Medical-Surgical Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that equips students with the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective care to adult patients experiencing a wide range of medical conditions and surgical interventions. The course emphasizes the nursing process in assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of care, focusing on common diseases, preoperative and postoperative care, pharmacological therapies, and patient education. Through theoretical instruction and clinical experiences, students learn to apply evidence-based practices, prioritize patient needs, and coordinate multidisciplinary care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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50 Chapters
879 Verified Questions
879 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3650
Page 2
Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72584
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?
A) Manufacturer's section
B) Brand and Generic Name section
C) Product Category section
D) Product Information section
Answer: B
Q2) What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?
A) Drug Facts and Comparisons
B) Drug Interaction Facts
C) Handbook on Injectable Drugs
D) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72585
Sample Questions
Q1) Which routes enable drug absorption more rapidly than the subcutaneous route? (Select all that apply.)
A) Intravenous route
B) Intramuscular route
C) Inhalation/sublingual
D) Intradermal route
E) Enteral route
Answer: A, B, C
Q2) What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe?
A) Absorption rate of the drugs
B) Compatibility of the drugs
C) Drug blood level of each drug
D) Medication adverse effects
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72586
Sample Questions
Q1) Which age-related change would most affect transdermal drug absorption in geriatric patients the most?
A) Difficulty swallowing
B) Diminished kidney function
C) Changes in pigmentation
D) Altered circulatory status
Answer: D
Q2) When is the ideal time for a nursing mother to take her own medications?
A) Before the infant latches on to begin to breast-feed
B) As soon as the mother wakes up in the morning
C) Right before the mother goes to sleep at night
D) As soon as the infant finishes breast-feeding
Answer: D
Q3) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A) Teratogens
B) Carcinogens
C) Metabolites
D) Placebos
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72587
Sample Questions
Q1) An obese patient did not meet the goal of "by the end of the second week, is able to follow a 1500-calorie diet." What will the nurse and the patient reassess?
A) Patient's weight
B) Patient's understanding of the 1500-calorie diet
C) Nurse's feelings about obese patients
D) Health care agency's ability to provide the prescribed diet
Q2) Which are ways to distinguish a nursing diagnosis from a medical diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Statement of the patient's alterations in structure and functions
B) Description of the patient's ability to function in relation to impairment
C) Tend to remain the same throughout the course of illness or recovery from injury
D) Varies depending on patient's state of recovery
E) Based on research done by nurses
F) Conditions can be accurately identified by nursing assessment methods
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72588
Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse include during discharge in addition to verbal instructions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Written instructions for the patient's reference
B) A phone number of the provider or hospital unit for follow-up questions
C) Written instructions for monitoring of parameters used to evaluate therapy
D) Documentation in the nurse's discharge notes of the nursing and collaborative problems that require continued monitoring and intervention
E) Identification of the patient's unreasonable expectations of therapy
Q2) Which is an example of ethnocentrism?
A) A 5-year-old Native American child colors in a book about diabetes.
B) A 14-year-old African American attends a support group to learn about disease management.
C) A 36-year-old Asian prefers to take herbs instead of an oral medication.
D) A 72-year-old Hispanic asks questions about potential adverse effects to a newly prescribed medication.
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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 200 mL of solution containing 2 g of boric acid in water. _____
Q2) 1984 = _____
Q3) Convert 2 tsp to milliliters (mL): _____
Q4) 0.125 \(\times\) 10 = _____
Q5) 11/15 - 1/4 = _____
Q6) 500 mL of solution containing 350 mL alcohol in water: _____
Q7) cliv = _____
Q8) 6.2 L = _____ mL
Q9) 300 = _____
Q10) 1 kg = _____ pounds
Q11) Convert 0.2 mg to mcg: _____
Q12) 32% = _____, _____, _____
Q13) Which mathematical system is most accurate?
