Medical-Surgical Nursing Solved Exam Questions - 1439 Verified Questions

Medical-Surgical Nursing Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of caring for adult patients with a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. The course emphasizes patient-centered care, critical thinking, and evidence-based practice while covering topics such as fluid and electrolyte balance, perioperative nursing, pain management, infection control, and the management of major body system disorders. Students learn to perform comprehensive assessments, develop care plans, and implement nursing interventions to promote health, prevent complications, and facilitate patient recovery. Ethical and legal considerations, patient safety, and interprofessional collaboration are also highlighted as integral aspects of high-quality medical-surgical nursing care.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum

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110 Chapters

1439 Verified Questions

1439 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?

A) Clinical pharmacology

B) Drug efficacy

C) Pharmacokinetics

D) Pharmacotherapeutics

Answer: D

Q3) What are the properties of an ideal drug?

A) Irreversible action

B) Predictability

C) Ease of administration

D) Chemical stability

E) A recognizable trade name

Answer: B, C, D

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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medical record before administering a medication. Which factors can alter the patient's physiologic response to the drug?

A) Ability to swallow pills

B) Age

C) Genetic factors

D) Gender

E) Height

Answer: B, C, D

Q2) A postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone [Lortab] for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medications."

B) "Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity."

C) "There are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe."

D) "Tylenol and Lortab are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose."

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA) was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety?

A) Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses

B) Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use

C) Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly

D) Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market

Answer: B

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A provider has written an order for a medication: drug X 100 mg PO every 6 hours. The half-life for the drug is approximately 6 hours. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose at 8:00 AM on Tuesday. On Wednesday, when will the serum drug level reach plateau?

A) 2:00 AM

B) 8:00 AM

C) 2:00 PM

D) 8:00 PM

Q2) The nurse is caring for a child who has ingested a toxic amount of aspirin. The provider orders an intravenous drug that will increase pH in the blood and urine. The nurse understands that this effect is necessary to:

A) decrease the gastric absorption of aspirin.

B) decrease the lipid solubility of aspirin.

C) increase the serum protein binding of aspirin.

D) increase the urinary excretion of aspirin.

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6

Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor?

A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.

B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.

C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.

E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.

Q2) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?

A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.

B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.

C) It gives the receptor a new function.

D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking drug X and receives a new prescription for drug Y, which is listed as an inducing agent. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this patient may require ____ doses of drug ____.

A) lower; X

B) lower; Y

C) higher; X

D) higher; Y

Q2) The nurse is providing multiple medications to a patient whose spouse brings grapefruit juice every morning. The nurse will be concerned about which classes of drugs?

A) Calcium channel blockers

B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

C) Aminoglycosides

D) Beta blockers

E) Penicillins

Q3) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?

A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.

B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.

C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.

D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.

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Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due, what will the nurse do?

A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.

B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.

C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.

D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.

Q2) A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The student asks the nurse what this means. What will the nurse explain about boxed warnings?

A) They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances.

B) They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug.

C) They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects.

D) They provide information about antidotes in the event that toxicity occurs.

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9

Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?

A) Altered bioavailability of the drug

B) Patient compliance with the therapeutic regimen

C) Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals

D) Placebo effects enhancing expectations of drug efficacy

Q2) A nurse is caring for a woman with breast cancer who is receiving tamoxifen. A review of this patient's chart reveals a deficiency of the CYP2D6 gene. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:

A) a different medication.

B) an increased dose.

C) a reduced dose.

D) serum drug levels.

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient in active labor is admitted to the emergency department. A toxicology screen and a physical assessment reveal that the patient is an active heroin addict. The nurse who cares for the neonate after delivery should anticipate which clinical manifestations?

A) Passivity and flat affect

B) Diarrhea and salivation

C) A shrill cry and irritability

D) Restless sleep and seizures

Q2) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?

A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus

B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers

C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy

D) To resume the medication in her second trimester

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11

Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an infant after a surgical procedure. After ensuring that the ordered dose is appropriate for the infant's age and weight, the nurse administers a narcotic analgesic intravenously. When assessing the infant 15 minutes later, the nurse notes respirations of 22 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. The infant is asleep in the parent's arms and does not awaken when vital signs are assessed. The nurse understands that these findings are the result of:

A) an allergic reaction to the medication.

B) immaturity of the blood-brain barrier in the infant.

C) toxic effects of the narcotic, requiring naloxone as an antidote.

D) unexpected side effects of medications in infants.

Q2) A nurse caring for a 5-year-old child notes that the child has discoloration of several teeth. When taking a medication history, the nurse will ask about which group of medications?

A) Glucocorticoids

B) Salicylates

C) Sulfonamides

D) Tetracyclines

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for an older adult patient during the immediate postoperative period after a total hip replacement. The surgeon has ordered meperidine [Demerol] for severe pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as prescribed and initiate a fall risk protocol.

B) Ask for a PRN order for diphenhydramine [Benadryl] for the expected side effect of itching.

C) Request an order for morphine instead of meperidine [Demerol].

D) Suggest to the surgeon that the patient receive diazepam [Valium] to reduce anxiety and the need for narcotics.

Q2) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?

A) Financial concerns

B) Inability to open drug containers

C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects

D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary

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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks about drugs that interfere with the termination of transmitter action. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Drugs act on this process by altering the diffusion of the transmitter away from the synaptic gap."

B) "Drugs can interfere with termination by either increasing or decreasing reuptake of the transmitter."

C) "Drugs in this category lead to decreased activation by the transmitter in the synapse."

D) "These drugs reduce either reuptake or degradation of the transmitter, causing an increase in receptor activation."

Q2) A nurse is administering drug X to a patient. The drug information states that the drug acts by activating receptors in the peripheral nervous system by increasing transmitter synthesis. The nurse understands that the effect of this drug is to:

A) activate axonal conduction.

B) enhance transmitter storage.

C) increase receptor activation.

D) synthesize supertransmitters.

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14

Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?

A) Alpha adrenergic

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta adrenergic

D) Sympathetic

Q2) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect?

A) Hypotension

B) Tachycardia

C) Tachypnea

D) Urinary retention

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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?

A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."

B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."

C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."

D) "You will begin taking 5 mg 3 times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."

Q2) A patient receives topical atropine to facilitate an eye examination. The nurse will tell the patient to remain in a darkened room or to wear sunglasses for several hours until the effects of the medication wear off. This teaching is based on the nurse's knowledge that muscarinic antagonists cause:

A) elevation of intraocular pressure.

B) miosis and ciliary muscle contraction.

C) paralysis of the iris sphincter.

D) relaxation of ciliary muscles.

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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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9 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."

B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."

C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."

D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."

Q2) A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer?

A) Donepezil [Aricept]

B) Edrophonium [Reversol]

C) Neostigmine [Prostigmin]

D) Physostigmine

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about neuromuscular blocking agents. For what may these agents be used?

A) Analgesia

B) Electroshock therapy

C) Malignant hyperthermia

D) Mechanical ventilation

E) Surgery

Q3) While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern?

A) Hyponatremia

B) Hypercalcemia

C) Hypomagnesemia

D) Hypokalemia

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with asthma uses albuterol [Ventolin] for wheezing. The nurse assesses the patient and notes vital signs of HR, 96 beats/min; RR, 18 breaths per minute; and BP, 116/78 mm Hg. The patient has clear breath sounds and hand tremors. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient how often the inhaler is used.

B) Check the patient's blood glucose level.

C) Request an order for isoproterenol [Isuprel] to reduce side effects.

D) Stop the medication and report the tremors to the provider.

Q2) Dopamine is administered to a patient who has been experiencing hypotensive episodes. Other than an increase in blood pressure, which indicator would the nurse use to evaluate a successful response?

