Medical-Surgical Nursing Pre-Test Questions - 1873 Verified Questions

Medical-Surgical Nursing Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course designed to equip students with essential knowledge and clinical skills required to care for adults experiencing a wide range of medical and surgical conditions. The course emphasizes a holistic approach to patient care, integrating concepts of anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and evidence-based nursing interventions. Students learn to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care for patients with acute and chronic health issues, focusing on promoting optimal health outcomes, ensuring patient safety, and collaborating effectively within multidisciplinary healthcare teams. The course also highlights critical thinking, effective communication, and the application of current standards and ethical principles in delivering compassionate and competent nursing care.

Recommended Textbook

Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition

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82 Chapters

1873 Verified Questions

1873 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A holistic belief system by the nurse would be most evident if the nurse

A) accepts death as an outcome of life.

B) encourages behavior modification programs.

C) incorporates client perceptions of health when planning care.

D) supports goal-directed learning to improve health.

Answer: C

Q2) The nurse understands that the document he/she can use to plan community teaching projects addressing the federal population-based health objectives is

A) Healthy People 2010.

B) Nursing's Agenda for Healthcare.

C) the federal Medicare/Medicaid Acts.

D) the Goldmark Report.

Answer: A

Q3) The nurse recognizes the activity that reflects primary prevention is A) a self-initiated walking regimen.

B) collaboration with a physical therapist.

C) physician-prescribed exercise after a heart attack.

D) tuberculosis screening.

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Auscultation

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: B

Q2) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to

A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.

B) do a complete assessment of the pain.

C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.

D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.

Answer: B

Q3) To assess precipitating factors, the nurse interviewer would ask

A) "Do you remember the first time you had this problem?"

B) "How many times has the problem been related to activity?"

C) "What measures relieve this problem for you?"

D) "What were you doing when you first noticed the problem?"

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process by which a nurse uses purposeful thinking, informed reasoning, reflections, and thinking about thinking in clinical situations is called

A) clinical judgment.

B) critical thinking.

C) decision making.

D) problem solving.

Answer: B

Q2) It is crucial for the nurse to be able to make sound decisions using critical thinking because

A) it is the most efficient use of the nurse's time and resources.

B) it uses previously learned knowledge in predictable situations.

C) most clients have problems for which there are no textbook answers.

D) nurses can recognize problems rapidly and provide speedy responses to situations.

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Because of the repetitive, slow, controlled movement involved, the nurse suggests that a client with arthritis may benefit from the CAM therapy of A) Ayurveda.

B) biofeedback.

C) Reiki.

D) Tai Chi.

Q2) A nurse understands that many conventional drugs are derived from plants, such as A) meperidine (Demerol).

B) penicillin.

C) quinine.

D) steroids.

Q3) According to the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine, complementary medicine is

A) prescribed and overseen by a medical physician.

B) treatment of a physical illness by a spiritual intervention.

C) used in place of conventional medicine.

D) used together with conventional medicine.

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Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ambulatory care centers include

A) care available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.

B) care for short-term medical-surgical procedures.

C) services for those unable to provide self-care after a procedure.

D) sleeping accommodations for a family member.

Q2) The purpose of the mutual recognition model (MRM), implemented through an interstate contract, is to

A) ensure an increasing supply of nurses entering the work force.

B) monitor the number of nurses working in more than one field of specialty.

C) provide educational incentives for nurses to continue working full-time.

D) reduce barriers to interstate nursing practice.

Q3) One challenge for nurses working in ambulatory care centers is

A) clients give overall responsibility for self-care to the center.

B) duties are rigidly defined within the interdisciplinary team.

C) length of client visit is short, reducing assessment time.

D) use of telephones and computers eases assessment potential.

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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The prepayment plan developed in 1929 is

A) Blue Cross Health Insurance.

B) Medicare Insurance.

C) Medicaid Insurance.

D) Health Maintenance Organization.

Q2) A client for whom the nurse would provide post-acute care is the

A) 38-year-old following cesarean birth.

B) 40-year-old recovering from kidney stone removal.

C) 60-year-old receiving a regulated regimen of anti-hypertensive medication.

D) 76-year-old needing rehabilitation after cardiac surgery.

Q3) A planned program of loss prevention and liability control best defines

A) client satisfaction.

B) clinical pathway.

C) quality assurance.

D) risk management.

Q4) A registered nurse (RN) seeking work in a voluntary health agency would choose a A) church-affiliated hospital.

B) proprietary hospital.

C) state university hospital.

D) veterans administration (VA) hospital.

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Chapter 7: Critical Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse working in critical care would plan interactions with clients' families based on the understanding that families most need

A) knowledge.

B) respect.

C) sleep.

D) spiritual support.

Q2) A nurse who is acting in a manner that respects and supports the client's and family's basic rights, values, and beliefs is functioning in which professional role?

A) Advocate

B) Caregiver

C) Critical thinker

D) Manager

Q3) The essential nurse competency that the critical care nurse uses when providing best care practices is

A) advocacy.

B) clinical inquiry.

C) clinical judgment.

D) systems thinking.

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Chapter 8: Home Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Henry Street Settlement in New York City, which offered public health nursing to clients with chronic health problems, was established by

A) Clara Barton.

B) Dorothea Dix and Sojourner Truth.

C) Frances Root.

D) Lillian Wald and Mary Brewster.

Q2) A home health nurse has a client with permanent left-sided weakness after a stroke; the client is cared for by his wife and daughter. The nurse will design the plan of care to A) help the wife manage the home.

B) limit input from the wife and daughter.

C) reduce the impact of the client's health care beliefs.

D) stimulate the client to become independent.

Q3) The service requested and needed by an applicant to home health that would not be eligible for coverage under Medicare is A) home health aide.

B) housekeeping services.

C) physical therapy.

D) speech therapy.

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Chapter 9: Long-Term Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The enactment of Social Security in 1935 afforded older adults the ability to A) enter a city-sponsored nursing home.

B) purchase care privately.

C) receive care by a physician in the home.

D) stay in hospitals until completely well.

Q2) The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA) affected nursing homes by A) allowing residents more choice in the selection of a nursing home.

B) mandating that each resident have a private room and bath.

C) producing profound reforms in nursing home care.

D) providing for better funding to meet the needs of the residents.

Q3) The nurse plans programming at a nursing home understanding that the defining impairment that affects almost all residents in a nursing home is A) Alzheimer's disease or other cognitive deficit.

B) impairment in ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL).

C) profound hearing loss or other unspecified sensory deficit.

D) severe, progressive visual deficit.

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11

Chapter 10: Rehabilitation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rehabilitation nurse explains that the transdisciplinary approach to rehabilitation provides the client with

A) more efficient service at a greatly reduced cost.

B) reduced number of personnel with whom to interact.

C) reduced time spent on therapeutic modalities.

D) shortened stay in the rehabilitation unit.

Q2) A rehabilitation nurse scores the client at "1" in a functional area on the FIM. This means the client has

A) full independence in that area.

B) independence in that area with use of an assistive device.

C) partial dependence in need of significant assistance.

D) total dependence.

Q3) To set the stage for a successful rehabilitation experience, the rehabilitation nurse helps the client and the family conceptualize their definition of A) activity participation.

B) independence.

C) quality of life.

D) wellness.

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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has gastroenteritis and frequent diarrhea. The nurse should assess the client for (Select all that apply)

A) bradycardia.

B) decrease in blood pressure.

C) decrease in urine output.

D) temperature of 96° F.

E) tenting of skin.

Q2) When assessing the laboratory values for an assigned client with fluid excess, the nurse finds the value that is consistent with this diagnosis to be

A) BUN 12 mg/dl.

B) hematocrit of 46%.

