Medical-Surgical Nursing Solved Exam Questions
Course
Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing provides a comprehensive overview of nursing care for adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. This course covers foundational concepts such as patient assessment, clinical decision-making, and evidence-based interventions related to the care of individuals undergoing medical and surgical treatments. Key topics include perioperative care, fluid and electrolyte balance, pain management, infection control, and the management of cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal, and endocrine disorders. Emphasis is placed on the development of critical thinking skills, effective communication, patient safety, and interprofessional collaboration to ensure high-quality, holistic care across a variety of clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
Q2) A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease.This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.
A) prodromal
B) latent
C) sequela
D) convalescence
Answer: B
Q3) A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake.This is an example of A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect of stress on the immune system A) is unknown.
B) has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies.
C) most often involves enhancement of the immune system. D) may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
Answer: D
Q2) Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by A) norepinephrine.
B) cortisol.
C) glucagon.
D) ACTH.
Answer: A
Q3) All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except A) aldosterone.
B) cortisol.
C) norepinephrine.
D) epinephrine.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the
A) mitochondria.
B) ribosome.
C) lysosome.
D) nucleus.
Answer: A
Q2) Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form
A) CO and H O.
B) 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate.
C) 30 ATP.
D) oxygen.
Answer: B
Q3) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular response indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism is A) hydropic swelling.
B) lactate production.
C) metaplasia.
D) intracellular accumulations.
Q2) The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the A) membrane.
B) DNA.
C) RNA.
D) ribosomes.
Q3) Coagulative necrosis is caused by A) dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.
B) trauma or pancreatitis.
C) lung tissue damage.
D) interrupted blood supply.
Q4) Reperfusion injury to cells
A) results in very little cellular damage.
B) results from calcium deficiency in cells.
C) occurs following nutritional injury.
D) involves formation of free radicals.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues is due to A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q3) The primary role of genes is to A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
Q2) Characteristics of Marfan syndrome include that it
A) is a single-gene disorder.
B) involves alterations in connective tissue.
C) leads to skeletal and joint deformities.
D) leads to short stocky build.
E) results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders.
Q3) Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU).The parents ask what PKU means.Correct responses would include all the following except PKU
A) is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
B) is an inborn error of metabolism.
C) results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction.
D) is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder.
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8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q2) Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
A) occurs at an earlier age.
B) is more likely to be unilateral.
C) is more common than non-inherited breast cancer.
D) is more responsive to treatment.
Q3) Side effects of chemotherapy include A) anemia.
B) nausea.
C) leukocytosis.
D) bleeding.
E) infections.
Q4) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method of disease transmission is A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
Q2) The term infectivity is defined as the ability to A) cause disease.
B) spread.
C) cause very severe disease.
D) invade and multiply.
Q3) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection, because it maintains A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activation of the complement cascade results in
A) antibody production.
B) inflammation.
C) immunosuppression.
D) autoimmunity.
E) chemotaxis.
Q2) The primary function of kinins is
A) phagocytosis of antigens.
B) production of antibodies.
C) to limit immune reactions.
D) vasodilation to enhance inflammation.
Q3) The primary function of eosinophils is to
A) kill parasitic helminths (worms).
B) kill bacteria.
C) stop viral replication.
D) phagocytize fungi.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is A) IgA.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q2) Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by A) donor antigens.
B) recipient antibodies.
C) donor T cells.
D) recipient T cells.
Q3) An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is A) complement.
B) antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) T cells.
D) histamine.
Q4) The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is A) DiGeorge.
B) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
C) Wiskott-Aldrich.
D) selective IgA.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
Q2) What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR)of leukemia?
A) CR is the absence of leukemic cells in the blood.
B) CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.
C) CR is absence of leukemic cells regardless of CBC values.
D) CR is less than 5% leukemic cells in the blood.
Q3) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the
Q4) Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which
A) there is a high rejection rate.
B) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor.
C) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin.
D) stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
Q2) In which type of cells is the CD4 found?
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
Q3) The HIV nurse educator teaches a newly diagnosed patient about HIV.The nurse educator tells the patient that in the United States, those at greatest risk of HIV infection include
A) infants born to infected fathers.
B) heterosexual women.
C) homosexual men.
D) restaurant workers.