A) Decrease in pulse

B) Increase in urine output

C) Weight gain

D) Improved gastric motility

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is discussing home management with a patient who will begin taking an alpha-adrenergic antagonist for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I need to stop the medication if my heart rate increases."

B) "I should not drive while taking this medication."

C) "I should take the first dose at bedtime."

D) "I will stop taking the medication if I feel dizzy."

Q2) Which are adverse effects of alpha blockade?

A) Hypertension

B) Reflex tachycardia

C) Nasal congestion

D) Ejaculation

E) Hypernatremia

Q3) A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 day after delivery. The infant's mother used betaxolol during pregnancy. The nurse will expect to monitor this infant for which condition?

A) Hyperglycemia

B) Hyperthyroidism

C) Respiratory distress

D) Tachycardia

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient complains to the nurse that the clonidine [Catapres] recently prescribed for hypertension is causing drowsiness. Which response by the nurse to this concern is appropriate?

A) "Drowsiness is a common side effect initially, but it will lessen with time."

B) "You may also experience orthostatic hypotension along with the drowsiness."

C) "You may be at risk for addiction if you have central nervous system side effects."

D) "You should discontinue the medication and contact your prescriber."

Q2) A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about the side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."

B) "I should not drive as long as I am taking this drug."

C) "I should stand up slowly when taking this medication."

D) "I should stop taking this drug if I feel anxious or depressed."

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse to explain what drug tolerance means. The nurse responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs, it means the patient:

A) has developed a psychologic dependence on the drug.

B) may need increased amounts of the drug over time.

C) will cause an abstinence syndrome if the drug is discontinued abruptly.

D) will have increased sensitivity to drug side effects.

Q2) A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of:

A) changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure.

B) direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain.

C) slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier.

D) tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.

Q3) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?

A) Analgesia

B) Anesthesia

C) Depression

D) Euphoria

E) Seizure control

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospitalized patient with Parkinson disease who is receiving apomorphine to treat "off" episodes develops nausea and vomiting. The nurse will discuss the use of which medication with the patient's provider?

A) Levodopa [Dopar]

B) Ondansetron [Zofran]

C) Prochlorperazine [Compazine]

D) Trimethobenzamide [Tigan]

Q2) A patient with Parkinson disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] along with amantadine [Symmetrel] 400 mg/day to treat dyskinesias. The patient reports having increased dyskinesias several months after beginning the amantadine. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action?

A) Increasing the dose of amantadine [Symmetrel]

B) Interrupting treatment with amantadine for several weeks

C) Ordering renal function tests

D) Ordering another anticholinergic medication

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23

Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."

B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."

C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."

D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."

Q2) A patient is worried about the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease, because both parents had the disease. The nurse will tell this patient that known risk factors include what?

A) Advanced age

B) Alcoholism

C) Family history

D) Gender

E) Obesity

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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what?

A) Preventing the development of MS

B) Primary progressive MS

C) Progressive-relapsing MS

D) Relapsing-remitting MS

E) Secondary progressive MS

Q2) A patient is being treated with interferon beta-1a [Avonex] for relapsing-remitting MS. The patient calls the clinic to report headache, fever, chills, and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse recommend?

A) Acetaminophen or ibuprofen

B) Asking the provider to order a complete blood count (CBC)

C) Coming to the clinic for evaluation for leukoencephalopathy

D) Discontinuing the drug immediately

Q3) A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Notify the provider of these symptoms.

B) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside.

C) Request an order for an antidepressant medication.

D) Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient shows loss of consciousness, jaw clenching, contraction and relaxation of muscle groups, and periods of cyanosis. The nurse correctly identifies this as which type of seizure?

A) Tonic-clonic

B) Petit mal

C) Myoclonic

D) Atonic

Q2) A 20-kg child has been taking valproic acid [Depakote] for 1 week to treat a seizure disorder. The child is receiving 200 mg PO twice daily. The child's parents report no improvement in seizure activity. The nurse will anticipate that the provider will order which change in this child's drug regimen?

A) Adding another seizure medication to supplement the valproic acid

B) Changing to phenytoin [Dilantin] since the valproic acid is not effective

C) Increasing the dose of valproic acid to 300 mg PO twice daily

D) Increasing the dose of valproic acid to 200 mg 3 times daily

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with multiple sclerosis needs pharmacologic treatment for spasticity to begin strengthening exercises to improve walking ability. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for spasticity?

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

Q2) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

Q3) A patient with cerebral palsy who has been receiving baclofen [Lioresal] via gastrostomy tube for 3 months is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of new-onset seizures. What may the nurse suspect to be the cause of these seizures?

A) Baclofen toxicity

B) Common adverse effect of baclofen

C) Idiopathic causes related to disease process

D) Missed doses of baclofen

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Page 27

Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing the use of cocaine as a local anesthetic with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this agent?

A) "Anesthetic effects develop slowly and persist for several hours."

B) "Cocaine is a local anesthetic administered by injection."

C) "Vasoconstrictors should not be used as adjunct agents with this drug."

D) "When abused, cocaine causes physical dependence."

Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?

A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand

B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site

C) Nervousness and tachycardia

D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A surgical patient is receiving succinylcholine [Anectine] with an inhalation anesthetic. The patient is intubated, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and has ongoing monitoring of vital signs. Which symptom during the perioperative period is cause for concern?

A) Elevated temperature

B) Increased urine output

C) Muscle paralysis

D) No response to painful stimuli

Q2) A surgical nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isoflurane [Forane]. Which is true about this inhalation anesthetic?

A) Patients receiving isoflurane will not require mechanical ventilation.

B) Postoperative nausea and vomiting are greater with isoflurane than with other inhalation anesthetics.

C) Propofol is used for induction to minimize cough prior to administering isoflurane.

D) This drug promotes greater relaxation of skeletal muscle than other inhalation anesthetics.

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Centrally Acting Analgesics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.

B) changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.

C) confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.

D) withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.

Q2) A nurse is preparing a pediatric patient for surgery and is teaching the patient and the child's parents about the use of the patient-controlled analgesia pump. The parents voice concern about their child receiving an overdose of morphine. What will the nurse do?

A) Instruct the parents not to activate the device when their child is sleeping.

B) Reassure the parents that drug overdose is not possible with PCA.

C) Suggest that the child use the PCA sparingly.

D) Tell the patient that the pump can be programmed for PRN dosing only.

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923

Sample Questions

Q1) Over time, patients taking opioid analgesics develop tolerance to which side effects?

A) Constipation

B) Euphoria

C) Physical dependence

D) Respiratory depression

E) Sedation

Q2) A patient with cancer who has been receiving an opioid analgesic reports having pain at a new location even though the previous pain is well controlled. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) breakthrough pain.

B) drug-seeking behavior.

C) infection or metastasis.

D) tolerance to drug therapy.

Q3) Which nonpharmacologic therapies are effective in reducing cancer pain?

A) Acupuncture

B) Cold

C) Exercise

D) Heat

E) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Supplemental oxygen has been shown to help reduce symptoms for which type of headache?

A) Cluster

B) Menstrual migraine

C) Migraine

D) Tension-type

Q2) Which medications are used to treat menstrually associated migraine (MAM)?

A) Amitriptyline [Elavil]

B) Estrogen

C) Ergotamine [Ergomar]

D) Frovatriptan [Frova]

E) Naproxyn

Q3) A patient who has recurrent migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex]. Which aspect of this patient's history is of concern when taking this drug?

A) Asthma

B) Coronary artery disease

C) Diabetes

D) Renal disease

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32

Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which side effects are more common in second-generation antipsychotic medications than in first-generation antipsychotic medications?