C) plasma osmolality of 285 mOsm/kg.

D) plasma sodium level of 129 mEq/L.

Q3) The nurse anticipates that an order for an isotonic intravenous (IV) solution will read

A)0.45% sodium chloride.

B)0.9% sodium chloride.

C) 3% sodium chloride.

D) 5% dextrose in water.

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Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has a low serum calcium level. During a bath the nurse cleans the client's face with a cloth, and the lips, nose, and side of the face contract. The nurse documents the presence of

A) Bell's palsy.

B) Chvostek's sign.

C) tic douloureux.

D) Trousseau's sign.

Q2) The nurse caring for a client taking thiazide diuretics should be sure to observe for A) decreased urine output.

B) increased peristalsis.

C) neurologic depression.

D) neuromuscular irritability.

Q3) Self-care teaching for a client with hypercalcemia should include

A) administering antidiarrheal medications.

B) decreasing sodium and calcium intake.

C) encouraging foods that increase urine acidity.

D) restricting fluid intake to less than 1 liter a day.

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Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance

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20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse caring for a trauma victim who has received massive transfusions of whole blood is diligent in assessment for metabolic alkalosis because

A) multiple transfusions of whole blood cause a decrease in serum potassium level.

B) the anticoagulant in the blood is metabolized to bicarbonate.

C) transfused blood is less stable, releasing bicarbonate from the blood cells.

D) whole blood utilizes bicarbonate as a preservative.

Q2) The nurse explains to a concerned family member of a client who has developed respiratory acidosis that the kidneys

A) achieve optimal compensation immediately.

B) are unable to compensate.

C) can achieve optimal compensation in about 3 days.

D) will compensate within 24 hours.

Q3) The nurse assesses that the client admitted in respiratory acidosis has compensated when the arterial blood gas (ABG) readings are

A) carbon dioxide level of 50 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L.

B) carbon dioxide level of 50 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L.

C) carbon dioxide level of 30 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 30 mEq/L.

D) carbon dioxide level of 30 mm Hg and bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L.

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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery

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Sample Questions

Q1) Important actions the nurse takes to avoid "wrong site surgery" include (Select all that apply)

A) asking the surgeon to initial the marked site and operate through the initials.

B) calling a time-out to verify right client, right surgical site before starting the operation.

C) having the client mark the surgical site with permanent marker.

D) involving multiple surgeons in the case to check each other.

Q2) A client is receiving anesthesia and is being inducted just before an operation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to

A) apply wrist and leg restraints to ensure client safety.

B) begin counting supplies with the surgical technician or scrub nurse.

C) ensure all conversation in the operating room is appropriate.

D) monitor the client for agitation and struggling.

Q3) Preoperative assessment data that should be reported to the surgeon include

A) complaining of mild anxiety.

B) having a sore throat.

C) potassium level within normal range.

D) using acetaminophen for headaches.

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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse providing genetic counseling explains that when one parent has an autosomal dominant gene for an inherited disease, the chances of the child being affected are

A) 10%.

B) 25%.

C) 50%.

D) 100%.

Q2) The nurse obtaining consent for genetic testing realizes that the elements of informed consent include (Select all that apply)

A) other options for risk assessment.

B) the possibility that the results will be ambiguous.

C) procedures for giving results to insurance companies.

D) risks that nonrelatedness will be discovered.

E) the purpose of the test.

Q3) The nurse working with clients who seek genetic testing has an important role in (Select all that apply)

A) ensuring privacy and confidentiality.

B) helping the client negotiate disruptions in family dynamics.

C) recognizing the potential for stigmatization.

D) understanding the process of informed consent.

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Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation clinic. What information about smoking does the nurse include in the teaching component of the program?

A) A pack-year history is the length of time, in years, a person has smoked.

B) Smokeless tobacco is harmless because the carcinogens have been removed.

C) Smoking causes more cancer in the United States than do all other causes combined.

D) The risk of cancer for someone who stops smoking does not improve.

Q2) In planning programs for cancer prevention, the nurse should provide information about cancer as the _____ leading cause of death

A) major

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

Q3) The nurse reviewing a research report recognizes that a discussion of oncogenes will address

A) a chemotherapeutic agent that eradicates viruses that cause cancer.

B) factors in the immune system protecting the client from malignant growths.

C) risk factors in cancer development.

D) segments of DNA that transform normal cells into malignant cells.

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18

Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse caring for a neutropenic, 75-year-old man undergoing treatment for prostate cancer assesses an oral temperature of 100.4° F. The most appropriate interpretation of this finding is that the client

A) is experiencing an expected, systemic chemotherapeutic effect.

B) is experiencing the expected increase in metabolism that accompanies malignancy. C) may have a medical emergency and needs prompt further assessment.

D) may have a urinary tract infection causing a low-grade fever.

Q2) The nurse administering granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF; Neupogen) to a client who is also receiving chemotherapy should assess the client for A) a rash.

B) bone pain.

C) fatigue.

D) muscle aches.

Q3) When there is extravasation of vincristine (Oncovin), the nurse should initially A) apply cold compresses to the site.

B) apply manual pressure to delay further circulation.

C) call the physician immediately.

D) leave the cannula in place and aspirate.

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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds

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Sample Questions

Q1) On a client's admission to the hospital, the nurse notes that the client has a yellow sacral decubitus ulcer. The nurse anticipates that the most appropriate wound treatment would be

A) applying antibiotic ointment.

B) surgical removal of eschar.

C) using wet-to-dry dressings.

D) vigorous cleansing with a Water Pik.

Q2) The nurse predicts that the wound capable of becoming "ideally healed" is a(n) A) abdominal incision.

B) burn scar on the leg.

C) cancerous lesion on the inside of the cheek.

D) severe acne on the face.

Q3) A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic lower leg wound caused by venous insufficiency. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Apply ice to the surrounding tissue.

B) Elevate the leg and apply compression stockings.

C) Keep the leg in one position to avoid further injury.

D) Position the leg flat with heels elevated off the bed.

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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse, in compliance with the 1991 Recommendations for Immunization of Healthcare Workers by the CDC, will have received

A) a tetanus booster every year.

B) HIV vaccination upon employment.

C) immunization against cholera.

D) the three-dose series of hepatitis B vaccine.

Q2) The nurse gives diligent catheter care to the clients in a nursing home because the nurse is aware that bacteria can migrate into the bladder in A) 5 hours.

B) 10 hours.

C) 24 hours.

D) 72 hours.

Q3) A notation on a client's health record notes that she has a subclinical infection. The nurse assessing this client would expect

A) clinical manifestations of the disease that are not as dramatic as usual.

B) fever with no elevation in the white blood cell count.

C) no systemic manifestations of disease.

D) reports of fatigue and lassitude after the infection.

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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client is in the hospital with an exacerbation of a chronic pain condition. Orders are for prn morphine IV push. When the primary nurse left for the weekend, the client's pain was under control. When the nurse returns to work, the client is reporting wild swings in pain control, being oversedated at some times and having extreme pain at other times. Which action by the primary nurse would best get this client's pain under control?

A) Ask the physician to order the pain medication on a round-the-clock schedule.

B) Observe the client for behaviors that might indicate possible addiction.

C) Plan to administer the maximum amount of pain medication the next time it is due.

D) Question the client about the pain to determine if he/she is exaggerating.

Q2) The client with neuropathic pain develops allodynia, which

A) can be relieved by daily doses of opioids.

B) is a vague pain that is difficult for the client to describe.

C) is pain due to a stimulus that does not normally cause pain.

D) responds to NSAIDs taken several times a day.

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Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hospice client is clearly dehydrated and the family is arguing over whether or not the client should receive intravenous fluids. The nurse would guide this discussion based on what knowledge about dehydration in the terminally ill client?