A) Apothecary
B) Household
C) Metric
D) Arabic Page 8
Q14) 1 qt = _____ cups
Q15) 1000 mL of solution containing 50 g glucose in water: _____
Q16) 1 L = _____ mL
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Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72590
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding computerized prescriber order entry (CPOE)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Integrates the ordering system with the pharmacy, laboratory, and nurses' stations
B) Provides instant access to online information to facilitate patient care needs
C) Facilitates review of ordered medications for potential drug interactions
D) Facilitates review of drugs for appropriateness of dosages
E) Alleviates the need to perform mathematical computations
Q2) Which is known as the "fifth vital sign"?
A) Temperature
B) Respirations
C) Pain
D) Pulse
Q3) Which medication order requires nursing judgment and means "administer if needed"?
A) Morphine 4 mg IV stat
B) Morphine 4 mg IV prior to procedure
C) Morphine 4 mg IV four times a day
D) Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72591
Sample Questions
Q1) Which orders are examples of percutaneous medication administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Timolol 0.5% 1 drop to each eye daily
B) Albuterol nebulizer 2.5 mg qid
C) Heparin 5000 units IV
D) Lasix 20 mg PO every AM
E) Silvadene 1% topically to affected area
Q2) Where does the nurse correctly administer ophthalmic medication?
A) At the inner canthus of the eye
B) In the lower conjunctival sac
C) Directly onto the eyeball
D) To the outer corner of the eyelid
Q3) Where will the nurse administer a medication that was ordered to be given sublingually?
A) Between the molar teeth and cheek
B) Below the skin surface
C) Under the tongue
D) Into the conjunctival sac
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Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral drug administration includes which principles? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dependable rate of absorption
B) Most economical
C) Insulin can be administered via this route.
D) Drugs are delivered directly by the oral, rectal, or NG methods.
E) Dosage forms are convenient and readily available.
Q2) Which is a characteristic of medication administration via the rectal route?
A) Irritation of the mouth
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Bypassing of the digestive enzymes
D) Use of the first-pass metabolism
Q3) Which type of lubricant would the nurse use to administer a rectal suppository?
A) Petroleum jelly
B) Mineral oil
C) Water-soluble
D) Anesthetic
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12
Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of
Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principles are correct for mixing insulin? (Select all that apply.)
A) Insulin orders and calculations must be checked with another nurse.
B) Air is injected into the vial of the shorter-acting insulin first.
C) The longer-acting insulin is drawn up first.
D) The nurse must verify the compatibility of the insulin types.
E) Withdraw the shorter-acting insulin first.
Q2) An adult patient is to receive two medications IM. Which action by the nurse is most important in order to mix the medications in one syringe?
A) Assess for the presence of adequate muscle mass.
B) Ensure that the combined medication amount is less than 2 mL.
C) Determine the compatibility of the medications.
D) Use a needle that is 25-gauge.
Q3) Which are risk factors when administering medications by injection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Trauma at the site of the needle puncture
B) Possibility of infection
C) Irretrievability of the medication once administered
D) Delayed absorption
E) Delayed onset of action
F) Chance of allergic reaction
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration:
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72594
Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique by the nurse is accurate when administering heparin to a thin, older adult patient?
A) Aspirate before injecting the medication.
B) Inject at a 45-degree angle.
C) Inject at a 90-degree angle.
D) Massage site following injection.
Q2) Which is the preferred intramuscular site for injecting a 6-month-old child?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Abdominal
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Deltoid muscle
Q3) Which action by the nurse is most accurate when administering an intradermal injection?
A) Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
B) Inject 0.1 mL.
C) Use a 22-gauge needle.
D) Wipe the site with alcohol after injection.
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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72595
Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse explain when teaching a patient about a PICC line? (Select all that apply.)
A) The catheter may have a single or double lumen.
B) There is greater risk of clotting and infiltration with this type of catheter.
C) The patient will be receiving infusions continuously to ensure patency.
D) The tip of the catheter may be open or valved.
E) The catheter may be used for drawing blood.
Q2) Which patient assessment findings suggest extravasation of an IV solution? (Select all that apply.)
A) Coolness
B) Edema
C) Fever
D) Pain at venipuncture site
E) Redness at the site
F) Shortness of breath
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15
Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72596
Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the administration of metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocking agent, which is most important for the nurse to assess?