A) Agranulocytosis

B) Anticholinergic effects

C) Extrapyramidal symptoms

D) Metabolism by CYP3A4

E) Prolactin elevation

Q2) A nurse in a mental health hospital finds a patient with schizophrenia who takes haloperidol [Haldol] lying rigid in bed with a temperature of 41.3°C. A cardiac monitor shows cardiac dysrhythmias. What will be included in the treatment of this patient?

A) Anticholinergic medications

B) Beta blockers

C) Dantrolene

D) Intravenous fluids

E) Withdrawal of haloperidol

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Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after taking a handful of TCA pills. The nurse will expect to provide what when caring for this patient?

A) Cardiac monitoring

B) Cholinesterase inhibitors

C) Gastric lavage and activated charcoal

D) Sedative medications

E) Procainamide

Q2) A woman who is nursing a newborn develops postpartum depression and her provider orders sertraline [Zoloft] to treat her symptoms. The patient is concerned about the safety of this medication for her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication?

A) To stop nursing while taking the medication

B) To expect symptoms of colic and poor weight gain in the baby

C) That sertraline is safer than other antidepressants for nursing mothers

D) To ask her provider about switching to fluoxetine [Prozac] instead

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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder who wants to minimize the need for drug therapy asks the nurse what else can be done to treat the disorder. The nurse will recommend which measures?

A) Electroconvulsive therapy

B) Moderate use of alcohol to reduce stress

C) Psychotherapy

D) Regular sleep and exercise

E) Using a chart to monitor mood changes

Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years and has not been evaluated by a provider for over a year. Besides obtaining a lithium level, the nurse caring for this patient will anticipate orders for which laboratory tests?

A) Calcium level

B) Complete blood count with differential

C) Liver function tests

D) Renal function tests

E) Serum potassium

F) Thyroid function tests

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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient takes temazepam [Restoril] for insomnia. The patient tells the nurse that a recent telephone bill lists several calls to friends that the patient does not remember making. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient about any alcohol consumption in conjunction with the benzodiazepine.

B) Contact the prescriber to request an order for a benzodiazepine with a shorter duration.

C) Reassure the patient that this is most likely caused by a paradoxical reaction to the benzodiazepine.

D) Tell the patient that this is an example of anterograde amnesia, which is an expected effect of the benzodiazepine.

Q2) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?

A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."

B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."

C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."

D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."

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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."

B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."

C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."

D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."

Q2) A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Buspirone [Buspar]

C) Deep brain stimulation

D) Fluoxetine [Paxil]

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing education to a group of patients regarding amphetamines. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks a participant what effects amphetamines would have on her. The participant shows that she understands the effects of these drugs if she gives which answers?

A) "Amphetamines increase fatigue."

B) "Amphetamines suppress the perception of pain."

C) "Amphetamines increase appetite."

D) "Amphetamines increase the heart rate."

E) "Amphetamines elevate mood."

Q2) A nurse working in the night shift begins taking modafinil [Alertec]. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?

A) "I can take it during pregnancy."

B) "It doesn't have cardiovascular side effects."

C) "It is safe and has no serious adverse effects."

D) "It will not interfere with my normal sleep."

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:

A) addiction.

B) psychologic dependence.

C) tolerance.

D) withdrawal syndrome.

Q2) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:

A) abstinence from the drug.

B) decreasing episodes of relapse.

C) minimizing drug cravings.

D) reduction of drug use.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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Sample Questions

Q1) An alcoholic patient's spouse asks a nurse about recovery from chronic alcoholism. The patient is confused and has abnormal eye movements and nystagmus. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "The symptoms your spouse shows are partly reversible in most people."

B) "These symptoms can be reversed with vitamin therapy and good nutrition."

C) "Your spouse has symptoms of an irreversible encephalopathy."

D) "Your spouse will probably recover completely after detoxification."

Q2) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:

A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."

B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."

C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."

D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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Sample Questions

Q1) The spouse of a patient who smokes wonders why anyone would want to engage in "such a disgusting habit." What will the nurse tell the spouse?

A) Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep.

B) Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release.

C) Nicotine lowers blood pressure.

D) Nicotine settles the stomach and reduces nausea and vomiting.

Q2) A patient asks about nicotine patches for smoking cessation and wants to know the difference between the 24-hour patch and the 16-hour patch. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "The 16-hour patch is for patients who have trouble sleeping."

B) "The 16-hour patch simulates usual nicotine ingestion patterns."

C) "The 24-hour patch is for persons weighing more than 100 pounds."

D) "The 24-hour patch is recommended for heavier smokers."

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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."

B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."

C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."

D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."

Q2) A college student is brought to the emergency department by a group of friends who report that they had been dancing at a nightclub when their friend collapsed. The patient has a temperature of 105°F and shows jaw clenching and confusion. The nurse will expect to administer which medication?

A) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

B) Haloperidol [Haldol]

C) Methadone

D) Naloxone [Narcan]

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Chapter 41: Diuretics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities bilaterally. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles bilaterally, and the serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which diuretic agent ordered by the prescriber should the nurse question?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Furosemide [Lasix]

C) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

Q2) A patient with hypertension is taking furosemide [Lasix] for congestive heart failure. The prescriber orders digoxin to help increase cardiac output. What other medication will the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?

A) Bumetanide [Bumex]

B) Chlorothiazide [Diuril]

C) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]

D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]

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43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of muscle weakness and drowsiness. The nurse notes a heart rate of 80 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram reveals an abnormal rhythm. The nurse will question the patient about which over-the-counter medication?

A) Antacids

B) Aspirin

C) Laxatives

D) Potassium supplements

Q2) Which order for potassium (KCl) would the nurse question?

A) D5 1/2 NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids

B) D5 1/2 NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L

C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis

D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water

E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a beta₁-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:

A) cardiac afterload.

B) cardiac preload.

C) myocardial contractility.

D) venous return.

Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication, the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats/ min and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?

A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days

B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days

C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days

D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week

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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders ramipril [Altace] for an obese patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has developed hypertension. The nurse provides teaching before dismissing the patient home. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I am less likely to develop diabetic nephropathy when taking this medication."

B) "I should check my blood sugar more often, because hyperglycemia is a side effect of this drug."

C) "Taking this medication helps reduce my risk of stroke and heart attack."

D) "This medication will probably prevent the development of diabetic retinopathy."

Q2) A nurse administers an ACE inhibitor to a patient who is taking the drug for the first time. What will the nurse do?

A) Instruct the patient not to get up without assistance.

B) Make sure the patient takes a potassium supplement.

C) Report the presence of a dry cough to the prescriber.

D) Request an order for a diuretic to counter the side effects of the ACE inhibitor.

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to assist a nursing student to administer intravenous verapamil to a patient who also receives a beta blocker. The nurse asks the nursing student to discuss the plan of care for this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will check to see when the last dose of the beta blocker was given."

B) "I will monitor vital signs closely to assess for hypotension."

C) "I will monitor the heart rate frequently to assess for reflex tachycardia."

D) "I will prepare to administer intravenous norepinephrine if necessary."

Q2) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:

A) reduce flushing.

B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.

C) prevent constipation.

D) prevent reflex tachycardia.

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension?

A) Minoxidil

B) Diltiazem [Cardizem]

C) Prazosin [Minipress]

D) Captopril [Capoten]

E) Losartan [Cozaar]

Q2) Which patients may receive hydralazine to treat hypertension?

A) A 1-month-old infant

B) A 5-year-old child

C) A pregnant woman

D) A mother breast-feeding a newborn

E) An older adult

Q3) A female patient with essential hypertension is being treated with hydralazine 25 mg twice daily. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 96 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/72 mm Hg. The nurse will request an order to:

A) administer a beta blocker.