E) men over age 50.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
A) Increased total iron-binding capacity
B) Increased heart rate
C) Hypovolemia
D) Jaundice
Q2) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measures to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with aplastic anemia.The nurse expects to find what patient symptoms upon assessment?
A) Lethargy
B) Heart palpitations
C) Transient murmurs
D) Bradycardia
E) Orthopnea
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before ____ years of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs
A) activation of the coagulation cascade.
B) platelet aggregation.
C) platelet adhesion to injured tissue.
D) platelet production.
Q2) Treatment for hemophilia A includes
A) heparin administration.
B) factor IX replacement.
C) factor VIII replacement.
D) platelet transfusion.
Q3) Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by A) platelet factors.
B) collagen exposure.
C) tissue thromboplastin.
D) factor VII.
Q4) Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P)in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?
A) Q = P/R
B) Q = R/P
C) R = PQ
D) P = Q/R
Q2) A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is A) stroke.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) extremity necrosis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q3) Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.
A) increases capillary oncotic
B) increases arterial blood
C) decreases tissue
D) increases capillary hydrostatic
Q4) The smallest vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic vessels are commonly referred to as the ________.
Q5) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
Page 17
Q6) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q2) A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision.The patient's symptomology is most likely related to A) hypertension.
B) hypotension.
C) deep vein thrombosis.
D) angina.
Q3) An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by A) positioning the arm above the heart level.
B) using a cuff that is too small.
C) positioning the arm at heart level.
D) measuring blood pressure after exercise.
Q4) Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.
A) systolic
B) mean arterial
C) diastolic
D) pulse
Q5) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Echocardiograms are used to help diagnose
A) heart enlargement.
B) valvular disorders.
C) cardiac tumors.
D) left ventricular motion abnormalities.
E) collection of fluid in lung bases.
Q2) Which proteins are associated with the thin filament in the cardiac muscle?
A) Actin
B) Titin
C) Nebulin
D) Troponin
E) Myosin
Q3) One role of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction is
A) providing energy to pump calcium into the cell.
B) inducing a conformational change in tropomyosin.
C) altering myosin affinity for actin-binding sites.
D) releasing sequestered calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q4) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Q5) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitral stenosis is associated with
A) a prominent S<sub>4</sub> heart sound.
B) a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.
C) left ventricular hypertrophy.
D) a muffled second heart sound (S<sub>2</sub>).
Q2) While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).What is the significance of this finding?
A) Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.
B) Measures to decrease LDL levels in the elderly would be unlikely to affect the progression of this disease.
C) Increased LDL levels are indicative of moderate alcohol intake, and patients should be advised to abstain.
D) Elevated LDL levels are an expected finding in the elderly and therefore are not particularly significant.
Q3) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
Q4) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit A) jugular vein distention.
B) pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.
C) peripheral edema.
D) hepatomegaly.
Q2) An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second)QRS complex is characteristic of A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
B) supraventricular tachycardia.
C) junctional escape rhythm.
D) premature ventricular complexes.
Q3) Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?
A) Second-degree AV block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Junctional escape
D) Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiogenic shock is characterized by A) hypovolemia.
B) reduced systemic vascular resistance.
C) reduced cardiac output.
D) elevated SvO2.
Q2) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output. B) SvO2.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
Q3) The urinary signs and symptoms of acute renal failure associated with the progressive stage of shock are A) polyuria. B) oliguria.
C) decreased blood urea nitrogen.
D) increased serum creatinine. E) tachycardia.
Q4) _________________ is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary pulmonary hypertension is most often caused by
A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) increased left atrial pressure.
D) decreased alveolar compliance.
Q2) Which person is at greatest risk for developing a pulmonary embolism?
A) A 25-year-old man with asthma
B) A 28-year-old woman in the first trimester of a normal pregnancy
C) A 42-year-old woman with a broken ankle
D) A 67-year-old man with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein
Q3) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Q4) Hypoventilation causes
A) hypoxemia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaO .
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Croup is characterized by
A) a productive cough.
B) a barking cough.
C) an inability to cough.
D) drooling, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing.
Q2) Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have
A) a productive cough.
B) normal lung sounds.
C) a barrel chest.
D) substantial weight loss.
Q3) Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?
A) Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
B) Decreased functional residual capacity
C) Increased FEV1
D) Reduced total lung volume
Q4) Obstructive disorders are associated with
A) low residual volumes.
B) low expiratory flow rates.
C) increased expiratory reserve volume.
