C) Place the collection bag so the tube is not kinked.
D) Irrigate the T-tube with normal saline to ensure the free flow of bile.
Q3) What is the most common procedure for the removal of the gallbladder?
A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B) Cholangiography
C) Open cholecystectomy
D) Choledochostomy
Q4) The tumor marker that is elevated in patients with pancreatic cancer is______.
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Q5) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.

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Q1) What is the average life span of an erythrocyte?
A) 7 days
B) 60 days
C) 120 days
D) Up to several years
Q2) What does the elevation in the eosinophil count to 10% indicate?
A) Anemia
B) Allergy
C) Infection
D) Hypoxia
Q3) What would a nurse include in a teaching plan for a home health patient with a hemoglobin of 8.4 mg?
A) Exercising for periods of 30 minutes daily
B) Limiting fluid intake
C) Alternating activity with rest periods
D) Avoiding the use of oxygen
Q4) The nurse clarifies that ____________ _______________ replaces iron stores needed for red blood cell production.
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Q5) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
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Q1) The nurse identifies the "LUBB" sound of the "LUBB/DUBB" of the cardiac cycle as the sound of the:
A) AV valves closing.
B) closure of the semilunar valves.
C) contraction of the papillary muscles.
D) contraction of the ventricles.
Q2) The nurse reminds the patient who is on Coumadin for the treatment of atrial fibrillation that the ideal is to maintain the international normalized ratio (INR) at between:
A) 1 and 2.
B) 2 and 3.
C) 3 and 4.
D) 4 and 5.
Q3) The nurse making a teaching plan for a patient with Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) will focus on the need for:
A) reduction of alcohol intake.
B) avoiding cold remedies.
C) cessation of smoking.
D) weight reduction.

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Q1) What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient, age 40, who is diagnosed with active tuberculosis?
A) Place the patient in drainage and secretion precautions
B) Place the patient in acid-fast bacillus (AFB) Isolation Precautions
C) Maintain the patient in enteric isolation
D) Place the patient in any Isolation Precautions
Q2) How do leukotriene modifiers reduce the symptoms of asthma?
A) By drying up mucus
B) By causing bronchodilation and anti-inflammation effects
C) By suppressing cough
D) By liquefying mucus
Q3) The nurse recognizes that the _______ reading in an arterial gas report indicates the amount of oxygen dissolved in the plasma.
Q4) How should the newly diagnosed patient who has been prescribed isoniazid (INH) for the treatment of active tuberculosis (TB) be advised?
A) Report redness and swelling of extremities
B) Accept that the therapy is long term
C) Monitor renal function every several months
D) Rise slowly to avoid dizziness
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Q1) The nurse reassures the patient recovering from acute glomerulonephritis that after all other signs and symptoms of the disease subside, it is normal to have some residual (select all that apply):
A) proteinuria
B) oliguria
C) hematuria
D) anasarca
E) oliguria
Q2) As the nurse and the dietitian review a female patient's diet plan with her, she shouts that with her diabetes and now the kidney failure, there is just nothing she can eat. She says she might as well eat what she wants, because there is nothing she can do to help herself. Based on the patient's response, which nursing diagnosis does the nurse identify?
A) Noncompliance, risk for, related to feelings of anger
B) Imbalanced nutrition less than body requirements, related to knowledge deficit
C) Anticipatory grieving, related to actual and perceived losses
D) Ineffective coping, related to sense of powerlessness
Q3) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Q4) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
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Q1) Which precaution(s) should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is being treated with radioactive iodine 131 (RAIU)?
A) Initiate radioactive safety precautions
B) Avoid assigning any young woman to the patient
C) Wait three days after dose before assigning a pregnant nurse to care for this patient
D) Advise visitors to sit at least 10 feet away from the patient
Q2) What information should be obtained from the patient before an iodine-131 test?
A) Presence of metal in the body
B) Allergy to sulfa drugs
C) Status of possible pregnancy
D) Use of prescription drugs for hypertension
Q3) What extra equipment should the nurse provide at the bedside of a new postoperative thyroidectomy patient?
A) Large bandage scissors
B) Tracheotomy tray
C) Ventilator
D) Water-sealed drainage system
Q4) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Q5) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
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Q1) A 20-year-old patient presents in the emergency room with a temperature of 103° F, blood pressure of 92/58, headache, and desquamation of both palms. What should the nurse make sure to ask about during the interview?
A) Any recent traveling outside the country
B) Immunization against influenza
C) Method of birth control
D) Use of tampons
Q2) The young woman comes to the free clinic for the complaint of stomach cramps. During the examination, the nurse recommends that she be tested for chlamydia. The woman says "I don't need any test I don't have any symptoms for a sexual infection I just came for my stomach." Which response is most informative?