B) administer a drug that dilates veins.

C) reduce the dose of hydralazine.

D) give the patient a diuretic.

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 5-year-old patient seen in an outpatient clinic is noted to have hypertension on three separate visits. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring confirms that the child has hypertension. As an initial intervention with the child's parents, the nurse will expect to:

A) perform a detailed health history on the child.

B) provide teaching about antihypertensive medications.

C) reassure the parents that their child may outgrow this condition.

D) teach the parents about lifestyle changes and a special diet.

Q2) A patient takes an ACE inhibitor to treat hypertension and tells the nurse that she wants to become pregnant. She asks whether she should continue taking the medication while she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Controlling her blood pressure will decrease her risk of preeclampsia.

B) Ask the provider about changing to an ARB during pregnancy.

C) Continue taking the ACE inhibitor during her pregnancy.

D) Discuss using methyldopa instead while she is pregnant.

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin [Lanoxin] to a patient. The patient's heart rate is 62 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg. The last serum electrolyte value showed a potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request an increased dose of digoxin.

B) Give the dose of digoxin and notify the provider of the potassium level.

C) Request an order for a diuretic.

D) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the heart rate.

Q2) A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction but does not have symptoms of heart failure. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:

A) ACE inhibitors and beta blockers.

B) biventricular pacemakers.

C) dietary supplements and exercise.

D) diuretics and digoxin.

Q3) Which medications are included in first-line therapy for heart failure?

A) Agents that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)

B) Aldosterone antagonists

C) Beta blockers

D) Cardiac glycosides

E) Diuretics

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Page 50

Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with diabetes develops ventricular tachycardia and is in the hospital for evaluation of this condition. The nurse reviews the history and learns that the patient takes mexiletine [Mexitil] for pain caused by peripheral neuropathy. What should the nurse do?

A) Discuss common side effects associated with taking mexiletine with cardiac agents.

B) Understand that this drug will help with both peripheral neuropathy and dysrhythmias.

C) Notify the provider to request that another drug be used for peripheral neuropathy pain.

D) Request an order for renal function and hepatic function tests.

Q2) A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur?

A) AV block

B) Bradycardia

C) Supraventricular tachycardia

D) Torsades de pointes

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking simvastatin [Zocor] develops an infection and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat the infection. The nurse should be concerned if the patient complains of:

A) nausea.

B) tiredness.

C) muscle pain.

D) headache.

Q2) A nurse is instructing a patient receiving a cholesterol-lowering agent. Which information should the nurse include in the patient education?

A) "This medication will replace other interventions you have been trying."

B) "It is important for you to double your dose if you miss one to maintain therapeutic blood levels."

C) "Stop taking the medication if you experience constipation."

D) "You should continue your exercise program to increase your HDL serum levels."

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has begun using transdermal nitroglycerin for angina reports occasional periods of tachycardia. The nurse will expect the prescriber to order:

A) digoxin [Lanoxin] to slow the heart rate.

B) immediate discontinuation of the nitroglycerin.

C) periods of rest when the heart rate increases.

D) verapamil as an adjunct to nitroglycerin therapy.

Q2) A patient with new-onset exertional angina has taken three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals, but the pain has intensified. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats/min and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink, and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing:

A) an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.

B) intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker.

C) ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine.

D) supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Heparin has a longer half-life."

B) "Heparin has fewer adverse effects."

C) "The onset of warfarin is delayed."

D) "Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation."

Q2) A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day, the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%, pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____.

A) congestive heart failure; furosemide [Lasix]

B) hemorrhage; vitamin K (phytonadione)

C) myocardial infarction; tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

D) pulmonary embolism; heparin

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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in the emergency department has severe chest pain. The nurse administers morphine intravenously. The patient asks the nurse why morphine is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Morphine helps by reducing anxiety and relieving pain."

B) "Morphine helps by reducing pain and dissolving clots."

C) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and lowering blood pressure."

D) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and reducing the cardiac oxygen demand."

Q2) A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin, a beta blocker, and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m², and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) An antihypertensive medication

B) Counseling about a weight loss diet

C) Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor

D) High-dose statin therapy

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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. While reviewing this child's immunization records, the nurse notes that the child needs the tetanus and reduced diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine and the hepatitis A vaccine. The nurse should notify the provider and obtain an order to give:

A) both vaccines intramuscularly.

B) both vaccines subcutaneously.

C) the hepatitis A vaccine only subcutaneously.

D) the Tdap vaccine only intramuscularly.

Q2) The parents of a boy with hemophilia A want to know why their son will receive factor replacement on an ongoing basis rather than when needed for bleeding episodes. They tell the nurse that the boy's grandfather, who had the same disease, received the drug only when he had bleeding. The nurse will give the parents which information about ongoing therapy?

A) It can reverse progression of the disease.

B) It is cheaper, because the amounts of the drug used are less.

C) It is used to minimize long-term damage to the joints.

D) It prevents the development of inhibitors.

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency?

A) Alcoholism

B) Sprue

C) Gastrectomy

D) Peptic ulcer disease

Q2) The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B₁₂. The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can:

A) cause fetal malformation.

B) mask the signs of vitamin B₁₂ deficiency.

C) negatively affect potassium levels.

D) worsen megaloblastic anemia.

Q3) A patient tells a nurse that she is thinking about getting pregnant and asks about nutritional supplements. What will the nurse recommend?

A) A balanced diet high in green vegetables and grains

B) 400 to 800 mg of folic acid per day

C) A multivitamin with iron

D) Vitamin B₁₂ supplements

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950

Sample Questions

Q1) Which patients are eligible to receive erythropoiesis stimulating agents?

A) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies who require transfusions

B) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies whose chemotherapy is palliative

C) All patients whose goal of therapy is curative

D) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies and chemotherapy-induced anemia

E) All patients with leukemias or myeloid malignancies

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who has chronic renal failure and will begin receiving epoetin alfa [Epogen] about this drug therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If I have to start dialysis, I will have to stop taking this drug."

B) "Taking this drug will not eliminate my need for blood transfusions."

C) "Taking this medication will prevent the need for dialysis in the future."

D) "When I take this, my serum ferritin levels will increase."

Q3) A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure?

A) Filgrastim [Neupogen]

B) Pegfilgrastim [Neulasta]

C) Oprelvekin [Neumega]

D) Sargramostim [Leukine]

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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes is eating breakfast at 7:30 AM. Blood sugars are on a sliding scale and are ordered before a meal and at bedtime. The patient's blood sugar level is 317 mg/dL. Which formulation of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer?

A) No insulin should be administered.

B) NPH

C) 70/30 mix

D) Lispro [Humalog]

Q2) Which statement is accurate about the long-term complications of diabetes?

A) Long-term complications are almost always the result of hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis.

B) The complication rates for patients with optimally controlled type 2 diabetes are the same as for those whose disease is not optimally controlled.

C) Optimal control of type 1 diabetes produces excessive episodes of life-threatening hypoglycemia.

D) Optimal control of both types of diabetes reduces the risk of eye, kidney, and nerve damage.

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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with a heart rate of 128 beats/min and a temperature of 105°F. The patient's skin feels hot and moist. The free T? level is 4 ng/dL, the free T? level is 685 pg/dL, and the TSH level is 0.1 microunits/mL. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer:

A) intravenous levothyroxine.

B) iodine-131 (131I).

C) methimazole [Tapazole].

D) propylthiouracil (PTU).

Q2) A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the patient has a heart rate of 62 beats/min, a blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg, and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss tests for which condition?