A) Blood pressure
B) Lung sounds
C) Mental status
D) Urine output
Q2) Which nerve endings liberate norepinephrine?
A) Cholinergic
B) Adrenergic
C) Anticholinergic
D) Muscarinic
Q3) Which body functions are controlled by the autonomic nervous system? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood pressure
B) Skeletal muscle contraction
C) GI secretion
D) Body temperature
E) Urination
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Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72597
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving diazepam (Valium) is complaining of nausea and vomiting and is becoming jaundiced. Which type of blood work will be performed?
A) Renal function tests
B) Liver function tests
C) Clotting times
D) Electrolyte panels
Q2) Which two phases make up normal sleep?
A) Hypnogogic and hypnopompic
B) REM and non-REM
C) Alpha and beta
D) Delta and theta
Q3) An older adult patient received a hypnotic agent at 9:00 PM. At 2:00 AM, the nurse discovers that the patient has removed her gown and is attempting to get out of bed without assistance. What type of medication effect is the patient exhibiting?
A) Allergic
B) Hypersensitivity
C) Paradoxical
D) Therapeutic
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Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient with Parkinson's disease about levodopa. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding drug administration?
A) "Take this medication in between meals."
B) "Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness."
C) "Take this medication when your tremors get worse."
D) "Take this medication with food or antacids to reduce GI upset."
Q2) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."
B) "I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."
C) "I may need to use a stool softer for constipation."
D) "I should not push the tablet through the foil."
Q3) What is the rationale for administering levodopa for treatment of Parkinson's disease instead of dopamine?
A) Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier when administered orally.
B) Levodopa is much less expensive.
C) The half-life of dopamine is too short.
D) Dopamine has too many reactions with other medications.
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72599
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to educate a patient and significant other about antianxiety medications before the patient's discharge. Which is pertinent information to be included in the teaching plan?
A) Discuss, review, and validate the behavior monitoring system and intervention flow sheet the patient and significant other will continue to use following discharge.
B) Discuss the possible dependence associated with the medication at length to make sure the patient does not overuse the drug.
C) Instruct the patient to educate family members about the medication therapy based on recollection of discussions with the nurse.
D) Provide all instructions verbally, with repetition as needed when requested by the patient.
Q2) Which patient is most likely to respond quickly to antianxiety therapy with benzodiazepines?
A) Patient with a history of long-term anxiety
B) Patient with recent anxiety reactions
C) Patient with severe depression in addition to being anxious
D) Patient with incidents of auditory hallucinations
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72600
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a newly prescribed drug, nefazodone, for treatment of depression. Which physical assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider immediately?
A) Bradycardia
B) Dizziness
C) Drowsiness
D) Urinary retention
Q2) What is the action of MAOIs on neurotransmitters?
A) Blocking their reuptake
B) Increasing their production
C) Blocking their destruction
D) Increasing their reuptake
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about medication treatment for depression. The patient asks how long it will take before sleep and appetite will begin to improve. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) 3 days
B) 1 week
C) 4 weeks
D) 2 months
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72601
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a combination of antipsychotic agents with benzodiazepines useful in initial treatment of the agitated patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Antipsychotics are not effective for 2 days.
B) Benzodiazepines allow for lower dosages of antipsychotic agents to be used, thereby decreasing serious adverse effects seen with high-dose therapy.
C) It assists in calming the psychotic patient.
D) It allows for rapid increase in dosing of the antipsychotic agents to expedite treatment of hallucinations.
E) It effectively treats extrapyramidal adverse effects associated with antipsychotic agents.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding the adverse effects associated with antipsychotic medications?
A) Tardive dyskinesia is a common, reversible condition.
B) Painful dystonic reactions can occur in the first 72 hours of initiation of therapy.
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a common adverse effect.
D) Pseudoparkinsonian symptoms can cause Parkinson's disease.
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Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72602
Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider orders diazepam (Valium) 10 mg IV stat for a patient who was admitted with status epilepticus. What are important nursing considerations associated with administration of this medication IV? (Select all that apply.)
A) Apply a cardiac monitor to the patient to assess for continuous heart rate, if not already done.