A) If the terminally ill client complains of thirst, he/she is dehydrated.

B) Peripheral edema in the terminally ill client indicates fluid overload.

C) The emphasis of all treatments should be on comfort and reduction of symptoms.

D) The only choices for hydration are oral and intravenous.

Q2) In a client with delirium the nurse knows that the manifestation that is inconsistent with the DSM-IV criteria is

A) change in cognition not accounted for by a pre-existing or evolving dementia. B) development of mental status changes over several months.

C) disturbance of consciousness; reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention. D) tendency to fluctuate attention and orientation during the course of the day.

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23

Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that clients with narcolepsy often also experience cataplexy, which is a/an

A) inability to move for several minutes on awakening.

B) seizure-like episode with tonic and clonic movements.

C) sudden loss of muscle tone that lasts for several minutes.

D) trance-like period of 5 minutes or more.

Q2) After a client's discharge from the critical care unit to the step-down unit after a myocardial infarction, the nurse assesses the client carefully during sleep because

A) anxiety relative to the recent myocardial infarct may cause sleep disorders.

B) apnea is more common immediately after myocardial infarction.

C) breathing abnormalities may result in hypoxia.

D) REM rebound may occur, placing greater demands on the heart.

Q3) When a client tells the nurse that she has been experiencing early-morning awakening, the nurse should assess the client for manifestations of A) depression.

B) psychophysiologic insomnia.

C) respiratory problems.

D) sleep deprivation.

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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health

Concerns

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nonverbal behavior of the nurse that is likely to increase anxiety in a client is A) speaking slowly in a clear, firm voice.

B) maintaining a brisk, business-like approach.

C) listening with full attention.

D) decreasing noise levels and bright light.

Q2) The newly diagnosed diabetic client asks the nurse many questions about management of diet and insulin protocols. The nurse assesses that the client is using A) cause-and-effect coping mechanisms.

B) defense mechanisms.

C) delaying mechanisms.

D) problem-focused coping mechanisms.

Q3) A client being admitted for surgery has a concurrent history of bipolar disorder. The nurse would assess this client for manifestations of mania that include A) crying spells.

B) decreased energy level.

C) excessive, rapid speech.

D) sad mood.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse explains that disorienting flashbacks may be experienced by a client under the influence of A) alcohol.

B) cocaine.

C) heroin.

D) LSD.

Q2) The theory that describes substance abuse as a learned behavior is called the A) biologic model.

B) family system model.

C) psychological model.

D) sociocultural model.

Q3) The nurse teaching a client taking disulfiram (Antabuse) should focus on A) abstaining from alcohol ingestion.

B) daily exercise.

C) emotional support for the family.

D) skin care.

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Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client describes ripping sounds in his knee during a fall while skiing. The nurse explains to the client that the diagnostic test that will provide the best data is a(n) A) arthrogram.

B) bone scan.

C) myelogram.

D) x-ray film.

Q2) The client who has osteoarthritis describes a grating sound in the hip. The nurse explains that this bothersome manifestation is related to A) bursa enlargement.

B) joint irregularities.

C) normal findings with age.

D) the presence of fluid.

Q3) To evaluate a client's swollen right knee further, the nurse should first A) compare the right knee to the left knee.

B) palpate for crepitus.

C) put the knee through range of motion.

D) test muscle strength.

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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse recognizes the significant laboratory finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of a bone tumor as

A) decreased calcium level.

B) decreased potassium level.

C) elevated alkaline phosphatase level.

D) elevated creatinine level.

Q2) On admission assessment of a client with Paget's disease, the nurse would anticipate the client to complain of

A) continuous bone pain.

B) fever in the afternoon.

C) pain on ambulation.

D) swelling at site of deformity.

Q3) A client has severe osteoarthritis in the hips. An important psychosocial assessment the nurse should make on this client is

A) ability to obtain medications.

B) hobbies and leisure time interests.

C) job-related physical restrictions.

D) sexual role functioning.

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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal

Trauma or Overuse

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the application of a plaster cast, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to

A) allow excess casting material to dry on the skin before removal.

B) carefully cut the stockinette to the exact length of the cast.

C) gently support the extremity from underneath.

D) flush plaster-laden water down the toilet rather than the sink.

Q2) The nurse in the emergency department caring for a client with an anterior dislocation of the knee should have as a priority the assessment of

A) capillary refill of the toes.

B) degree of misalignment in the limb.

C) degree of pain in the joint.

D) mobility in the affected limb.

Q3) Important self-care measures the nurse should teach to the client who is expected to be immobile in a wheelchair for a lengthy period of time include

A) learning how to inspect all skin surfaces for friction or pressure.

B) massaging bony prominences four times a day.

C) sitting upright in a chair or wheelchair on the sacrum.

D) using a gel wheelchair cushion to prevent pressure ulcers.

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Page 29

Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When preparing a client for gastric analysis, the nurse should plan for A) antacid administration.

B) fluoroscopic examination.

C) frequent expectoration for samples.

D) nasogastric tube insertion.

Q2) For a client having all the following GI tests, which test should the nurse schedule last?

A) Barium swallow

B) Computed tomography scan

C) Flat plate of abdomen

D) Ultrasound

Q3) The nurse is assessing a client who describes "stomach discomfort." The most appropriate sequence for conducting the physical examination of the abdomen is

A) auscultation, percussion, palpation, inspection.

B) inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation.

C) inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation.

D) palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027

Sample Questions

Q1) A client who has begun receiving TPN with lipids develops shaking chills, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The priority action by the nurse is to immediately

A) call the physician.

B) obtain a 12-lead ECG.

C) stop the infusion.

D) take a set of vitals.

Q2) A nurse is caring for several clients with small-bore feeding tubes and nasogastric (NG) tubes. Which of the following activities can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel?

A) Assessing placement of the nasoenteric feeding tube

B) Reattaching suction to a nasogastric tube after the client ambulates

C) Refilling the tube-feeding bag for a small-bore gastrostomy tube

D) Performing skin care at the exit site of a jejunostomy tube

Q3) The client manifestation noted by the nurse as inconsistent with malnutrition is A) constipation.

B) delayed wound healing.

C) fatigue.

D) postural hypotension.

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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028

Sample Questions

Q1) A client admitted for evaluation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) begins to complain of severe "heartburn" in the chest that radiates to the jaw. The client asks for the nitroglycerin (NTG) tablets brought in from home. The nurse realizes that the clinical manifestations demonstrated by the client are

A) classic manifestations of a myocardial infarction, and the physician should be paged immediately.

B) greatly influenced by fear related to the location of the pain, and the use of NTG should be discouraged.

C) indications that a thorough pain assessment should be done to determine the etiology of the pain, and the NTG should be given at once.

D) specifically associated with GERD and not myocardial infarction, but the NTG should be allowed if the client wants to use it.

Q2) Priority nursing interventions for a client immediately after glossectomy include measures to

A) assist with body image issues.

B) maintain a patent airway.

C) monitor for hemorrhage.

D) provide analgesia.

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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029

Sample Questions

Q1) A client is taking cortisone. The nurse schedules the medication with food because cortisone can have which effect on gastric mucosa when given on an empty stomach? Cortisone will cause

A) dramatically increased gastric pH.

B) increased amount of GI secretions.

C) increased transit time of GI contents.

D) susceptibility of the mucosa to injury.

Q2) A nurse is instructing a client with a peptic ulcer on recommended dietary changes. A goal of teaching has been met when the client states that he/she will avoid which of the following beverages?

A) Apple juice

B) Lemonade

C) Milk

D) Water

Q3) Before tube insertion, the nurse performs the NEX measurement, which is the

A) distance from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe and to the xiphoid.