A) Cretinism

B) Graves' disease

C) Hypothyroidism

D) Plummer's disease

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953

Sample Questions

Q1) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males?

A) Breast development

B) Decreased libido

C) Delayed puberty

D) Galactorrhea

E) Infertility

Q2) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale, dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?

A) Diabetes insipidus

B) Diabetes mellitus

C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

D) Water intoxication

Q3) A clinic patient who has cirrhosis of the liver develops hypervolemic hypernatremia. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Conivaptan [Vaprisol]

B) Desmopressin [DDAVP]

C) Tolvaptan [Samsca]

D) Vasopressin [Pitressin]

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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10 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with adrenal hormone deficiency will begin taking hydrocortisone. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I may take all of my daily dose in the morning or divide it in half and take it twice daily."

B) "I will need to take this medication until my symptoms completely clear, and then I may stop."

C) "Side effects are common with hydrocortisone, even with therapeutic doses."

D) "When I am sick, I should take 3 times the normal dose for 3 days in a row."

Q2) A patient with arthritis is admitted to the hospital. The patient's serum glucose level is 350 gm/dL, and the blood pressure is 182/98 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient's face appears rounded and puffy. The patient complains of feeling weak. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask which drugs the patient takes for arthritis.

B) Contact the provider to discuss whether the patient has a pituitary carcinoma.

C) Request an order for ketoconazole [Nizoral].

D) Suspect that this patient has Addison's disease.

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a group of nursing students about the risks and benefits of hormone therapy (HT), including estrogen therapy (ET) and combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "ET can provide protection against coronary heart disease and reverse osteoporosis."

B) "EPT is generally safer than ET, especially in women who have undergone hysterectomies."

C) "In women with established coronary heart disease, EPT can protect against myocardial infarction."

D) "Principle benefits of ET are suppression of menopausal symptoms and prevention of bone loss."

Q2) A patient with osteopenia asks a nurse about the benefits of hormone therapy in preventing osteoporosis. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Estrogen can help reverse bone loss."

B) "Hormone therapy increases bone resorption."

C) "Hormone therapy does not decrease fracture risk."

D) "When hormone therapy is discontinued, bone mass is quickly lost."

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Page 63

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a community education class on contraceptives. The nurse tells the class that if spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 are used, the patient should take special precautions, because these spermicides have been linked to:

A) human papillomavirus (HPV) infections.

B) spontaneous abortions.

C) endometrial cancer.

D) increased transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Q2) A patient calls a family planning clinic and tells the nurse that her vaginal ring, which has been in place for 2 weeks, came out sometime during the night while she was sleeping. The nurse will instruct her to:

A) clean the ring with warm water, reinsert it, and use condoms for 7 days.

B) discard the ring and insert a new ring after 1 week has passed.

C) discard the ring and insert a new one to begin a new cycle.

D) wash the ring in hot, soapy water and reinsert it.

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64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957

Sample Questions

Q1) An infertile couple begins treatment with menotropins. To enhance the therapeutic effects of the medication, the nurse will advise the patients to have intercourse:

A) before hCG injection and the following 2 to 3 days.

B) the morning of the hCG injection and later that evening.

C) the evening of the injection and the following day.

D) the evening of the injection and the following morning.

Q2) A patient receiving menotropins [Repronex] for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened.

B) Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds.

C) Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation.

D) Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropins.

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65

Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a woman who is taking tranexamic acid [Lysteda] for menorrhagia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience back pain or muscle cramps while taking this drug."

B) "I may take two tablets 3 times daily for up to 5 days with each period."

C) "I should take an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy while taking this drug."

D) "I should take this medication with food to improve absorption of the drug."

Q2) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion?

A) Cervical ripening

B) Fetal monitoring

C) Renal function

D) Respiratory function

E) Uterine activity

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Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering."

B) "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry."

C) "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems."

D) "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."

Q2) A 14-year-old male patient has not begun puberty. His parents tell the nurse that their son does not want to go to school, because he gets teased. The nurse learns that the boy's father did not begin puberty until age 16 years. Laboratory tests on this child do not reveal true hypogonadism. What will the nurse tell these parents when they ask what can be done for their son?

A) "A limited course of androgen therapy may be prescribed, but it is not necessary."

B) "He will eventually begin puberty, so this is nothing to worry about."

C) "He will probably have to receive injections of androgens for 3 to 4 years."

D) "The risk of accelerated growth plate closure is too great to warrant androgen therapy."

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960

Sample Questions

Q1) A 68-year-old male patient receives a prescription for 25-mg tablets of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. When he asks the nurse how to take the medication, the nurse will tell him to:

A) begin taking one tablet twice daily, 12 hours apart.

B) start with one tablet about 1 hour before anticipated sexual activity.

C) take 25 to 100 mg per dose 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity.

D) take two tablets 1 hour before sexual activity with a high-fat meal.

Q2) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:

A) doxazosin [Cardura].

B) finasteride [Proscar].

C) silodosin [Rapaflo].

D) a transurethral prostatectomy.

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Page 68

Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."

B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."

C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."

D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."

Q2) A patient who breast-feeds her infant asks the nurse about the immunity the infant receives from breast milk. What does the nurse tell the patient about immunity through breast-feeding?

A) "The immunity protects the infant from hypersensitivity reactions."

B) "The immunity provides phagocytes to help the infant fight infections."

C) "The immunity results from the transfer of IgA through the breast milk."

D) "The immunity protects the infant from respiratory and gastrointestinal (GI) microbes."

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Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962

Sample Questions

Q1) A 1-year-old child receives the MMR vaccine. The next day the child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child has a temperature of 103°F. What will the nurse do?

A) File an adverse event report with the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS).

B) Notify the child's provider that thrombocytopenia is likely to occur.

C) Reassure the parent that fever can occur with the MMR vaccine.

D) Tell the parent to take the child to the emergency department.

Q2) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib, the rotavirus, and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s) will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?

A) Hib and rotavirus vaccines

B) PCV13

C) PCV13 and Hib

D) Rotavirus

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Page 70

Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963

Sample Questions

Q1) The parent of a child who attends day care questions the need for Varivax. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) "Chickenpox is not as contagious as other communicable diseases."

B) "The child will be protected by herd immunity and does not need the vaccine."

C) "Varicella is an uncomfortable disease, but it is not that serious."

D) "Varicella in adults can have serious consequences."

Q2) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP, Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib, the Rotavirus, and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s) will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?

A) Hib and Rotavirus vaccines

B) PCV13

C) PCV13 and Hib

D) Rotavirus

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antihistamines. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the mechanism of action of the antihistamines?

A) "Antihistamines block H1 receptors to prevent actions of histamine at these sites."

B) "Antihistamines block release of histamine from mast cells and basophils."

C) "H1 antagonists can bind to H1 receptors, H2 receptors, and muscarinic receptors."

D) "First-generation antihistamines are more selective than second-generation antihistamines."

Q2) A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. The child is uncoordinated and agitated. The nurse observes that the child's face is flushed, the temperature is 37.1°C, and the heart rate is 110 beats per minute. The nurse will expect to:

A) administer atropine to reverse the adverse effects.

B) apply ice packs to stop the flushing.

C) give activated charcoal to absorb the drug.

D) prepare to provide mechanical ventilation.

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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is providing medication teaching for a patient who will begin taking diclofenac [Voltaren] gel for osteoarthritis in both knees and elbows. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Because this is a topical drug, liver toxicity will not occur."

B) "I should cover areas where the gel is applied to protect them from sunlight."

C) "I will apply equal amounts of gel to all affected areas."

D) "The topical formulation has the same toxicity as the oral formulation."

Q2) A patient who reports regular consumption of two or three alcoholic beverages per day asks about taking acetaminophen when needed for occasional recurrent pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "Do not take more than 2 gm of acetaminophen a day."

