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Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that introduces students to the essential concepts, principles, and skills required to provide safe and effective care to adult patients experiencing a wide variety of medical and surgical conditions. Through theoretical instruction and practical application, students learn assessment techniques, nursing interventions, and evidence-based practices to manage acute and chronic illnesses across diverse patient populations. The course emphasizes the nursing process, patient-centered care, interdisciplinary collaboration, pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies, preoperative and postoperative management, as well as health promotion and education strategies to optimize patient outcomes in medical-surgical settings.
Recommended Textbook
EKG Plain and Simple 3rd Edition by Karen Ellis RN
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the heart from
A)The head and neck.
B)The coronary circulation.
C)The lower extremities and abdomen.
D)None of these-the vena cava carries oxygenated blood.
Answer: C
Q2) The semilunar valves are the aortic and mitral valves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system causes
A)Slowed digestion.
B)Decrease in heart rate.
C)Pupillary dilation.
D)Increase in blood pressure.
Answer: B
Q4) The coronary artery that feeds blood to the lateral wall of the left ventricle is the
Answer: Circumflex
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Q1) Normal conduction begins with the pacemaker of the heart,the _____.
Answer: Sinus node
Q2) Phase 0 of the action potential corresponds with what wave or complex on the EKG?
A)T wave
B)QRS complex
C)U wave
D)ST segment
Answer: B
Q3) The cardiac cell at rest has what kind of electrical charge?
A)Positive charge
B)Negative charge
C)Neutral charge
D)No charge at all
Answer: B
Q4) The cardiac cell,at rest,has a transmembrane potential of +20 mV.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a precordial lead?
A)V6
B)AVR
C)V5
D)V1
Answer: B
Q2) In which of the following leads should the QRS complex be negative?
A)Lead I
B)Lead II
C)AVR
D)AVL
Answer: C
Q3) If lead II's QRS complex is positive,the heart's current is traveling toward the A)Right arm.
B)Left arm.
C)Right leg.
D)Left leg.
Answer: D
Q4) The tallest QRS complex should be in lead _____.
Answer: II
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Q1) Artifact can mimic dysrhythmias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Artifact is a sign that the patient is in distress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Troubleshooting involves determining and alleviating the cause of _____.
Q4) The "gain" setting on the EKG machine is concerned with
A)The amplitude of the waves and complexes.
B)The size of the patient.
C)Einthoven's law.
D)Electrical conduction through the bundle branches.
Q5) Sometimes,the presence of artifact can be verified by changing the lead.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Artifact is an unwanted interference or jitter on the EKG tracing.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The EKG machine control feature that controls the size of the waves and complexes is the _____.
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Q1) The mean rate is calculated by
A)Counting the number of P waves in a minute-long rhythm strip.
B)Counting the number of QRS complexes in a minute-long rhythm strip.
C)Counting the number of QRS complexes on a six-second strip and multiplying by 10.
D)Counting the number of P waves on a six-second strip and multiplying by 10.
Q2) A regular rhythm is one in which _____.
Q3) If the QRS complexes are all 50 little blocks apart,the heart rate is _____.
Q4) Atrial rate can be calculated by counting
A)QRS complexes.
B)P waves.
C)PR intervals.
D)R-R intervals.
Q5) A regular rhythm has R-R intervals that vary by only one or two little blocks.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Calculating heart rate involves counting the number of P waves on the strip.
A)True
B)False
Q7) If the QRS complexes are all 15 little blocks apart,the heart rate is _____.
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Q1) If the patient's rhythm changes,you should FIRST
A)Assess your patient for signs of decreased cardiac output.
B)Calculate the heart rate,rhythm,and intervals.
C)Change the lead to see if the rhythm is real or if it's artifact.
D)Look for P waves.
Q2) An abnormal rhythm is called a dysrhythmia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Normal QRS complexes should have a QRS complex
A)Less than 0.20 seconds wide.
B)Less than 0.12 seconds wide.
C)Between 0.12 and 0.20 seconds wide.
D)That is alternately narrow and wide.
Q4) A rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 is a tachycardia.
A)True B)False
Q5) Sinus rhythms should have narrow QRS complexes of uniform shape.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The distance between consecutive P waves is called the _____.
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Q1) _____ is a rhythm with a heart rate greater than 100.
Q2) In sinus rhythms,P waves are found _____ the QRS complexes.
Q3) Sinus arrest is best treated by anti-anxiety medication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A condition in which the thyroid gland overproduces thyroid hormones and causes the heart rate,temperature,and blood pressure to rise to dangerous levels is called _____.
Q5) In sinus block,
A)The pause is a multiple of the R-R intervals.
B)There are P waves inside the pause.
C)All R-R intervals are constant.
D)The heart rate varies from 100 to 160.
Q6) The primary treatment of sinus tachycardia is _____.
Q7) The PR interval in sinus rhythms should be _____ from beat to beat.
Q8) Which of the following is an irregular rhythm originating in the sinus node?
A)Sinus arrhythmia
B)Sinus rhythm
C)Sinus tachycardia
D)Sinus bradycardia
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Q1) The P wave of a PAC is shaped _____from sinus P waves.
Q2) The rhythm most often associated with chronic lung disease is
A)Atrial fibrillation.
B)SVT.
C)Sinus arrhythmia.