B) length of a tube from the hub to the tip converted to centimeters.

C) distance from the ear lobe to the umbilicus.

D) width of the lumen of the tube multiplied by the length.

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Page 33

Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030

Sample Questions

Q1) A client has an oral intake of 1500 ml and a urine output of 350 ml in a 24-hour period. The nurse can correctly chart that the client is

A) anuric.

B) hematuric.

C) oliguric.

D) polyuric.

Q2) For a client who has just undergone cystourethroscopy with biopsy, the nurse should A) encourage the client to drink fluids to flush the dye from the renal system.

B) instruct the client that strict bed rest will be needed after the procedure.

C) offer throat lozenges to help with the client's sore throat.

D) plan care for a client having general anesthesia.

Q3) The nurse explains that a large increase of urobilinogen in the client's urine is consistent with the diagnosis of

A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

B) cancer of the kidney or bladder.

C) gastroenteritis.

D) hepatitis or other liver disease.

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Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031

Sample Questions

Q1) For a client who has returned to the nursing unit after creation of a continent ileostomy (Kock pouch), the action the nurse would include in the plan of care is

A) attach the catheter to straight drainage initially for several days.

B) irrigate the pouch daily with sterile solutions only.

C) provide a permanent appliance and assist the client in application.

D) restrict oral intake until ileal drainage is profuse.

Q2) A 13-year-old client with ulcerative colitis says, "I am so glad I will grow out of this disease. It's so embarrassing at school." Which action by the nurse would best address this statement?

A) Ask the client to explain what he/she means.

B) Encourage the client to become active in school activities or sports.

C) Review the pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis.

D) Tell the client about other people who live successfully with the disease.

Q3) In caring for a client with peritonitis from inflamed diverticuli, the nurse should assign priority to assessing A) bowel sounds.

B) intake and output.

C) neurologic status.

D) vital signs.

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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would realize that additional teaching is needed when the client with a ureteroileostomy says "I

A) am going shopping for new clothing that will better accommodate the pouch."

B) will change the pouch when it begins to leak."

C) won't drink too much so the amount of urine I make will be less."

D) am going to cut down on eating dairy products."

Q2) In a client with a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs), the nurse would note the need for further teaching when the client says "I

A) am on an oral contraceptive."

B) often take baths instead of showers."

C) use unscented tampons during my period."

D) use a water-soluble lubricant for intercourse."

Q3) The nurse caring for a man with a mega-ureter should assess for the potential problem of A) impotence.

B) incontinence.

C) scrotal swelling.

D) urine reflux.

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36

Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033

Sample Questions

Q1) Acute renal artery obstruction would be suspected in a client if the nurse assessed sudden

A) flank pain over the affected kidney.

B) hypothermia.

C) increase in urine output.

D) intermittent fever and sweating.

Q2) In the care plan for a client after nephrectomy, the nurse would include an intervention for

A) encouraging ambulation.

B) maintaining adequate hydration.

C) maintaining patency of wound drains.

D) promoting effective breathing patterns.

Q3) A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who is admitted for pneumonia. The nurse would expect that an appropriate antibiotic that the physician might consider is a/an

A) aminoglycoside.

B) cephalosporin.

C) penicillin.

D) sulfonamide.

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Page 37

Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034

Sample Questions

Q1) A client is at a follow-up appointment and confesses that s/he does not take medications as prescribed. When planning a teaching strategy to address this problem, the nurse understands that clients often do not adhere to self-care guidelines because (Select all that apply)

A) a good understanding of the consequences leads them to skip meds.

B) clients may believe they no longer need the medications.

C) side effects may be disruptive and unpleasant.

D) the economic costs are too high for them to absorb.

Q2) For the nurse trying to assist a client with renal failure to stay within the prescribed fluid restriction, the least helpful strategy would be to

A) give medication at mealtime.

B) provide frequent oral hygiene.

C) put allotted water into a spray bottle.

D) use ice chips liberally instead of fluids.

Q3) A client with oliguric ARF would exhibit

A) a BUN/creatinine ratio of 30:1.

B) hematuria.

C) proteinuria.

D) a urine specific gravity of 1.001.

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035

Sample Questions

Q1) A female client scheduled for her first mammography needs the information that A) no pain or discomfort is involved.

B) results are available within 60 days.

C) she cannot wear deodorant on the day of the test.

D) the procedure takes 15 to 30 minutes.

Q2) During palpation of a client's testes, the nurse notes a small, hard lump on the anterior aspect of one testis. The nurse's most appropriate action would be to A) do nothing, since this is a normal finding.

B) palpate the groin for an associated hernia.

C) perform transillumination of the scrotum.

D) recommend the client take antibiotics.

Q3) When obtaining a sexual history from a female client, a nurse should first A) ask general questions regarding current sexual activity.

B) ask the client if she would like to talk about her sex life.

C) share his or her own feelings about sexuality.

D) tell the client that she should not be embarrassed.

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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is collecting a history on a young client being treated for epididymitis. For which past medical condition should the nurse ask if the client has received treatment?

A) Frequent urinary tract infections

B) History of testicular torsion at puberty

C) Problems with erectile dysfunction

D) Sexually transmitted diseases

Q2) Because a client's mother took diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy, a nurse should advise a client to maintain screening practices for which associated health risk?

A) Decreased sperm count

B) High risk of erectile dysfunction

C) Increased chance of bladder cancer

D) Increased risk of testicular cancer

Q3) The nurse preparing health teaching information about the etiology of prostate cancer would omit factors related to

A) diet.

B) heredity.

C) race.

D) vasectomies.

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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037

Sample Questions

Q1) A client is suspected of having premenstrual syndrome (PMS). A somatic complaint the nurse would assess for is a client report of A) abdominal bloating.

B) blurring of vision.

C) nasal congestion.

D) severe uterine cramping.

Q2) After the physician has prescribed danazol (Danocrine) for treatment of a client's endometriosis, the nurse would explain that this drug may cause A) hot flashes.

B) increased breast size.

C) irregular periods.

D) loss of appetite.

Q3) The assessment that would alert the nurse to vulvar carcinoma is A) lichen sclerosa. B) reduced libido.

C) vaginal atrophy.

D) white, frothy vaginal discharge.

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the client scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy asks the nurse what tissue the surgeon will remove, the nurse would answer

A) breast, skin, and axillary nodes.

B) breast, skin, and muscle.

C) breast, skin, muscle, and axillary nodes.

D) breast, skin, muscle, axillary nodes, and internal mammary nodes.

Q2) The nurse explains to a client following mastectomy with lymph node dissection that care of the operative arm should include

A) avoiding heavy lifting and trauma to the arm.

B) having blood pressure taken on the operative arm.

C) limiting all movement until the incision is healed.

D) wearing an Ace bandage wrap for 2 years.

Q3) In a client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer, the nurse would assess for A) back pain.

B) confusion.

C) infection.

D) weight gain.

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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually

Transmitted Infections

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2 appropriate methods to prevent further spread of the virus while lesions are present. The nurse stresses that clients should

A) apply warm soaks to the lesions.

B) complete antibiotic therapy.

C) maintain separate towels and other personal items.

D) stop using condoms because they are irritating.

Q2) When teaching clients strategies for primary prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), the nurse should

A) encourage compliance with medical treatment.

B) encourage early treatment of infected individuals.

C) provide risk reduction counseling.

D) treat all the client's sexual partners.

Q3) A nurse is teaching a community group about STDs, including proper use of condoms. The nurse informs the group that condom failure is generally due to A) environmental concerns.

B) improper or inconsistent use.

C) latex versus non-latex construction.

D) manufacturer's defect.