D) decreased total lung capacity.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called
A) tension pneumothorax.
B) open pneumothorax.
C) pleural effusion.
D) empyema.
Q2) Common characteristics of sarcoidosis include
A) presence of CD4<sup>+</sup> T cells.
B) a non-productive cough.
C) leukocytosis.
D) granulomas in multiple body systems.
E) fatigue, weight loss, and fever.
Q3) A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is A) high fever.
B) alveolar infiltrates on a chest x-ray.
C) increased white blood cell count.
D) dry cough.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of A) hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
B) hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia and hypokalemia.
D) hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Q2) Causes of hypomagnesemia include A) hyperphosphatemia.
B) chronic alcoholism.
C) oliguric renal failure.
D) clinical dehydration.
Q3) Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of A) angiotensin.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) aldosterone.
D) vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).
Q4) Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily due to A) cellular fluid shifts.
B) vascular collapse.
C) hyperosmolarity.
D) hypervolemia.
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Causes of metabolic acidosis include A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue anoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q2) Respiratory acidosis is associated with A) increased carbonic acid.
B) hypokalemia.
C) increased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased pH.
Q3) Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) mixed acid-base disorders.
Q4) Diarrhea causes
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serum creatinine may be increased by
A) carbohydrate intake.
B) fat intake.
C) muscle breakdown.
D) fluid intake.
Q2) The glomerular filtration rate is most accurately reflected in the
A) blood urea nitrogen level.
B) urinary output.
C) serum osmolality.
D) serum creatinine level.
Q3) It is true that glucose reabsorption in the tubules
A) occurs passively.
B) occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule.
C) is unlimited.
D) simply does not occur.
Q4) The primary selectivity barrier for glomerular filtration is the A) glomerular basement membrane.
B) endothelial tight junctions.
C) epithelial fenestra.
D) mesangial cells.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia.This happens because
A) hepatocyte failure decreases albumin synthesis.
B) albumin is excreted in the urine.
C) albumin leaks into the interstitial spaces.
D) malnutrition is part of nephrotic syndrome.
Q2) The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
A) infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection.
B) immune system damage to the glomeruli.
C) hydronephrosis resulting from kidney stones.
D) Streptococcus infection that migrates from the bloodstream to the glomerulus.
Q3) The most common type of renal stone is
A) uric acid.
B) calcium.
C) struvite.
D) cysteine.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
Q2) The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by
A) fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.
B) fever and diminishing cognition.
C) sodium retention and potassium loss in the urine.
D) magnesium and phosphorous loss in the urine.
Q3) A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because
A) the basement membrane becomes increasingly permeable.
B) filtration exceeds secretory and reabsorptive capacity.
C) excessive solute and water are lost in the urine.
D) GFR declines.
Q4) What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Polyuria and nocturia
C) Uremia
D) Hematuria
Q5) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urge incontinence is often due to A) aging.
B) bladder infections.
C) obesity.
D) prostate enlargement.
E) diuretics.
Q2) The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency.She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder.She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections.She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism.Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of
A) neuroses.
B) ureteral stone.
C) neurogenic bladder.
D) interstitial cystitis.
Q3) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The activation of sperm after they enter the vagina is called A) flagellation.
B) ejaculation.
C) emission.
D) capacitation.
Q2) The capacitation process occurs in sperm
A) after introduction into the vagina.
B) before emission from the penis.
C) after fertilization of the egg.
D) before ejaculation from the penis.
Q3) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is
Q2) Sexual impotence is rarely due to
A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q3) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q4) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q6) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______. Page 33
Q5) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs in response to the A) increase in progesterone.
B) increase in luteinizing hormone and FSH.
C) decrease in estrogen.
D) decrease in gonadotropin.
Q2) From the time of fertilization until the end of the eighth week, the developing organism is referred to as the A) zygote.
B) fetus.
C) infant.
D) embryo.
Q3) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed.The procedure performed was a
A) radical mastectomy.
B) modified radical mastectomy.
C) mastectomy.
D) lumpectomy.
Q2) What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
A) Rectocele
B) Menopause
C) Cystocele
D) Cervicitis
Q3) Endometriosis is a condition in which A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Granuloma inguinale
D) Chancroid
Q2) Transmission of Chlamydia during birth may result in ________, or infection of the eyes in the newborn.