B) Administer the prescribed dosage over 1 minute.
C) Mix diazepam in a primary IV solution to avoid overdosing.
D) Continuously assess the patient's airway.
E) Obtain the correct dose (10 mg) and administer over slow IV push.
Q2) The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a patient with a history of diabetes who has just been diagnosed with seizure disorder. The patient has been prescribed hydantoin therapy. Which will the patient most likely experience?
A) Hunger
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Diarrhea
D) Pupil dilation
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72603
Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient who is starting therapy with NSAIDs, the nurse must be sure to mention drug interactions with which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Warfarin (Coumadin)
B) Lithium (Eskalith)
C) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D) Insulin
E) Diuretics
F) Digitalis (Digoxin)
Q2) The nurse is completing an assessment on a nonverbal adult patient. Which type of pain scale assessment tool is the most accurate to use?
A) TPPPS
B) FLACC
C) POCIS
D) MOPS
Q3) In which case would the nurse be correct in withholding an opiate agonist?
A) Evidence of postural hypotension
B) Presence of constipation
C) Pain rating of 7 on a 0 to 10 scale
D) Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72604
Sample Questions
Q1) Which cardiovascular conditions are related to coronary artery diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina pectoris
B) Pulmonary stenosis
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Pericarditis
E) Venous stasis ulcers
Q2) Which is the mechanism of action demonstrated by exercise in managing blood glucose levels?
A) Exercise causes release of glucose and promotes a reduced blood glucose level.
B) Exercise on a regular basis causes a reduction in lean body mass, which helps regulate blood glucose levels.
C) Increased muscle mass and less fat tends to normalize blood glucose levels because glucose is used by muscle cells when exercising.
D) Exercise stimulates the liver, the primary storage and utilization site of glucose, to release glucose.
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72605
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed a bile acid resin. The nurse instructs the patient to report which adverse reaction related to vitamin K deficiency?
A) Constipation
B) Coffee ground emesis
C) Nausea
D) Changes in skin pigmentation
Q2) Which deficiency may develop in patients taking cholestyramine?
A) Potassium deficiency
B) Sodium deficiency
C) Vitamin K deficiency
D) Hydrochloric acid deficiency
Q3) Which antilipemic agent is most potent?
A) Niacin
B) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
C) Bile acid-binding resin
D) Fibric acid
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72606
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is finished conducting nutritional education with a patient about the DASH (dietary approaches to stop hypertension) diet. The patient would like to complete the breakfast menu for tomorrow. Which foods offered for breakfast would be most appropriate for the patient to choose? (Select all that apply.)
A) Grapefruit
B) Bacon
C) Whole milk
D) Orange juice
E) Eggs
F) Oatmeal
Q2) What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
A) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures
B) An indicator of the tone of the arterial blood vessel walls
C) The average pressure throughout each cycle of the heartbeat
D) The product of the cardiac output and the peripheral vascular resistance
Q3) How does propranolol (Inderal) control hypertension?
A) Blocks alpha receptors throughout the body
B) Increases the diuretic response in the renal tubules
C) Reduces the sympathetic stimulation in cardiac muscle
D) Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72607
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer adenosine to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia. Which considerations should the nurse take into account before administration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Constant ECG monitoring is necessary.
B) Initial recommended dosage is 12-mg IV bolus.
C) Rapid IV bolus administration is recommended.
D) Saline flush following bolus is necessary.
E) Long half-life of adenosine may prolong adverse medication effects.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient who was recently admitted to the emergency department with dysrhythmias and shortness of breath. Which baseline nursing assessments are priorities? (Select all that apply.)
A) ECG monitoring
B) Medication history
C) Oxygen saturation
D) Presence of chest pain, dyspnea, fatigue
E) Mental status
F) Sleep pattern
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by the nurse is most accurate when administering nitroglycerin ointment to a patient?
A) Spread the ointment on the patient's legs in a thin, uniform layer.
B) Cover the patch with a clear plastic wrap.
C) Rub the ointment into the skin in a circular motion.
D) Shave the skin prior to application.