D)Multifocal atrial tachycardia.
Q3) The difference between wandering atrial pacemaker and multifocal atrial tachycardia is
A)Wandering atrial pacemaker has a faster heart rate.
B)Multifocal atrial tachycardia has a faster heart rate.
C)Wandering atrial pacemaker has uniform shape P waves;multifocal atrial tachycardia has P waves of at least three different shapes.
D)Wandering atrial pacemaker has only two different shape P waves;multifocal atrial tachycardia has at least five different shaped P waves.
Q4) SVT stands for
A)Sinus ventricular tachycardia.
B)Supraventricular tension.
C)Sinus valvular tachycardia.
D)Supraventricular tachycardia.
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Q1) In which rhythm is decreased cardiac output most likely to be a concern?
A)Sinus rhythm
B)Accelerated junctional rhythm
C)Junctional bradycardia
D)Junctional rhythm
Q2) Junctional rhythms have retrograde conduction to the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Junctional rhythm has no T waves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Junctional tachycardia has a heart rate greater than 100.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Low junctional rhythms originate low down in the ventricle.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Junctional rhythm has a heart rate _____.
Q7) P waves hidden inside the QRS are a hallmark of junctional rhythms originating _____ in the AV junction.
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Q1) All the following are appropriate treatment for asystole EXCEPT
A)Electrical shock to the heart.
B)CPR.
C)Oxygen.
D)Pacemaker.
Q2) Agonal rhythm has a heart rate less than _____.
Q3) PVCs are
A)Premature ventricular complexes.
B)Ventricular escape beats.
C)Slow ventricular rhythms.
D)Post-ventricular compensatory pauses.
Q4) QRS complexes in ventricular rhythms should be _____ seconds wide.
Q5) Ventricular tachycardia is usually a result of escape.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Idioventricular rhythm is usually a result of usurpation.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation is _____.
Q8) Accelerated idioventricular rhythm has a heart rate between _____.
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Q1) Mobitz II second-degree AV block can progress to third-degree AV block if left untreated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In third-degree AV block,the site of the block is either the
A)Sinus node or the internodal tracts.
B)AV node or the Purkinje fibers.
C)Bundle branches or the AV node.
D)Sinus node or the AV node.
Q3) 2:1 AV block can be either
A)Third-degree AV block or Wenckebach.
B)Wenckebach or Mobitz II second-degree AV block.
C)First-degree AV block or Wenckebach.
D)Mobitz II second-degree AV block or third-degree AV block.
Q4) In AV blocks,the P-P interval is
A)Regular.
B)Irregular.
C)Absent.
D)The same as the R-R interval.
Q5) AV blocks involve a block in conduction between _____.
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Q1) If leads I and AVF are both negative,the axis is indeterminate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Right ventricular hypertrophy is commonly caused by chronic lung disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hypercalcemia is a calcium deficit in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bundle branch blocks are a sign of imminent cardiac arrest.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Left ventricular hypertrophy is commonly caused by hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If both lead I and AVF's QRS complexes are positive,the axis is _____.
Q7) Obesity or advanced pregnancy can cause axis deviation.
A)True
B)False
Q8) A rate-related BBB is one which _____.
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Q1) Pericarditis is _____ of the pericardium.
Q2) An inferior MI is most often caused by occlusion of which coronary artery?
A)Right coronary artery
B)Left main
C)Circumflex
D)Left anterior descending
Q3) An age-indeterminate MI should have a significant Q wave along with T wave inversion,but the ST segment should be back to baseline.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ischemia is a reversible process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An old inferior MI should show significant Q waves in II,III,and AVF even after several years.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A right ventricular infarction is most often seen along with inferior MI.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The most common pacemaker malfunctions include ALL BUT which of the following?
A)Failure to fire
B)Failure to capture
C)Failure to sense
D)Failure to repolarize
Q2) Treatment for VFib is to immediately _____.
Q3) DDD pacemakers pace and sense which chamber(s)of the heart? _____.
Q4) Sodium channel blockers are Class II antiarrhythmics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Beta-blockers have what effect on heart rate and contractility?
A)Increased heart rate and contractility
B)Decreased heart rate and contractility
C)Increased heart rate and decreased contractility
D)Decreased heart rate and increased contractility
Q6) Changing the patient's position can help restore capture.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A pulse generator is a _____ pack.
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Q8) The distance between consecutive pacemaker spikes is referred to as the _____.

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Q1) Bayes' Theorem is concerned with the _____ of stress test results.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a reason to terminate a stress test?
A)Patient's request
B)ST segment elevation
C)Falling blood pressure
D)Shortening of the PR interval
Q3) The patient's blood pressure was 120/80 at rest.During the stress test,it has fallen to 90/50 and he is cold and clammy.What is the appropriate course of action?
A)Stop the test immediately.
B)Stop for a minute,then resume at a slower pace.
C)Continue as is.
D)Slow the pace to let the patient recover,then speed it back up to the previous level.
Q4) One MET is equal to
A)3.5 ml O<sub>2</sub>/kg/min.
B)35 ml O<sub>2</sub>/kg/min.
C)0.35 ml O<sub>2</sub>/kg/min.
D)0.035 ml O<sub>2</sub>/kg/min.
Q5) A positive stress test implies that _____ is present.
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