B) "Do not take more than 3 gm of acetaminophen a day."

C) "Do not take more than 4 gm of acetaminophen a day."

D) "Do not take a fixed-dose preparation with opioid analgesics."

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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has arthritis has been taking ibuprofen [Motrin] and a glucocorticoid medication. The patient reports having tarry stools but denies gastric pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to discuss ordering an antiulcer medication.

B) Counsel the patient to use over-the-counter antacids.

C) Reassure the patient not to worry unless there is gastric pain.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the glucocorticoid immediately.

Q2) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids?

A) Allergic rhinitis

B) Anaphylaxis

C) Bronchiolitis

D) Gout

E) Ulcerative colitis

Q3) A child is to begin long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The parents ask the nurse about the effects of this drug on the child's growth. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "A smaller dose may be indicated for your child."

B) "Ask your provider about every other day dosing."

C) "Long-acting glucocorticoid preparations should prevent growth suppression."

D) "Oral glucocorticoids rarely cause growth suppression."

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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:

A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.

B) limiting folic acid consumption.

C) reporting alopecia and rash.

D) taking the medication on a daily basis.

Q2) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?

A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective

B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept

C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept

D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has had three gouty flare-ups in the past year. Which drug class will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Colchicine

B) Glucocorticoids

C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D) Urate-lowering drugs

Q2) A patient is admitted for treatment of gout that has been refractory to treatment with allopurinol and probenecid. The patient is taking colchicine, and the prescriber orders pegloticase [Krystexxa]. Before administering this drug, the nurse will expect to:

A) administer an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid.

B) discontinue the colchicine.

C) increase the dose of colchicine.

D) prepare to administer a bronchodilator if needed.

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25969

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with severe glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis will start therapy with teriparatide [Forteo]. What will the nurse expect to administer?

A) 20 mcg once daily subQ

B) 20 mcg twice daily subQ

C) 10 mcg once daily subQ

D) 10 mcg twice daily subQ

Q2) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding ____ daily and ____ IU of vitamin D? each day.

A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000

B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000

C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000

D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with COPD is prescribed tiotropium [Spiriva]. After the initial dose, the patient reports only mild relief within 30 minutes. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "You may have another dose in 4 hours."

B) "You may need to take two inhalations instead of one."

C) "You should have peak effects in about 6 hours."

D) "You should see improved effects within the next week."

Q2) A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask whether the patient is rinsing the mouth after each dose.

B) Request an order for an antifungal medication.

C) Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection.

D) Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.

Q3) A young adult woman will begin using an inhaled glucocorticoid to treat asthma. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of which action?

A) Lowering her calcium intake and increasing her vitamin D intake

B) Participating in weight-bearing exercises on a regular basis

C) Taking oral glucocorticoids during times of acute stress

D) Using two reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has seasonal allergies in the spring and fall asks the nurse about oral antihistamines. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Anticholinergic effects are more common with second-generation antihistamines."

B) "First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine [Benadryl], are more effective."

C) "Make sure you take antihistamines only when you have symptoms to minimize side effects."

D) "You should take oral antihistamines daily during each allergy season to get maximum effects."

Q2) A parent asks a nurse to recommend an intranasal decongestant for a 6-year-old child. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Decongestants are too sedating for children and should not be used."

B) "Decongestants should not be given to children under 7 years old."

C) "Decongestant drops are recommended instead of decongestant sprays."

D) "Decongestant sprays should be used no longer than 5 to 10 days."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25972

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with PUD reports taking low-dose aspirin (ASA) for prevention of cardiovascular disease. The nurse learns that the patient drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee each day and has a glass of wine with dinner 3 or 4 nights per week. The patient eats three meals a day. The nurse will counsel this patient to:

A) change the meal pattern to five or six smaller meals per day.

B) discontinue taking aspirin, because it can irritate the stomach.

C) stop drinking wine or any other alcoholic beverage.

D) switch to a decaffeinated coffee and reduce the number of servings.

Q2) A patient stops taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) after 6 weeks of therapy for treatment of peptic ulcer disease. The patient reports symptoms of dyspepsia to the nurse. The nurse will tell this patient to:

A) come to the clinic to be tested for Clostridium difficile.

B) resume taking the PPI, because long-term therapy is necessary.

C) resume taking the PPI until symptoms resolve completely.

D) try an antacid to see whether it relieves these symptoms.

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.

B) Give another dose of the psyllium.

C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.

D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.

Q2) A patient is admitted with lower abdominal pain and nausea. The nurse performing the initial assessment notes that the patient's abdomen is distended and firm, and hypoactive bowel sounds are present. The patient has not had a stool for 3 days. The nurse will contact the provider, who will:

A) order a bulk-forming laxative.

B) order extra fluids and fiber.

C) perform diagnostic tests.

D) prescribe a cathartic laxative.

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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient with ulcerative colitis who is being treated with sulfasalazine [Azulfidine]. What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the action of sulfasalazine?

A) "It treats the infection that triggers the condition."

B) "It reduces the inflammation."

C) "It enhances the immune response."

D) "It increases the reabsorption of fluid."

Q2) A pregnant patient who is taking ondansetron [Zofran] for morning sickness tells the nurse she is experiencing headache and dizziness. What will the nurse tell her?

A) It is not safe to take this drug during pregnancy.

B) These are common side effects of ondansetron.

C) She should stop taking the ondansetron immediately.

D) She should report these adverse effects to her provider.

Q3) Which types of drugs are used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A) Aminosalicylates

B) Glucocorticoids

C) Immunomodulators

D) Opioid antidiarrheals

E) Sulfonamide antibiotics

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Page 82

Chapter 81: Vitamins

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975

Sample Questions

Q1) An adult who has been self-medicating, using nutritional therapy for an elevated cholesterol level, complains of repeated episodes of flushing. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking:

A) niacin.

B) thiamine.

C) riboflavin.

D) pyridoxine.

Q2) Which of the following vitamins can be stored by the body?

A) Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol)

B) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

C) Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B₁₂)

D) Folic acid

E) Vitamin D

Q3) A child is diagnosed with rickets. The nurse knows that this child is most likely deficient in which vitamin?

A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)

B) Thiamin (vitamin B₁)

C) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

D) Vitamin D

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is counseling a group of patients who are beginning a weight-loss diet. The nurse discusses the role of exercise in weight management. Which statement by a patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Exercise has a greater role in weight-loss maintenance than in weight loss itself."

B) "Exercise helps by reducing abdominal fat and improving cardiovascular fitness."

C) "Once I lose weight, I can reduce the amount of time per week I exercise."

D) "I should begin with at least 30 minutes of exercise per day, 5 days per week."

Q2) A 50-year-old patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 26 and a waist circumference (WC) of 37 who smokes asks a nurse about drugs for weight loss. She tells the nurse, "I keep trying to eat less, but it doesn't work." What will the nurse do?

A) Ask her to begin keeping a log of her food intake and activities.

B) Counsel her to quit smoking to reduce her health risk.

C) Suggest she begin walking every day to increase the number of calories burned.

D) Tell her she is a candidate for drug therapy and suggest she contact her provider.

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5°C. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic.

B) order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results.

C) treat symptomatically, because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis.

D) treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.

Q2) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?

A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."

B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."

C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."

D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:

Penicillins

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25978

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular penicillin to a patient who is infected with Treponema pallidum and notes that the order is for sodium penicillin G. Which action is correct?

A) Administer the drug as prescribed.

B) Contact the provider to discuss administering the drug intravenously.

C) Contact the provider to discuss changing the drug to benzathine penicillin G.