Page 43

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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040

Sample Questions

Q1) Explaining a paracentesis to an anxious client, the nurse states that the purpose is to

A) collect fluid accumulations from the pleura.

B) evaluate secretions of the gallbladder.

C) extract fluid sequestered in the pancreas.

D) remove excess fluid from the peritoneum.

Q2) A client being assessed for adrenal medulla function through the use of a urinalysis involves measuring

A) catecholamines and metabolites.

B) diurnal excretion of glucose.

C) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.

D) growth hormone and ADH.

Q3) A client is complaining of abdominal pain described as dull, aching, and cramping. The nurse would record this pain as A) parietal.

B) referred.

C) spasmodic.

D) visceral.

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) As part of the care plan to meet the needs of a client with mild hypothyroidism, the nurse would

A) apply an astringent to the client's skin to promote dryness.

B) plan a strenuous exercise regimen to decrease weight.

C) set the thermostat between 75° and 80° F to provide a comfortable climate.

D) suggest the consumption of dense fruit to decrease diarrhea.

Q2) A client just returned from surgery for a thyroid disorder and complains that his/her mouth has an odd sensation. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

A) Calcium gluconate

B) Epinephrine

C) Potassium chloride

D) Rectal aspirin

Q3) In a client admitted to the clinical unit with a sporadic goiter, the nurse might expect to find that the client

A) frequently travels in foreign countries.

B) has a large intake of aspirin.

C) ingests a large amount of cabbage.

D) lives in the Great Lakes region.

Page 45

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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would assess that the individual most at risk for adrenal insufficiency is the A) asthmatic client taking hydrocortisone once a week who has emergency surgery.

B) athlete who stops daily doses of steroids after taking them for 2 years.

C) COPD client using an aerosol bronchodilator daily who becomes pregnant.

D) hypertensive client taking a diuretic who contracts a febrile illness.

Q2) Twelve hours after surgery for pheochromocytoma, the nurse should assess a postoperative client for manifestations of abdominal hematoma, including A) absent bowel sounds.

B) blurred vision.

C) elevated blood pressure.

D) increased urine output.

Q3) Health promotion activities a school nurse could teach the student athletes that will help them avoid endocrine problems in the future include

A) avoiding alcohol.

B) getting plenty of rest.

C) not smoking.

D) not using steroids.

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Page 46

Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Evaluating a young man with type 1 diabetes, the nurse would consider a classic clinical manifestation of diabetes to be the client's

A) excessive thirst.

B) gradual weight gain.

C) overwhelming fatigue.

D) recurrent blurred vision.

Q2) The nurse explains that diabetic retinopathy, the leading cause of blindness in the United States, results when the retina

A) detaches from the inner chamber wall.

B) hemorrhages and loses it ability to function.

C) is deprived of oxygen.

D) is obstructed by protein plaque.

Q3) The nurse assesses a diabetic client and finds a blood sugar level of 280 mg/dl, low blood pressure, nausea and vomiting, and erratic pulse. The nurse would suspect the electrolyte abnormality of

A) hypermagnesemia.

B) hypernatremia.

C) hypocalcemia.

D) hypokalemia.

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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine

Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a client and spouse about insulin administration. The spouse becomes quite upset, saying "Why are we having to use insulin at home? The diagnosis is pancreatitis! How did you make him a diabetic?" The best response by the nurse is

A) "I see you are upset. Let me answer your questions before we talk about insulin."

B) "I'm sorry you're upset. But you both need to understand how to use insulin."

C) "When so much endocrine tissue is damaged, the client becomes diabetic."

D) "Would you like the diabetic educator to come talk with you both?"

Q2) The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client going home with a T tube after an open cholecystectomy. Goals for teaching have been met when the client says

A) "For drainage that is thick with mucus or blood, I can irrigate the T tube."

B) "I will need to milk the tube every 4 hours and record the drainage."

C) "The tube can be used to administer stone dissolving medications"

D) "This tube will stay in for 1-2 weeks and I should watch for diminishing drainage."

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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse counseling a client who has used oral contraceptives (OCs) since age 17 would make the client aware that the use of OCs has increased the incidence of A) adenomas of the liver.

B) gallbladder disease.

C) gastric ulcerations.

D) pancreatitis.

Q2) A nurse explains to a client who recently ate in a fast-food restaurant where several people have developed hepatitis that the incubation period for this type of hepatitis is A) 1 to 10 days.

B) 15 to 30 days.

C) 1 to 6 months.

D) up to 1 year.

Q3) The nurse preparing to discharge a client with acute hepatitis B instructs the client to avoid

A) acetaminophen and aspirin.

B) laxatives and stool softeners.

C) nicotine and caffeine.

D) oral decongestants.

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Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has elevated lesions that contain serous fluid. The nurse would document these as

A) nodules.

B) pustules.

C) vesicles.

D) wheals.

Q2) After a client's surgical excisional biopsy, the nurse would apply

A) antibiotic ointment and a dry dressing.

B) Band-Aids only.

C) hydrocolloid dressing only.

D) petrolatum gauze and paper tape.

Q3) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation.

B) induration.

C) reddening of the skin.

D) striation.

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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4047

Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a client after a chemical peel procedure to the face, the nurse would A) apply skin moisturizer.

B) cleanse the client's face with an astringent.

C) maintain the client in a head-down position.

D) use abrasive cleaning agents.

Q2) Before a client has blepharoplasty, the nurse would assess the client for A) ability to close eyes completely.

B) extraocular movement in each eye.

C) facial symmetry and muscle strength.

D) near and distant vision in each eye.

Q3) In the care of a client diagnosed with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, the nurse's priority focus would be A) control of pruritus.

B) pain management.

C) prevention of metastasis.

D) removal of the tumors.

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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would stress to the ancillary staff that the most important means of preventing the spread of infection in the burn unit is

A) prophylactic antibiotics.

B) restricting visitors with respiratory tract infections.

C) strict hand-washing.

D) using clean gowns, gloves, and masks.

Q2) The nurse would assure a family member that for the first 24 hours after a burn injury, pain is kept to a minimum by administering

A) intravenous narcotic agents.

B) liquid narcotics via a nasogastric tube.

C) narcotics via an intramuscular route into nonburned tissue.

D) tepid soaks and oral morphine.

Q3) The nurse doing a home safety assessment would conclude that the client at highest risk for burns sustained from clothing ignition during meal preparation is

A) an 18-month-old toddler.

B) a 5-year-old child.

C) a 15-year-old teenager.

D) a 75-year-old adult.

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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a female client tells the nurse, "I always get pains in my legs when walking," the nurse would question her about

A) amount of activity required to cause pain.

B) history of hypertension.

C) number of pregnancies.

D) presence of swelling.

Q2) A client has a suspected DVT. The nurse would prepare the client to undergo a A) air plethysmography.

B) ankle-brachial index measurement.

C) computed tomography (CT) scan.

D) ultrasonic duplex scan.

Q3) To determine if a client with complaints of pain after walking 5 blocks is experiencing intermittent claudication, the nurse would ask

A) "Do you experience leg swelling?"

B) "Does pain go away when you rest?"

C) "Is the pain cramp-like?"

D) "Is the pain in the calf muscle?"

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Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders

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17 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In conducting a health interview with a hypertensive client, the nurse would ask the client about the presence of the typical manifestations of the disorder, which are

A) increasing muscle weakness.

B) nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

C) none unless the hypertension is sustained.

D) peripheral edema and abdominal bloating.

Q2) The nurse would consider referring a hypertensive client for step-down therapy when the blood pressure has been effectively controlled for at least A) 3 months.

B) 6 months.

C) 1 year.

D) 2 years.

Q3) In advising a hypertensive client who is reluctant to give up smoking, the nurse would state that nicotine from smoking

A) causes significant, irreversible changes in blood vessels.