Q2) Which medication combinations may be beneficial in treating angina pectoris?
A) Antidysrhythmics and platelet-active agents
B) ACE inhibitors and statins
C) Vasoconstrictors and diuretics
D) Analgesics and thrombolytics
Q3) The nurse is performing pain assessment on a patient admitted for evaluation of angina. Which type of angina is precipitated by physical exertion and is relieved by rest?
A) Chronic stable
B) Nocturnal
C) Unstable
D) Variant
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the action of pentoxifylline (Trental), a hemorheologic agent used to treat chronic occlusive arteriole disease?
A) Vasodilates the peripheral arteries
B) Potentiates the blood clotting mechanism
C) Increases erythrocyte flexibility
D) Increases blood viscosity
Q2) Which assessment verifies increased blood perfusion to the lower extremities?
A) Toes cool to the touch
B) Decreased sensation below the knees
C) Increased amplitude of pedal pulses
D) Paleness of the foot
Q3) A patient has recently been prescribed cilostazol (Pletal). Which statement by the patient indicates that this medication is effective?
A) "I have less leg cramping when I walk."
B) "My pulse rate is more regular."
C) "I have had fewer episodes of angina."
D) "My blood pressure has decreased."
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Page 29
Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an accurate nursing action when administering subcutaneous enoxaparin, a low molecular weight heparin product?
A) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe.
B) Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection.
C) Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle.
D) Massage the site after injection to increase absorption.
Q2) Dipyridamole (Persantine) has been used extensively in combination with warfarin to prevent the formation of thromboembolism after which type of event?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Transient ischemic attack
C) Cardiac valve replacement
D) Heart transplant
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about dietary implications while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which salad is highest in vitamin K?
A) Fruit
B) Pasta
C) Potato
D) Spinach
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72611
Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse takes the adult patient's apical pulse for 1 full minute. What additional nursing considerations will be taken before administration of the medication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Review of the digoxin blood level
B) Administration of the medication with pulse less than 60 beats/min
C) Review of serum electrolytes, liver, and kidney function studies
D) Administration of the medication with a pulse of 110 beats/min
E) Obtaining baseline patient assessment data, including lung sounds, vital signs, and weight
Q2) The nurse monitors a patient receiving digoxin closely for toxicity when which other medication is prescribed?
A) Potassium supplements
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
D) Antibiotics
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72612
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has provided patient teaching about potassium-sparing diuretic therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will take my medication in the morning."
B) "I will report a weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days."
C) "I will rise slowly when I get up from a sitting position."
D) "I will use a salt substitute because I limit my salt intake."
Q2) Which medical conditions may contribute to fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypertension
B) Liver disease
C) Pregnancy
D) Use of corticosteroids
E) Skin disorders
Q3) Which foods will the nurse recommend for a patient taking loop diuretics?
A) Protein-rich foods such as poultry, whole grains, and fish
B) Fiber-rich foods such as yellow vegetables, nuts, and lentils
C) Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas
D) Sodium-rich foods such as canned vegetables and processed foods
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32
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72613
Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs in the nasal structures when cholinergic fibers are stimulated?
A) Dryness of mucous membranes in the nostrils
B) Bleeding in the mucous membranes in the nostrils
C) Production of serous and mucous secretions in the nostrils
D) Enhanced olfactory perception in the mucous membranes of the nostrils
Q2) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?
A) Hypertensive crisis
B) Allergic reaction
C) Secondary congestion
D) Permanent olfactory damage
Q3) Which is a serious adverse effect of decongestants?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Orbital edema
D) Facial flushing
Q4) What process in the antigen-antibody reaction causes the symptoms of allergies?
A) Release of antihistamines
B) Production of antibodies
C) Suppression of histamine
D) Release of histamine
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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72614
Sample Questions
Q1) Premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents should verify that the patient has no history of which condition?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Liver disease
D) Glaucoma
Q2) Which is true about arterial blood gases (ABGs)? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are measured from an arterial sample.
B) They measure partial pressures of carbon dioxide.
C) They measure blood pH.
D) They measure partial pressures of sodium
E) They measure partial pressures of oxygen.