D) Request an order for piperacillin instead of penicillin G.

Q2) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order:

A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin].

B) ampicillin.

C) nafcillin.

D) penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].

Q3) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the medication as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.

C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.

D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.

Page 86

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a skin infection and the culture reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What is an appropriate treatment for this patient?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefotaxime

D) Ceftaroline

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:

A) allergic reaction.

B) red man syndrome.

C) rhabdomyolysis.

D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

Q3) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?

A) Cefaclor

B) Cefazolin

C) Cefoxitin

D) Cefotaxime

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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:

Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child with an upper respiratory infection caused by B. pertussis is receiving erythromycin ethylsuccinate. After 2 days of treatment, the parent asks the nurse why the child's symptoms have not improved. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Erythromycin eliminates the bacteria that causes the infection, but not the toxin that causes the symptoms."

B) "We may need to add penicillin or another antibiotic to increase the antimicrobial spectrum."

C) "We will need to review the culture sensitivity information to see whether a different antibiotic is indicated."

D) "Your child may have developed a suprainfection that we need to culture and treat."

Q2) A patient received 500 mg of azithromycin [Zithromax] at 0800 as a first dose. What are the usual amount and time of the second dose of azithromycin?

A) 250 mg at 2000 the same day

B) 500 mg at 2000 the same day

C) 250 mg at 0800 the next day

D) 500 mg at 0800 the next day

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88

Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.

B) Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly.

C) Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload.

D) Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.

Q2) A patient who takes the loop diuretic ethacrynic acid is given intravenous gentamicin for an infection. After several days of treatment with gentamicin, the nurse reviews the patient's most recent laboratory results and notes a gentamicin trough of 2.1 mcg/mL and normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. The nurse will question the patient about:

A) gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.

B) headache, dizziness, or vertigo.

C) presence of rash.

D) urine output.

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bronchitis is taking TMP/SMZ, 160/800 mg orally, twice daily. Before administering the third dose, the nurse notes that the patient has a widespread rash, a temperature of 103°F, and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. The patient looks ill and reports not feeling well. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the dose and request an order for an antipyretic medication.

B) Withhold the dose and request an order for an antihistamine to treat the rash.

C) Withhold the dose and notify the provider of the symptoms.

D) Request an order for intravenous TMP/SMZ, because the patient is getting worse.

Q2) A patient who is taking immunosuppressant medications develops a urinary tract infection. The causative organism is sensitive to sulfonamides and to another, more expensive antibiotic. The prescriber orders the more expensive antibiotic. The nursing student assigned to this patient asks the nurse why the more expensive antibiotic is being used. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Immunosuppressed patients are folate deficient."

B) "Patients who are immunosuppressed are more likely to develop resistance."

C) "Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and depend on host immunity to work."

D) "Sulfonamides intensify the effects of immunosuppression."

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of renal calculi has fever, flank pain, and bacteriuria. The nurse caring for this patient understands that it is important for the provider to:

A) begin antibiotic therapy after urine culture and sensitivity results are available.

B) give prophylactic antibiotics for 6 weeks after the acute infection has cleared.

C) initiate immediate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics.

D) refer the patient for intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.

Q2) Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics?

A) A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria

B) A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever

C) A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection

D) An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter

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Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex

Infection

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21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse reads a tuberculin skin test on a patient and notes a 6- to 7-mm area of induration. The patient is a young adult who has recently immigrated from a country with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. The patient has no other risk factors. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) begin treating this patient with a two-drug regimen of isoniazid and rifampin.

B) order a chest radiograph and a sputum culture to assess for active tuberculosis.

C) order a nucleic acid amplification test of the patient's sputum.

D) reassure the patient that this is not considered a positive test result.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who has taken protease inhibitors for 18 months. The patient has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which drugs would the nurse expect to be added to the treatment plan of a patient with HIV/AIDS?

A) Isoniazid

B) Rifampin [Rifadin]

C) Pyrazinamide [PZA]

D) Ethambutol [Myambutol]

E) Rifabutin [Mycobutin]

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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11 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children?

A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]

D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

E) Ofloxacin

Q2) A 65-year-old patient who receives glucocorticoids for arthritis is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The prescriber has ordered intravenous ciprofloxacin [Cipro]. Before administering the third dose of this drug, the nurse reviews the bacterial culture report and notes that the causative organism is Escherichia coli. The bacterial sensitivity report is pending. The patient complains of right ankle pain.

What will the nurse do?

A) Withhold the dose of ciprofloxacin and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.

B) Instruct the patient to exercise the right foot and ankle to minimize the pain.

C) Question the patient about the consumption of milk and any other dairy products.

D) Request an order to increase this patient's dose of glucocorticoids.

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. In spite of receiving diphenhydramine and acetaminophen before initiation of treatment, the patient has fever and chills with rigors. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss the addition of which drug?

A) Aspirin

B) Dantrolene

C) Hydrocortisone

D) Omeprazole

Q2) A patient is receiving intravenous voriconazole [Vfend]. Shortly after the infusion starts, the patient tells the nurse, "Colors look different, and the light hurts my eyes." What will the nurse do?

A) Observe the patient closely for the development of hallucinations.

B) Reassure the patient that these effects will subside in about 30 minutes.

C) Stop the infusion and notify the provider of CNS toxicity.

D) Tell the patient that this is an irreversible effect of the drug.

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94

Chapter

Infections

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15 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient with cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis who will receive the ganciclovir ocular implant [Vitrasert]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "My vision may be blurred for 2 to 4 weeks after receiving the implant."

B) "Surgical placement of the implant is an outpatient procedure."

C) "The implant will remain in place permanently."

D) "The implant will slow progression of CMV retinitis."

Q2) A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks, the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level.

B) Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose.

C) Request an order for a creatinine clearance level.

D) Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.

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95

Chapter

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing education to a group of patients who are HIV positive. The nurse is discussing the various medications used to treat HIV infection. A patient asks about nevirapine [Viramune]. Which statements by the nurse most accurately reflect the facts about nevirapine?

A) "Some herbal preparations can reduce the levels of this drug."

B) "This agent can damage the liver; therefore, liver function tests are needed periodically."

C) "Usually no adverse effects occur when this medication is used alone."

D) "The drug must be dosed five times per day at evenly spaced intervals."

E) "You should call your healthcare provider immediately if you develop a rash."

Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient who has recently started on delavirdine [Rescriptor]. Which concurrent prescription should the nurse question before administration?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]

C) Morphine

D) Penicillin

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Page 96

Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever, headache, malaise, joint pain, and enlarged lymph nodes. Blood cultures are positive for Treponema pallidum. The nurse recognizes this as which type of syphilis?

A) Congenital

B) Primary

C) Secondary

D) Tertiary

Q2) A newborn infant has been given erythromycin ophthalmic ointment as a routine postpartum medication. The infant's mother learns that she has a C. trachomatis infection and asks the nurse if her baby will need to be treated. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "The erythromycin ointment will prevent your baby from developing conjunctivitis."

B) "Without additional treatment, your baby could develop blindness."

C) "Your baby will need to be treated with oral erythromycin."

D) "Your baby will need to take doxycycline [Vibramycin] for 10 days."

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why systemic antibiotics and not topical antiseptic agents are used to treat localized skin infections. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Systemic agents are not affected by wound exudates."

B) "Systemic agents penetrate to the site of infection."

C) "Topical agents can damage inflamed or abraded tissues."

D) "Topical agents work only against established local infections."

Q2) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?

A) A patient with a systemic infection

B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess

C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate

D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis

Q3) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?

A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)

B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)

C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)

D) Sodium hypochlorite

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Page 98

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated with albendazole [Albenza] for neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of the pork tapeworm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the drug regimen?