B) does not affect blood pressure but increases risk of cardiovascular disease.

C) increases blood pressure immediately for a short time.

D) is statistically linked to the development of hypertension.

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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051

Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching foot care to a client with chronic arterial occlusive disease, the nurse would tell the client to avoid

A) using cornstarch on the feet.

B) using toenail clippers.

C) wearing canvas shoes.

D) wearing cotton socks.

Q2) A client who is overweight and smokes is newly diagnosed with thromboangiitis obliterans. The nurse's teaching plan would focus on the highest priority of A) controlling high blood pressure.

B) exercising regularly.

C) following a low-fat diet.

D) smoking cessation.

Q3) A client is wearing sequential compression devices (SCDs) on the bilateral lower legs. Nursing care for these devices includes

A) not allowing the client to ambulate.

B) pre-wrapping the legs with Ace bandages.

C) removing them twice a day to inspect skin.

D) turning them off every 2 hours for 10 minutes.

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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052

Sample Questions

Q1) Women with heart disease often present with which symptom? (Select all that apply.)

A) Chest pain

B) Dyspnea

C) Fatigue

D) Nausea

E) Palpitations

Q2) A client is taking the herbal supplements bilberry and evening primrose. The nurse would specifically question the client about manifestations of A) angina.

B) dyspnea.

C) hypertension.

D) palpitations.

Q3) A client has an elevated level of C-reactive protein. The nurse explains the significance of this finding as

A) an indication of an inflammatory process like atherosclerosis.

B) not related to future cardiac events such as myocardial infarction.

C) suggestive of a recent pulmonary embolus.

D) worrisome because it signals possible myocardial irritability.

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Page 56

Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural

Cardiac Disorders

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) To encourage a client recovering from endocarditis, the nurse would stress that new guidelines for home care are less restrictive than in the past and the client no longer needs to

A) observe complete bed rest.

B) restrict the amount of activity.

C) take 2 to 5 weeks of antibiotic therapy.

D) take precautions against emboli formation.

Q2) For a client waiting for a heart transplant who has been fitted with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD), the nurse would explain that the purpose of this device is to

A) electrically stimulate the left ventricle to contract.

B) extract blood from the left ventricle and propel it into the systemic circulation.

C) measure hemodynamics of cardiac output occurring because of dysrhythmias.

D) sound an alarm when the intraventricular pressure drops.

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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional

Cardiac Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Reporting that a client's total cholesterol reading is 230, the nurse would know this result indicates a reading that is

A) low.

B) borderline high.

C) high.

D) very high.

Q2) A client had a PTCA with stent placement. Nursing care that can be delegated to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) after the procedure includes (Select all that apply)

A) assessing the distal pulses every 15-30 minutes.

B) calling for an ECG immediately if the client has angina.

C) monitoring vital signs every 15-30 minutes.

D) providing the client with plenty of fluids to drink.

E) reminding the client to remain flat in bed.

Q3) The nurse would clarify for a client that the lipoproteins representing the "good" cholesterol are the

A) HDLs.

B) LDLs.

C) VDRLs.

D) VLDLs.

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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client develops sinus bradycardia after a myocardial infarction (MI), the nurse would anticipate the administration of A) atropine.

B) digitalis.

C) procainamide.

D) propranolol.

Q2) When the normal pacemaker is impaired and latent pacemaker cells in the AV node initiate the cardiac cycle, the nurse would clarify that this pacemaker is called the A) altered pacemaker.

B) delayed pacemaker.

C) escape pacemaker.

D) junctional pacemaker.

Q3) If a client admitted to the hospital for treatment of atrial fibrillation complains of dyspnea and chest pain, the nurse would suspect A) heart block.

B) myocardial infarction.

C) pulmonary edema.

D) pulmonary emboli.

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Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client has received thrombolytic therapy after an ST segment myocardial infarction (STEMI). A half-hour later, the nurse notices frequent PVCs. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to

A) administer lidocaine per the dysrhythmia protocol.

B) document the finding and conclude the therapy worked.

C) prepare to send the client for emergent PTCA.

D) request an order for an anxiolytic medication.

Q2) When caring for a client immediately after an MI, the nurse's first priority would be A) monitoring for dysrhythmias.

B) preventing an embolism.

C) relieving pain.

D) relieving the client's apprehension.

Q3) The nurse would remind a client that the cause of sudden death after myocardial infarction is usually

A) congestive heart failure.

B) dysrhythmias.

C) myocardial ischemia.

D) stroke.

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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse auscultating the chest of a client with chronic bronchitis would expect to hear the characteristic adventitious breath sound of

A) bronchovesicular sounds in the bases.

B) crackles throughout the lung fields.

C) rhonchi on expiration.

D) wheezes on inspiration.

Q2) An older adult client says, "I need to get a shot so that I'll never get pneumonia again." The most helpful response by the nurse would be

A) "Immunization for pneumonia must be repeated every year."

B) "Most older people get flu shots, but they don't protect you from pneumonia."

C) "Pneumovax vaccine can protect you against one type of pneumonia."

D) "You cannot get a shot, or immunization, for pneumonia."

Q3) The nurse would explain to a client with complaints of wheezing and chest tightness that wheezing occurs when

A) air is passing through a narrowed airway.

B) air is trapped in the alveoli.

C) an allergic reaction is taking place.

D) sputum production is increased.

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Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which intervention would probably help most when teaching a client to speak again after a laryngectomy?

A) Give the client contact information so speech therapy can continue at home.

B) Help the client and family understand that this is a frustrating experience.

C) Make sure the client has a supply of paper and pens.

D) Obtain several different speaking aids for the client to try at home.

Q2) The measure that would best aid the nurse in removing heavy, tenacious secretions during suctioning is

A) encouraging frequent coughing and deep breathing.

B) employing postural drainage before suctioning.

C) hyperinflating the lungs before suctioning.

D) instilling sterile saline directly into the trachea.

Q3) After a posterior nasal pack is inserted by the physician, the client is very anxious and states, "I don't feel like I'm breathing right." The immediate intervention the nurse would initiate is

A) collect a specimen for arterial blood gases (ABGs).

B) cut the pack strings and pull the packing out.

C) inspect the client's oral cavity using a flashlight.

D) reassure the client that this is normal discomfort.

Page 62

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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is drawing a blood sample from a client's central line and the client suddenly becomes dyspneic and complains of chest pain. The priority action by the nurse is to

A) obtain blood pressure readings in both arms.

B) notify the physician immediately.

C) put the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position.

D) terminate the procedure and clamp the central line.

Q2) A client experiencing severe chest pain from a pulmonary embolism has been medicated for pain but appears anxious and restless. The additional nursing measure that most likely would assist the client in dealing with fear is

A) asking the client not to focus on the pain.

B) explaining the monitoring devices to the client.

C) reassuring the client the pain medication will work soon.

D) remaining at the bedside with the client.

Q3) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the A) Fowler position.

B) lithotomy position.

C) side-lying position.

D) supine position.

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Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would know that a client who has just begun treatment for pulmonary TB with rifampin has a good understanding of this medication with the statement that

A) "I told my wife to throw away all our spoons and forks before I come home."

B) "I won't go to any family gatherings for 6 months."

C) "It's going to be important to remember to cover my nose when I sneeze."

D) "My urine will look orange because of the medication."

Q2) The nurse administering influenza vaccinations to a group of office workers would not offer the vaccine to a client who

A) has a history of asthma.

B) is allergic to eggs.

C) is allergic to sulfa drugs.

D) takes amoxicillin for a bladder infection.

Q3) To increase the level of comfort for a client with a lung abscess, the nurse would include which intervention in the care plan?

A) Encourage activity before meals.