Q3) Which statements are true regarding the nursing assessment of a patient with a respiratory disorder? (Select all that apply).
A) Central cyanosis typically is observed on the fingers and earlobes.
B) Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia.
C) As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate.
D) The normal respiratory rate in an adult is 10 breaths/min.
E) Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.
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Page 34
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72615
Sample Questions
Q1) Which will the nurse include when educating a 12-year-old patient about care of a cold sore? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Keep the cold sore clean with mild soap."
B) "Use of an astringent will assist in drying the cold sore and promote rapid healing."
C) "Keep the cold sore moist to prevent cracking."
D) "Note signs of infection, including the presence of pus. Contact the health care provider if this occurs."
E) "Oral analgesics may help alleviate pain."
Q2) Which local anesthetic is used for inflammation of oral mucous membranes?
A) Chlorhexidine (Peridex)
B) 2% viscous lidocaine
C) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
D) Hydrogen peroxide
Q3) What is the most common cause of most tooth, gum, and periodontal disease?
A) Sugar
B) Halitosis
C) Plaque
D) Smoking
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative appendectomy patient has a nasogastric tube and wonders why the previous nurse told him that he was receiving an IV "ulcer-preventing" medication called ranitidine. The patient states that he has never had any stomach problems in his life. Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) "This medication will cause the pH in your stomach to drop."
B) "This medication helps coat your stomach while the nasogastric tube is in place."
C) "Because you are not eating after surgery, this medication will help reduce the hydrochloric acid your stomach is still secreting."
D) "The nasogastric tube will cause peptic ulcer disease. This medication will help prevent that."
Q2) Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations?
A) Heartburn
B) Rebound indigestion
C) Constipation
D) Diarrhea
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Page 36
Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72617
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan) IV postoperatively?
A) Prolong the effects of anesthesia.
B) Decrease the potential for thrombus formation.
C) Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.
D) Decrease postoperative pain.
Q2) Why is drug therapy important for selected causes of nausea and vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A) Relieves the distress associated with nausea and vomiting
B) Prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lung
C) Prevents dehydration
D) Prevents electrolyte imbalances
E) Increases intracranial pressure
Q3) The nurse would expect to administer which drug when treating hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) THC (Marinol)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Dexamethasone (Prednisone)
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72618
Sample Questions
Q1) Which effect will the nurse expect when a patient is taking psyllium while on digoxin?
A) Decreased effectiveness of the laxative
B) Increased laxative effect
C) Increased absorption of the digoxin
D) Decreased absorption of the digoxin
Q2) Which symptom is the patient with a lactase deficiency most likely to exhibit?
A) Constipation
B) Excessive salivation
C) Diarrhea
D) Vomiting
Q3) A patient who has had a myocardial infarction is advised to avoid straining with defecation. Which medication would be prescribed to this patient?
A) Stool softeners
B) Bulk-forming laxatives
C) Stimulants
D) Emollients
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72619
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient asks the nurse how sulfonylureas normalize glucose levels. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) By stimulating pancreatic secretion of insulin
B) By inhibiting secretion of insulin by the pancreas
C) By increasing glucose production in the liver
D) By increasing insulin metabolism in the liver
Q2) Which statements are correct regarding type 2 diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.)
A) Type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in overweight people older than 45 years.
B) A genetic predisposition exists for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
C) Type 2 diabetes requires lifelong insulin replacement.
D) Type 2 diabetes is often diagnosed after complications have resulted.
E) Women have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes.
Q3) What laboratory test is the preferred screening test for diabetes in children and nonpregnant adults?
A) FPG
B) ECG
C) GTT
D) A<sub>1c</sub>
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Page 39
Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72620
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy?
A) 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease
B) 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism
C) 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer
D) 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis
Q2) A postoperative total thyroidectomy patient is started on levothyroxine (Synthroid) daily. Which information will the nurse include in discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Close follow-up with your health care provider is important."
B) "Notify your health care provider if you experience any palpitations or tachycardia."
C) "A variation in emotions and personality is normal during this adjustment period."