A) "Well, if you get more symptoms come back for testing."
B) "The doctor may have to order medicine for syphilis and chlamydia. You probably have that too. You need to be tested today!"
C) "Testing is not mandatory I probably wouldn't bother either since you have no symptoms."
D) "That stomachache may be part of a chlamydia infection. Many women do not have a discharge, but are carriers."
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Q1) The patient tells the nurse that he is legally blind. How would this information impact the nurse's plan of care for this patient?
A) The patient would be considered totally blind.
B) This patient probably has some light perception, but no usable vision.
C) This patient has some usable vision, which enables function at an acceptable level.
D) The nurse would need to determine how this patient's visual impairment affects normal functioning.
Q2) What should the nurse do when assisting a blind person to walk in an unfamiliar hospital environment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Discourage the use of the cane
B) Advise the patient to walk quickly
C) Describe the surroundings
D) Encourage the patient to ask for verbal cues
E) Place patient hand on nurse's shoulder or elbow
Q3) The nurse explains that a pneumatic retinopexy is a repair of a retinal detachment using a bubble of_________ to put pressure on the damaged retina.
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Q1) The nurse is aware that when assessing a patient by the FOUR score coma scale, the patient is assessed in four categories: eye response, brainstem reflexes, motor response, and respiration. How are these results reported?
A) As a sum of the scores of the four categories
B) As part of the Glasgow coma scale
C) As individual scores in each category
D) As progressive scores during a 24-hour period
Q2) What should the nurse do when the child arrives on the floor with the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
A) Arrange for humidified oxygen per mask
B) Place the child in respiratory isolation
C) Inquire about drug allergy
D) Hold NPO until orders arrive
Q3) A patient is in which stage of Alzheimer disease when she demonstrates "sundowning"?
A) Early stage
B) Second stage
C) Third stage
D) Final stage
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Q1) List the sequence of a plasmapheresis procedure. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Removal of whole blood in one arm
B) Circulation of blood through cell separator
C) Remainder of plasma returned through vein in opposite arm
D) Separation of plasma and its cellular components
E) Replacement of plasma with lactated Ringer
F) Removal of undesirable components
Q2) The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individual (twins) is a(n)
Q3) Which of the following is an example of immunocompetence?
A) A child that is immune to measles because of an inoculation
B) A person who has seasonal allergies every fall
C) When the symptoms of a common cold disappear in 1 day
D) A neonate having a natural immunity from maternal antibodies
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Q5) The process of immunity through a controlled exposure to an attenuated organism to stimulate the production of antibodies is _______________.
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Q1) A male patient is advised to receive HIV antibody testing because of his multiple sexual partners and injectable drug use. What should the nurse inform the patient to ensure understanding?
A) The blood is tested with the highly sensitive test called the Western blot.
B) The blood is tested with an ELISA; if positive, it is tested again with an ELISA, followed by a Western blot if the second ELISA is positive.
C) A series of HIV tests is performed to confirm if the patient has AIDS.
D) If the HIV tests are seronegative, the patient can be assured that he is not infected.
Q2) The historical progress of the HIV infection began to be tracked in 1979. Arrange the historical events in sequence of their discovery. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Infection in heterosexual men and women
B) Infection in hemophiliacs
C) Infection in injection drug users
D) Increased incidence of Kaposi carcinoma in young homosexual men
E) Increased incidence of Pneumocystis jiroveci (previously PCP)
Q3) An organism that can cross from an animal species to humans is a(n) ____________organism.
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Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of prostatic enlargement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Rotten egg odor to urine
B) Hematuria
C) Swollen scrotum
D) Difficulty starting urine flow
E) Strong flow of urine
Q2) The nurse explains to a 43-year-old patient with a benign tumor in her right breast that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign tumors:
A) do not cause damage to adjacent tissue.
B) are simply an overgrowth of normal cells.
C) do not spread to other tissues and organs.
D) frequently recur in the same site.
Q3) Which of the following men should be highest priority for referral for a prostate-specific antigen (PSA)?
A) 43-year-old Hispanic man
B) 45-year-old African American man
C) 49-year-old Korean man
D) 50-year-old Native American man
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Q1) A manager is concerned that one of the nurses on the unit is experiencing burnout. Which symptoms would support the concerns? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fatigue
B) Forgetfulness
C) Increased energy
D) Negative outlook
E) Changes in eating habits
Q2) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
Q3) What type of leadership involves a leader who displays little trust or confidence in employees and therefore makes all the decisions?
A) Democratic
B) Laissez-faire
C) Autocratic
D) Authoritative
Q4) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n) ________________.
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