B) Offer frequent oral hygiene.

C) Provide easy-to-eat milk products.

D) Restrict fluid intake.

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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client with a cuffed ET tube reports shortness of breath, the nurse would

A) give the ordered pain medication.

B) assess for a cuff leak.

C) increase the level of O₂ delivery.

D) elevate the head of the bed.

Q2) The nurse would explain that emergency treatment of a tension pneumothorax requires

A) a small stab wound with a skin blade made into the pleural space.

B) covering the chest wall wound with gauze.

C) immediate tracheostomy.

D) insertion of an 18-gauge needle into the pleural space.

Q3) A client who sustained a head injury is intubated and receiving volume-cycled mechanical ventilation via the controlled mechanical ventilation (CMV) mode. The nurse would explain that this means

A) a preset amount of pressure stays in the client's lungs at the end of exhalation.

B) spontaneous inspiratory effort triggers the ventilator to deliver a preset tidal volume.

C) the client's own breaths can become "stacked" with the ventilator breaths.

D) the ventilator delivers the preset volume regardless of the client's efforts.

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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that the voice, rather than a ticking watch, is used to test auditory acuity because watches

A) can be muffled by the examiner's hand.

B) have different sound frequencies.

C) make a familiar and predictable sound. D) produce a higher pitch.

Q2) The nurse would ask a client with the diagnosis of myopia about a family history of A) central vision loss.

B) color blindness.

C) farsightedness.

D) nearsightedness.

Q3) Using a Snellen chart, the nurse would credit a client with reading the line of print if the client has correctly read more than A) 50% of the characters.

B) 60% of the characters.

C) 80% of the characters.

D) 90% of the characters.

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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is concerned about a client's slowly healing corneal ulcer because such an injury can lead to

A) cataract formation.

B) perforation of the anterior chamber.

C) retinal detachment.

D) secondary glaucoma.

Q2) In planning the care of a client with Crohn's disease for 10 years who has developed Sjögren's syndrome, the nurse would include

A) applying frequent cool soaks.

B) cleansing the eye to remove crusts.

C) instilling lubricating eye drops frequently.

D) reducing lighting in the room.

Q3) The nurse providing normal postoperative care to a client who underwent laser trabeculoplasty as part of glaucoma management would

A) give food and fluids immediately on arrival.

B) instruct the client to lie on the operative side.

C) maintain an eye patch and plastic shield in place.

D) tell the client to expect eye pain and nausea.

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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse assessing a client with an inner ear disorder would be aware that the presenting clinical manifestation will be

A) conductive hearing disorder.

B) otorrhea.

C) sensorineural hearing loss.

D) severe headache.

Q2) A client's family reports that the client does not hear well. The client becomes angry and defensive and denies having a hearing problem. The best response by the nurse would be

A) "It seems like it's hard to listen to your family when you don't agree with them."

B) "My father has a hearing aid and is really glad he got it."

C) "There's nothing to be ashamed about having poor hearing."

D) "Why don't you believe what your family is saying?"

Q3) After assisting a client with insertion of a hearing aid, the nurse would

A) allow the client to adjust volume before speaking.

B) cup hand over the client's ear to check for feedback.

C) explain that the whistling noise will subside in a few minutes.

D) stand in front of the client and speak loudly.

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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse would explain to a client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) that an EEG

A) assesses for the presence of solid masses in the brain.

B) measures the adequacy of cerebral perfusion.

C) records cerebral blood flow patterns.

D) traces superficial electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.

Q2) When testing comprehension in a client who is expressively aphasic, the nurse lays out a pencil, a key, and a ball and then would

A) ask the client to pick up the ball.

B) hold up the key and ask, "What do you do with this?"

C) point to the pencil and ask, "What is this?"

D) point to the ball and ask "What can this be used for?"

Q3) The nurse documents the client's gait as short, accelerating steps with the client shuffling in a forward-leaning posture and having difficulty starting and stopping. The nurse would identify this type of gait as

A) ataxic.

B) dystrophic.

C) festinating.

D) parkinsonian.

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Page 69

Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused

Clients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is assessing a client and considering the use of physical restraints to keep the client safe. In making this decision, which factors should the nurse consider? (Select all that apply.)

A) A goal is to use the least restrictive device for the shortest possible time.

B) Alternatives to restraint should be tried first as death and injury can occur.

C) How to communicate with the physician so an order is signed every 48 hours.

D) The frequency with which the client must be re-assessed.

E) The types and sizes of restraints the facility has available.

Q2) The nurse who is beginning oral feedings on a client who is returning to consciousness will

A) begin feedings with water.

B) place about 1 teaspoon of liquid in the front of the mouth.

C) position the client upright.

D) stroke the posterior neck to promote swallowing.

Q3) A nurse explains that a major characteristic of delirium is

A) decline in social functions and sociability.

B) gradual onset and continuing decline.

C) multiple types of memory impairment.

D) reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention.

Page 70

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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The clinic nurse recommends to a client with cluster headaches that to abate the manifestations associated with an attack, he should inhale

A) 100% oxygen for 15 minutes.

B) deeply for 5 minutes.

C) oil of cloves for 5 minutes.

D) warm mist for 10 minutes.

Q2) For a client who had a transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary tumor, the nurse plans to

A) assess the "mustache" dressing for drainage.

B) do minimal mouth care for the first 2 days.

C) encourage the use of straws when drinking.

D) provide heated mist and humidified oxygen.

Q3) The nurse should observe a client with bacterial meningitis for A) changes in sensorium.

B) high blood pressure.

C) hypothermia.

D) muscle spasms.

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Page 71

Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse teaches a community class about primary prevention for stroke, which includes (Select all that apply)

A) adequate control of hypertension.

B) keeping tight glycemic control in diabetes.

C) maintaining safe cholesterol levels.

D) not smoking or smoking cessation.

E) reducing heavy alcohol consumption.

Q2) The nurse would assess the client with a history of TIAs for

A) ataxia and dysarthria.

B) bouts of hypertension.

C) nausea and vomiting.

D) tingling in the extremities.

Q3) The nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke several years ago. The client has indicators of being malnourished. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?

A) Ability to throw the head back to propel the food

B) Embarrassment and frustration over trouble eating

C) Inability of the bowel to absorb nutrients

D) Positioning the head with a sideways' tilt

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Page 72

Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse should assess a client who has had unrelieved trigeminal neuralgia for the past 6 months for

A) alcohol consumption.

B) suicidal ideation.

C) vocational rehabilitation.

D) weight gain.

Q2) In performing a neurologic evaluation of a client who had lumbar surgery 36 hours ago, it is important that the nurse assess

A) ability to move shoulders.

B) leg movement.

C) level of consciousness.

D) reflex response.

Q3) On the second postoperative day following herniated disk surgery, the client says, "My legs are numb. I thought surgery was going to fix my problems." The nurse's best response to explain the continued pain is

A) "Because of the surgery, there is some swelling, which should subside."

B) "This pain is from the anesthesia and will subside by this afternoon."

C) "This pain is positional and will subside if you roll over on your side."

D) "You are probably moving around too much. I will raise the knee gatch."

Page 73

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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD).

Appropriate nursing care includes

A) administering broad-spectrum antibiotics until culture results are known.

B) giving the client anti-viral medications as ordered.

C) placing the client in contact and airborne isolation.

D) using standard precautions when handling body fluids.

Q2) Nursing interventions to support the family caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease include (Select all that apply)

A) encouraging emotion-focused coping mechanisms.

B) helping the family identify safety concerns and modifying the home.

C) showing the family how to deal with behavioral problems.

D) teaching the family alternative communication techniques.

Q3) A client is being treated in the clinic for an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. The nurse would anticipate administering which drug?