D) "Synthroid may be stopped as soon as the thyroid gland resumes functioning."
E) "When energy levels have returned, Synthroid will be gradually tapered."
Q3) Which condition can occur if congenital hypothyroidism is not treated?
A) Diabetes
B) Impaired vision
C) Periorbital edema
D) Cretinism
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient about adverse effects associated with corticosteroid therapy. Which information would be important to include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid crowds or people with an infection.
B) Monitor and care for your skin daily; change positions frequently.
C) Take medication on an empty stomach.
D) During periods of physical or psychological stress, higher doses of corticosteroids are necessary. Contact your health care provider.
E) Follow a diet low in sodium.
Q2) Which fluid replacement method will the nurse identify for a patient on a fluid restriction?
A) Freely throughout the day and evening shift
B) One third of the allowed volume on each shift
C) Half the volume with meals and the remainder divided among shifts
D) As the patient desires
Q3) Which condition would require mineralocorticoid replacement?
A) Addison's disease
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myxedema
D) Glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72622
Sample Questions
Q1) The health of a patient receiving androgen therapy for breast cancer declines and she becomes bed bound. Which condition will this patient be at risk of developing?
A) Electrolyte imbalances
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
Q2) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seizures about estrogen therapy?
A) Phenytoin reduces the effectiveness of estrogen.
B) Estrogen reduces the effectiveness of phenytoin.
C) Phenytoin may inhibit the metabolism of estrogen.
D) Estrogen may inhibit the metabolism of phenytoin.
Q3) Why is estrogen therapy used in postmenopausal women? (Select all that apply.)
A) Meet contraceptive needs
B) Treat acne
C) Prevent osteoporosis
D) Treat hot flashes
E) Maintain hormonal balance
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72623
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is administered when a patient is experiencing premature labor?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
C) Levonorgestrel (Mirena)
D) Terbutaline (Brethine)
Q2) Which will the nurse include when teaching a postpartum patient about expected adverse effects of Rh<sub>o</sub>(D) immune globulin? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nausea
B) Constipation
C) Fever
D) Insomnia
E) Aches
F) Diarrhea
G) Anorexia
Q3) Which is characterized by seizures?
A) Pregnancy-induced hypertension
B) Preeclampsia
C) Eclampsia
D) Premature rupture of membranes
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Page 43
Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72624
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of drug is most effective in the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
A) Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
B) Antiandrogen agents
C) Sympathomimetic agents
D) Alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agents
Q2) The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who is seeking oral contraceptives. Which condition would contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives?
A) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Varicose veins
D) Thromboembolic disease
Q3) Which is more likely to be experienced by women taking the minipill as an oral contraceptive?
A) Ovulation, dysmenorrhea, and break-through bleeding
B) Excessive weight gain and breast tenderness
C) Increased estrogen-related adverse effects
D) Difficulty breast-feeding after pregnancy
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44
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72625
Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old woman is admitted with complaints of dysuria, frequency, and lower back pain. The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells, and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count. Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will order?
A) Meperidine (Demerol)
B) Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)
C) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q2) After undergoing prostate surgery, a patient is discharged on the medication phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) to assist with urinary catheter discomfort. Which information will the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A) Urine will have a foul smell while taking this medication.
B) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping are expected adverse effects.
C) The sclera of the eye is yellow while on therapy.
D) Urine will appear reddish orange.
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72626
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient and family about postoperative care for a trabeculectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Use aseptic technique for all dressing changes and medication administration.
B) Place the patient on the operated side.
C) Avoid heavy lifting.
D) Redness in the eye, pain, and swelling are common occurrences after surgery.
E) Avoid straining on defecation.
Q2) Which statement is true about aqueous humor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bathes and feeds the lens, posterior surface of the cornea, and iris
B) Maintains the iris color
C) Drains out of the eye through drainage channels located near the junction of the cornea and sclera
D) Manufactures fluid for tear production
E) Flows out of the canal of Schlemm into the venous system of the eye
Q3) Which is a potential serious adverse effect associated with mannitol (Osmitrol)?