A) neonatal jaundice
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) neonatal conjunctivitis
D) erythema neonatorum
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sympathetic nerve endings in the GI tract secrete
A) acetylcholine.
B) histamine.
C) gastrin.
D) norepinephrine.
Q2) Which can be absorbed through the intestinal epithelia without further digestion?
A) Sucrose
B) Lactose
C) Glucose
D) Glycogen
Q3) The action of bile is to A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by
A) maintaining a low-fiber diet.
B) maintaining the current level of activity.
C) fecal disimpaction.
D) increasing fiber in the diet.
Q2) Barrett esophagus is a
A) gastrin secreting lesion.
B) preneoplastic lesion.
C) benign condition.
D) gastrin-secreting tumor.
Q3) Crohn disease is associated with what complications?
A) Perianal fissures
B) Fistulae
C) Green stool
D) Abscesses
E) Rectal pain
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for A) respiratory depression.
B) narcotic dependency.
C) sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
D) allergic reaction.
Q2) More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with A) trauma.
B) stones.
C) alcoholism.
D) high cholesterol.
Q3) It is true that biliary cancer
A) is most often cured by surgery.
B) respond well to chemotherapy.
C) are identifiable and treatable when diagnosed early. D) tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
Q2) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes.
B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q3) Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called A) hepatic encephalopathy.
B) hepatic meningitis.
C) kernicterus.
D) encephalitis.
Q4) Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to A) hepatitis vaccine.
B) feces.
C) blood or semen.
D) contaminated food.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid hormones are derived from A) peptides.
B) tyrosine amino acids.
C) globulin.
D) catecholamines.
Q2) Most endocrine hormones are water-soluble and exert their effects on target cells by
A) binding to nuclear receptors.
B) generating second messengers.
C) binding to intracellular receptors.
D) stimulating action potentials.
Q3) The release of prolactin is normally inhibited by A) dopamine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) somatostatin.
D) somatomedin.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reporting vision changes, photophobia, and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
A) Addison disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) Graves disease.
Q2) It is true that Graves disease is
A) a secondary endocrine disorder.
B) associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.
C) characterized by high serum TSH levels.
D) untreatable.
Q3) Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism
A) are similar to those occurring with hypermagnesemia.
B) result from decreased neuromuscular excitability.
C) are similar to those occurring with hypokalemia.
D) result from decreased serum ionized calcium.
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43
Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapies that would be appropriate for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus include
A) carbohydrate counting.
B) high-protein diet.
C) daily exercise.
D) insulin.
E) oral hypoglycemic agents.
Q2) The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dl for adults with diabetes.
A) less than 180
B) more than 180
C) 70
D) 130
Q3) In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of A) respiratory alkalosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called
A) glycogenolysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) proteolysis.
Q2) The postoperative energy requirement can increase ____ above BMR.
A) 7%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) 15% to 30%.
D) 50%.
Q3) Which hormone promotes protein synthesis?
A) Glucagon
B) Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
D) Testosterone
Q4) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The language center in most individuals is located in the A) frontal lobe.
B) left hemisphere.
C) right hemisphere
D) limbic area.
Q2) It is true that a N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)receptor
A) is activated by glutamate.
B) is a ligand-gated calcium ion channels.
C) opens only when the membrane has been previously depolarized.
D) blockade is associated with enhanced short-term memory.
E) is blocked by a sodium ion.
Q3) A common inhibitory central nervous system (CNS)neurotransmitter is A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) g-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
D) glutamate.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which brain disorders are a cause of acute brain injury?
A) Seizure disorders
B) Brain trauma
C) Dementias
D) Brain hemorrhage
E) Central nervous system infections.
Q2) It is true that epidural bleeding is
A) associated with widespread vascular disruption.
B) located between the arachnoid and the dura mater.
C) usually due to venous leakage.
D) characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
Q3) A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is
A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring.
C) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
D) central perfusion pressure (CPP).
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include
A) intention tremor and akinesia.
B) rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.
C) ataxia and intention tremor.
D) skeletal muscle rigidity and intention tremor.
Q2) The primary reason that prolonged seizure activity predisposes to ischemic brain damage is that
A) neurons are unable to transport glucose.
B) cardiovascular regulation is impaired.
C) the brainstem is depressed.
D) the lack of airway maintenance can lead to hypoxia.
Q3) Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by
A) hypertension and bradycardia.
B) hypotension and shock.
C) pallor and vasoconstriction above the level of injury.