A) "I may need to take this medication for a month before the infestation is cleared."

B) "I should take this drug with a fatty meal to improve absorption."

C) "I will need to have liver function tests before and during treatment."

D) "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free days."

Q2) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count, which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?

A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)

B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)

C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)

D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)

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99

Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention, the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?

A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]

B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]

C) Primaquine phosphate

D) Quinine [Qualaquin]

Q2) The nurse is caring for a newly admitted African American patient who has just returned from a mission trip to Africa. The patient contracted malaria and is being treated with primaquine. What will the nurse monitor?

A) The patient's blood for evidence of hyperlipidemia

B) The patient's eyes for evidence of icterus

C) The patient's skin for photosensitivity

D) The patient's urinary output for evidence of darkening urine

Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]?

A) Cinchonism

B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

C) Increased ventricular rate

D) Nightmares

E) Prolonged QT interval

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Page 100

Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."

B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."

C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."

D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with severe symptomatic intestinal amebiasis who has just completed a 10-day course of metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered for the patient?

A) Atovaquone [Mepron]

B) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]

C) Nitazoxanide [Alinia]

D) Pentamidine [Pentam]

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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has completed treatment with lindane shampoo for pediculosis, but the infestation has not been eradicated. The patient asks the nurse about repeating the treatment. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) A second treatment may be administered in 2 to 4 weeks.

B) Lindane continues to have residual effects for several weeks after treatment.

C) Repeat use of this drug may cause serious side effects.

D) The patient should ask the prescriber to order lindane cream for a second treatment.

Q2) A patient who has scabies is treated with permethrin 5% cream. The patient calls the nurse 1 week after treatment to report continued intense itching. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) "This is a hypersensitivity reaction to the permethrin."

B) "This is the body's normal response to the scabies mites."

C) "You will need a second treatment of the permethrin."

D) "You will need to take ivermectin to clear up the infestation."

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102

Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with cancer has a tumor composed mostly of G₀ cells. When teaching this patient about the disease, the nurse will make which statement?

A) "Cells in this patient's type of tumor will proliferate rapidly."

B) "Chemotherapeutic agents that are not toxic to other tissues may be used."

C) "This type of tumor is especially sensitive to chemotherapy."

D) "This tumor will be managed primarily with surgery."

Q2) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?

A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums

B) The patient with nausea and vomiting

C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F

D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis

Q3) A patient who has undergone surgical removal of a solid tumor has just begun chemotherapy. The patient experiences severe nausea and vomiting as well as alopecia. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) continue the chemotherapeutic agent at the same dose.

B) decrease the dose of chemotherapy to minimize side effects.

C) order lab tests to evaluate for the presence of residual cancer cells.

D) stop the chemotherapy because the tumor has been removed.

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Page 103

Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing the care of a patient with cancer with a nursing student. The patient is about to begin chemotherapy with a bifunctional alkylating agent. Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent?

A) "Alkylating agents are toxic to tissues that have rapidly dividing cells."

B) "Bifunctional alkylating agents cannot form cross-links in DNA."

C) "Resistance to alkylating agents is rare."

D) "This drug needs to be given as a prolonged infusion."

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking oral cyclophosphamide to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding about how to minimize side effects while taking this drug?

A) "I don't need to worry about bone marrow suppression with this drug."

B) "I should drink plenty of fluids while taking this drug."

C) "I should take this drug on an empty stomach."

D) "If I shampoo less often, I can prevent hair loss."

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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin [Proleukin] as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug?

A) Hypertension

B) Capillary leakage syndrome

C) Hyperglycemia

D) Hyperuricemia

Q2) A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her?

A) Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen.

B) Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma.

C) Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole.

D) Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.

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Page 105

Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer timolol [Timoptic] eye drops to a patient who has open-angle glaucoma. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse will contact the provider to discuss changing to which medication?

A) Betaxolol

B) Carteolol

C) Levobunolol

D) Metipranolol

Q2) A patient has been using latanoprost [Xalatan] ophthalmic drops. The patient tells the nurse, "My eyes used to be greenish-brown, but now they're brown." What will the nurse do?

A) Reassure the patient that this is a harmless side effect.

B) Report this toxic effect to the patient's provider.

C) Tell the patient that this indicates an increased risk of migraine headaches.

D) Tell the patient that this effect will reverse when the medication is withdrawn.

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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse what a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 indicates. The nurse will tell the patient that an SPF of 15 indicates:

A) a 93% block of UVB radiation.

B) half the protection of a sunscreen with an SPF of 30.

C) low protection.

D) that it takes 15 minutes for the sun to burn.

Q2) A child with eczema has been treated unsuccessfully with a topical glucocorticoid for a year and has skin atrophy and hypopigmentation. The nurse will suggest discussing which drugs with the provider?

A) Higher potency topical glucocorticoids

B) Topical keratolytic agents

C) Topical immunosuppressants

D) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of lifeguards about safe sunning. Which statement by a lifeguard indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before going outside."

B) "I do not need sunscreen when it is cloudy outside."

C) "I should reapply sunscreen after swimming."

D) "UV radiation does not penetrate through water."

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Page 107

Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are components of otitis externa management?

A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops

B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator

C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming

D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear

Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:

A) acidifying drops for 1 week.

B) antibiotic ear drops.

C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.

D) oral antibiotics.

Q3) An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower.

B) clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming.

C) keep the ear canals free of cerumen.

D) use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming.

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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking gamma-hydroxybutyrate [Xyrem] for narcolepsy. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient that respiratory depression is a potential risk with concomitant use of:

A) alcohol.

B) beta blockers.

C) caffeine.

D) nicotine.

Q2) An adult patient with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a severe acute crisis with an opioid analgesic, a glucocorticoid, and hydroxyurea. The patient's complete blood count reveals neutrophils 2000/mm³, platelets 85,000/mm³, reticulocytes 85,000/mm³, and a hemoglobin of 4.2 gm/dL. What will the nurse anticipate doing?

A) Decreasing the glucocorticoid dose

B) Increasing the glucocorticoid dose

C) Increasing the hydroxyurea dose

D) Stopping the hydroxyurea

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109

Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse what companies are allowed to put on products which are considered alternative use drugs. Which general statements can be included on the label?

A) Energizes and rejuvenates.

B) Protects against cancer.

C) Improves symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.

D) Relieves menopausal hot flashes.

Q2) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?

A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.

B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.

C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.

D) It increases the risk of bleeding.

Q3) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements?

A) "Energizes and rejuvenates."

B) "Promotes pulmonary health."

C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis."

D) "Reduces stress."

E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause."

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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient who works with heavy metals and who is about to begin taking a chelating agent to treat heavy metal poisoning. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "This drug will not affect any metals already bound to cells in my body."

B) "This drug will bind with the metals to form less toxic molecules."

C) "This type of drug can block the metal from binding with molecules in my body."

D) "When the drug forms a chelate with the metal, the chelate can be excreted safely."

Q2) A patient will begin taking dimercaprol [BAL in Oil] for arsenic poisoning. The nurse performs a medical history on this patient. Which aspect of the patient's history would cause the most concern?

A) Anemia

B) Lead exposure

C) Peanut allergy

D) Peptic ulcer disease

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters, and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry, barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?

A) Prepare for renal dialysis.

B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.

C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.

D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.

Q2) A nurse is teaching a course in bioterrorism to a group of military nurses. Which statement by a military nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Although smallpox has been eradicated, it remains a threat."

B) "Anthrax is spread rapidly from person to person."

C) "Pneumonic plague is not transmitted from person to person."

D) "Terrorists spreading tularemia would most likely put it in the water supply."

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