A) Diazepam (Valium)

B) Interferon b1b (Betaseron)

C) Lioresal (Baclofen)

D) Methylprednisolone (Solu-Cortef)

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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic

Trauma

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client with upper motor neuron damage following a spinal cord injury is experiencing a neurogenic bowel, the nurse would alter the plan of care to include

A) giving a suppository daily.

B) having the client take a daily laxative.

C) instilling daily soapsuds enemas.

D) manually disimpacting the stool.

Q2) The client with a spinal cord injury asks the nurse why he must stand on the tilt table every day. The nurse should base the answer on the fact that weight-bearing A) decreases leg spasms.

B) improves circulation.

C) prevents bone demineralization.

D) strengthens muscles in the legs.

Q3) The client who is unconscious following a fall has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to

A) increase the patient's intravenous (IV) fluids.

B) notify the physician immediately.

C) provide hyperventilation by adjusting ventilator settings.

D) retake the blood pressure in 15 minutes.

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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System

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Q1) The laboratory test result that would be most helpful to the nurse in the assessment of a client with a bleeding disorder is

A) differential count.

B) hematocrit.

C) platelet count.

D) RBC count.

Q2) The nurse discovers a client is taking the herb St. John's wort. The nurse cautions that this herb reduces the effectiveness of A) lanoxin.

B) prednisone.

C) theophylline.

D) warfarin.

Q3) The nurse is monitoring the laboratory test results for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. The nurse is aware that the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for most clinical conditions requiring anticoagulation is A) less than 1.

B) 1 to 2.

C) 2 to 3.5.

D) 3 to 5.5.

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Page 76

Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a client experiences an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the nurse should initially

A) administer oxygen via nasal prongs.

B) discontinue the transfusion.

C) notify the physician.

D) raise the head of the bed.

Q2) A nurse providing wellness seminars plans which of the following primary prevention activities related to sickle cell disease?

A) Have a "sick day management" tip sheet for those with SCD.

B) Offer information on genetic counseling for SSD.

C) Plan to have a list of community resources for the families of people with SCD.

D) Provide a list of day care providers willing to care for children with SCD.

Q3) While performing an admission assessment on a moderately anemic client, the nurse would expect to find a history of

A) blurred vision.

B) cardiac palpitations.

C) increased appetite.

D) warm, flushing sensations.

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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders

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Q1) A nurse would observe the client for how long to determine whether there is an immediate reaction to a skin test?

A) 1 to 2 minutes

B) 2 to 5 minutes

C) 5 to 10 minutes

D) 10 to 20 minutes

Q2) The nurse reminds a client that a delayed inflammatory response can occur 2 to 8 hours after exposure to an allergen and is governed by A) basophils.

B) eosinophils.

C) mast cells.

D) T cells.

Q3) The nurse instructs a client diagnosed with urticaria on common self care measures, which include

A) antihistamines.

B) corticosteroids.

C) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

D) warm oatmeal baths.

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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders

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Q1) A client has advanced systemic sclerosis and presents with a mask-like face and limited ROM of the mouth. Which nursing diagnosis is most important to address an important concept related to this client?

A) Altered Body Image

B) Impaired Skin Integrity

C) Risk for Constipation

D) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition

Q2) When the nurse is caring for a client with progressive systemic sclerosis (PSS), the highest-priority nursing diagnosis would be A) Constipation.

B) Disturbed Thought Processes.

C) Risk for Imbalanced Body Temperature.

D) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity.

Q3) The nursing assessment of clients with SLE should focus most intensely on the presence of the common and serious sequela of this disorder, which is A) difficulty swallowing.

B) interruptions in skin integrity.

C) peripheral neuropathies.

D) renal failure.

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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired

Immunodeficiency Syndrome

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Q1) The situation that would be least helpful to manage pain in the AIDS client who is an injecting drug user is

A) carefully rationing narcotic prescriptions.

B) having multiple practitioners prescribing medications.

C) limiting rescue doses of narcotic analgesics on a monthly basis.

D) refusing to fill lost prescriptions.

Q2) A client is afraid of a recent possible HIV exposure. The nurse should explain that the period of time it takes before HIV antibodies can be detected by laboratory tests is generally

A) 1 to 3 days.

B) 7 to 10 days.

C) 1 to 3 weeks.

D) 4 to 12 weeks.

Q3) A client with AIDS has the nursing diagnosis Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. The nurse should

A) encourage sweet foods and desserts that appeal to the taste.

B) encourage the client to dine alone to focus on food intake.

C) instruct the client to prepare meals, then divide and freeze them.

D) tell the client to eat large meals to result in greater intake.

Page 80

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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma

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Q1) When the nurse records a platelet count of 20,000/mm³, the most appropriate nursing action is to

A) encourage iron-rich foods.

B) increase fluid intake.

C) institute bleeding precautions.

D) place the client in protective isolation.

Q2) The nurse caring for a client who had a bone marrow transplant this morning should observe the client for manifestations of

A) graft-versus-host disease.

B) hemorrhage.

C) pulmonary complications.

D) Sjögren's syndrome.

Q3) A client with Hodgkin's lymphoma has relapsed after completing chemotherapy. The nurse plans care for this client understanding the probable treatment will be A) BMT or stem cell transplantation.

B) immunosuppressants.

C) more chemotherapy.

D) systemic steroids.

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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring

Transplantation

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Q1) The most important topic related to health promotion the nurse should teach a client before being discharged after an organ transplant is

A) housing options close to the transplant center for the next 1-2 months.

B) how to access funding to pay for lifelong immunosuppressant therapy.

C) primary prevention measures against common infectious diseases.

D) transplant team contact information for the client's primary health care provider.

Q2) A client who had a liver transplant 4 days ago has developed a fever and decreased biliary tube drainage. The nurse anticipates an order for the client to have a A) liver biopsy.

B) set of blood cultures.

C) ultrasound.

D) white blood cell count.

Q3) The nurse explains that the law prohibiting the buying and selling of organs is the A) National Transplant Act.

B) Organ Procurement and Transplant Network.

C) Uniform Anatomical Gift Act.

D) United Network of Organ Sharing.

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Page 82

Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem

Disorders

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Q1) The nurse closely assesses clients who experience crushing injuries and are in shock because they are more prone than other clients to develop

A) adult respiratory distress syndrome.

B) disseminated intravascular clotting.

C) fat emboli and respiratory distress.

D) uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.

Q2) During treatment for shock, the client receives fluid volume replacement. The nurse determines that renal perfusion is being maintained if the urine output is at least A)0.25 ml/kg/hour.

B)0.5 ml/kg/hour.

C)1.0 ml/kg/hour.

D)1.5 ml/kg/hour.

Q3) When a client is admitted to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the abdomen and is experiencing severe blood loss, the nurse anticipates the initial use of

A) dextran.

B) normal saline.

C) packed red blood cells.

D) whole blood.

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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer 150 mg of intravenous phenytoin to a client with seizure activity. After diluting the medication with the supplied diluent, the nurse will infuse the medication over a period of

A) 1 minute.

B) 2 minutes.

C) 3 minutes.

D) 4 minutes.

Q2) The nurse clarifies that the law specifies that an ED client cannot be transferred to another facility until the client is stable. "Stable" is interpreted to mean that the client

A) has a blood pressure of at least 90/50 mm Hg.

B) has been evaluated by a physician.

C) is conscious and able to provide necessary information.

D) is not likely to deteriorate during transfer.

Q3) A client is brought to the ED with a suspected neck injury. The nurse should

A) adjust the table to sit the client upright.

B) apply a hard cervical collar to the nuchal area.

C) check for full range of motion of the head.

D) place a rolled towel under the client's neck.

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