D) extreme pain below the level of injury.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ménière disease is characterized by A) bilateral hearing impairment.
B) vertigo in association with hearing loss.
C) middle ear infection.
D) ossification of bones in the middle ear.
Q2) A condition of ocular misalignment that causes a cross-eyed appearance is referred to as
A) strabismus.
B) amblyopia.
C) cataract.
D) retinopathy.
Q3) A sudden onset of eye pain and impaired vision associated with pupil dilation is characteristic of A) narrow-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) cataract.
D) retinal detachment.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common causes of acute pain is
A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Q2) Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to
A) neuralgia.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) fibromyalgia syndrome.
D) neuropathy.
Q3) Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) C fiber
D) anterolateral
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schizophrenia is characterized by
A) generalized anxiety.
B) depression.
C) disorganized thinking.
D) eating disorders.
Q2) Depression is thought to be associated with
A) abnormal personality development.
B) early childhood emotional trauma.
C) deficient brain norepinephrine and serotonin.
D) excessive stimulation of D<sub>1</sub> and D<sub>2</sub> receptors in the brain.
Q3) Which manifestation is characteristic of the "positive" symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Social withdrawal
B) Flat affect
C) Lack of speech
D) Hallucinations
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) The first-line treatment for post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is
A) adrenergic blockers.
B) benzodiazepines
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Q2) Which statements are true about post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
A) PTSD occurs up to 1 month after an event.
B) PTSD is an acute condition.
C) Remission may take as long as 3 to 4 years.
D) Women appear to take longer to recover from PTSD than men.
E) Acute stress disorder and PTSD are precipitated by a traumatic event.
Q3) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epiphyseal plate
A) provides support to long bones.
B) prevents overactivity of osteoblasts.
C) allows for continued bone lengthening during maturation.
D) has an unknown function.
Q2) Diarthroses are joints that
A) hold the skull bones together.
B) allow little or no joint movement.
C) contain synovial fluid.
D) connect bony segments by a fibrocartilaginous plate.
Q3) Troponin is a muscle protein that
A) binds the myosin protein to form cross-bridges.
B) forms the noncontractile Z lines.
C) binds calcium and regulates tropomyosin.
D) hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for contraction.
Q4) Radicular pain is pain caused by a
A) tissue injury.
B) compressed nerve.
C) fracture of long bones.
D) meniscal tear.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as A) comminuted.
B) open.
C) greenstick.
D) stress.
Q2) Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage A) muscular dystrophy.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) fibromyalgia.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
Q3) Bone healing may be impaired by A) excessive vitamin C.
B) nicotine use.
C) a high-protein diet.
D) immobilization.
Q4) Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to A) bone infarction.
B) soft-tissue damage.
C) muscle necrosis.
D) breakdown of RBCs.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis would be
A) systemic manifestations of inflammation.
B) localized pain in weight-bearing joints.
C) reduced excretion of uric acid by the kidney.
D) firm, crystallized nodules or "tophi" at the affected joints.
Q2) Prosthetic joint infection is most often due to A) defective replacement material.
B) injury to the joint.
C) hematogenous transfer.
D) arthritis.
Q3) The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves
A) immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.
B) free radicals attaching to the synovial membrane and tunneling into articular cartilage.
C) excessive wear and tear and microtrauma that damage articular cartilage.
D) cysts developing in subchondral bone and creating fissures in articular cartilage.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Q1) Onycholysis is characterized by
A) silvery plaques on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) destruction of the nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
Q2) Corticosteroids are commonly administered for the management of skin disorders because they
A) are analgesics.
B) prevent infection.
C) enhance collagen production.
D) reduce inflammation.
Q3) Which skin disorder is thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction and is characterized by bullous eruptions?
A) Pemphigus
B) Psoriasis
C) Pityriasis rosea
D) Lichen planus
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that second-degree, superficial partial-thickness burns
A) are less painful than third-degree burns.
B) involve only the epidermis.
C) usually heal in 7 to 21 days.
D) are rarely associated with scar formation.
Q2) The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to A) limit the glucose available to infectious organisms.
B) create a positive nitrogen balance.
C) protect the kidney from excessive protein intake.
D) avoid hyperlipidemia.
Q3) It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets
A) promotes comfort.
B) facilitates healing.
C) prevents fluid loss.
D) promotes hypothermia.
Q4) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
57
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