A) Bradycardia
B) Fluid overload
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Fever
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72627
Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment by the nurse would be a sign of neurotoxicity related to chemotherapy?
A) Paresthesia
B) Euphoria
C) Nausea
D) Hallucinations
Q2) What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)?
A) Decreased nausea and vomiting
B) Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy
C) Maintenance of body weight
D) Decreased renal toxicity
Q3) The cell cycle-specific agent vincristine sulphate (Oncovin) acts in which phase of the cell's life cycle?
A) S phase
B) Mitotic phase
C) Phase G<sub>1</sub>
D) Phase G<sub>0</sub>
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with which conditions must be carefully assessed to determine whether they would tolerate treatment with a neuromuscular blocking agent? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pregnancy
B) Hepatic disease
C) Pulmonary disease
D) Renal disease
E) Neurologic disorders
F) Psychiatric disorders
Q2) Which symptoms will be most important for the nurse to assess for early signs of respiratory distress in the patient who has been given a neuromuscular blocking agent?
A) Nasal flaring and retraction of intercostal muscles
B) Dyspnea, increased respiratory rate, and cyanosis
C) Restlessness, anxiety, and lethargy
D) Pallor, stridor, and diaphoresis
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72629
Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider has prescribed penicillin and probenecid for a patient with a sexually transmitted disease. What is the purpose of combining these medications?
A) To accelerate the excretion of the penicillin
B) To inhibit the absorption of penicillin to allow the drug to remain in the transport phase
C) To inhibit the excretion of the penicillin
D) To reduce toxic effects associated with penicillin
Q2) Which drug is the cornerstone of treatment for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)?
A) Amphotericin B (Abelcet)
B) Streptomycin (Streptomycin)
C) Isoniazid (Nydrazid)
D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
Q3) Which drug is incompatible with heparin?
A) Gentamicin
B) Ampicillin (Unasyn)
C) Ticarcillin (Timentin)
D) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are essential fatty acids used in the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Building cell membranes
B) Energy production
C) Prostaglandin production
D) Catalyzing metabolic reactions
E) Eicosanoid production
F) Stimulation of growth hormone
Q2) Which food is a good source of vitamin A?
A) Sweet potatoes
B) Apples
C) Bananas
D) Whole-grain bread
Q3) A patient is receiving continuous tube feedings at 100 mL/hr. At 1400, the nurse determines that there is 175 mL of residual volume. Which action will the nurse take?
A) Continue the feedings as ordered.
B) Reduce the feeding by 50%.
C) Stop the feeding and notify the health care provider.
D) Aspirate and dispose of the residual and restart the feeding.
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72631
Sample Questions
Q1) Which effects are attributed to green tea? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lower cholesterol
B) Lower triglycerides and LDLs
C) Raise HDLs
D) Lower blood glucose
E) Preventing calcium loss
F) Preventing viral infection
Q2) For what is black cohosh used?
A) Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester
B) Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
C) Providing antispasmodic activity of the GI system
D) Controlling migraine headaches
Q3) Which dietary supplement is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A) Ginkgo
B) Ephedra
C) Garlic
D) Saw palmetto
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse instruct patients who are on daily disulfiram (Antabuse) to avoid?
A) All forms of cough syrup
B) Alcohol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Aspirin products
Q2) Which psychological traits are linked to substance abuse? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dependent personality
B) Ability to relax
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
E) Autonomy
F) Social personality
G) Optimism
Q3) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A) It indicates illegal drug use.
B) It verifies drug dependency.
C) It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D) It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
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52
Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted for hepatic encephalopathy and is being treated with lactulose. Which assessment by the nurse indicates that the medication is effective?
A) Normal electrolyte level
B) Improved mental status
C) Increased urinary output
D) Decreased pain level
Q2) The nurse receives an order to administer colchicine 0.6 mg every 1 to 2 hours until the patient exhibits adverse effects. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Diminished fever
B) Diarrhea or nausea
C) Increased urination
D) Decrease in erythema
Q3) Which common adverse effect will the nurse expect to assess in a patient recently prescribed tacrine (Cognex)?
A) Dyspepsia
B) Bradycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Rash
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