Medical-Surgical Nursing Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing a wide variety of medical conditions and surgical interventions. The course integrates concepts of pathophysiology, pharmacology, and nursing theory to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to deliver safe, evidence-based care. Emphasis is placed on clinical decision-making, patient assessment, intervention, and evaluation within diverse healthcare settings. Students learn to manage acute and chronic health problems, prioritize nursing actions, and collaborate effectively with interdisciplinary teams to promote optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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28 Chapters
1172 Verified Questions
1172 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?
A)symptoms
B)occurrence
C)manifestations
D)complication
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
A)the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
B)the relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
C)identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
D)the global search for emerging diseases
Answer: A
Q3) Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
A)an iatrogenic cause of cancer
B)a preventative measure
C)a precipitating factor
D)a predisposing condition
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm,chest,and right leg.The body surface area (BSA)or the percentage of body surface area burned is approximately:
A)13.5%
B)18%
C)22.5%
D)31.5%
Answer: C
Q2) What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury
1)increased permeability of blood vessels
2)dilation of blood vessels
3)transient vasoconstriction
4)migration of leukocytes to the area
5)hyperemia
A)5,3,2,1,4
B)1,2,4,5,3
C)2,3,5,4,1
D)3,2,5,1,4
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cases of HIV infection,the "window period" refers to the time between:
A)entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations
B)entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood
C)entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count
D)diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS"
Answer: B
Q2) Neutrophils:
A)are phagocytic cells
B)produce histamine
C)produce antibodies
D)are elevated during an allergic response
Answer: A
Q3) What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS?
A)The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids.
B)Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.
C)HIV was found in lymphocytes.
D)Active infection has developed in the patient.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infection
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When do clinical signs of infection appear?
A)as soon as pathogens penetrate the skin or mucous membrane
B)as soon as microbes begin to replicate
C)when the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host
D)after the immune system is activated
Q2) What method do viruses use to replicate?
A)binary fission
B)budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
C)producing reproductive spores
D)using a host cell to produce and assemble components
Q3) Fungi reproduce by:
1)budding
2)extension of hyphae
3)binary fission
4)production of spores
A)1,2
B)2,4
C)1,2,4
D)2,3,4
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term apoptosis refers to:
A)programmed cell death
B)abnormal or immature cells
C)degree of differentiation of cells
D)the development of new capillaries in a tumor
Q2) Malignant brain tumors:
A)metastasize quickly to all parts of the body
B)spread first to lungs and bone
C)spread to other parts of CNS
D)do not metastasize anywhere at any time
Q3) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A)thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
B)headache and lethargy
C)nausea and constipation
D)alopecia and weight loss
Q4) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A)identify the original cell from which the tumor developed
B)locate and identify the primary tumor
C)decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor
D)determine the best treatment and the prognosis
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the slowest,but most effective control for acid-base balance?
A)respiratory system
B)buffer systems in the blood
C)kidneys
D)brain
Q2) Which of the following would cause edema?
A)decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B)increased capillary osmotic pressure
C)decreased capillary permeability
D)increased capillary permeability
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
A)dehydration
B)third-spacing
C)hypovolemia
D)water retention
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8
Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is TRUE?
A)The typical physical characteristics are present at birth.
B)All children with Down syndrome have the same organ defects and medical problems.
C)The extent of cognitive impairment can be assessed at birth.
D)The birth of a child with Down syndrome is only a risk to mothers over age 35.
Q2) A father affected with hemophilia A,whose wife is unaffected,will pass on the defective gene to:
A)all his sons,who will be affected
B)50% of his sons,who will be affected
C)all his daughters,who will be carriers
D)50% of his daughters,who will be carriers
Q3) Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
A)autosomal dominant disorder
B)multifactorial disorder
C)developmental defect
D)chromosomal disorder
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9
Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biologic changes associated with adolescence result are stimulated primarily by:
A)the peripheral nervous system
B)the thalamus
C)increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone
D)the pituitary gland
Q2) Obesity in adolescents is:
A)determined by calculating Body Mass Index (BMI)
B)a significant factor in a teen's self-image
C)related to increased intake of high fat and high carbohydrate snacks,"fast foods"
D)associated with lack of regular physical activities
E)All the above are correct.
Q3) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A)a refusal to eat
B)extreme weight loss
C)alternating binge-eating and purging
D)chronic diarrhea
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Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term primigravida refers to:
A)length of time since the first day of the last menstrual period
B)a woman who is pregnant for the first time
C)estimated date of delivery
D)withdrawal of a small amount of amnionic fluid
Q2) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A)first week following fertilization
B)first 2 months
C)any time up to 6 months
D)during labor and delivery
Q3) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A)severe hypertension
B)disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C)jaundice
D)thromboembolism
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Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing lifespan of the general population?
A)reduced cognitive and social activities
B)improved living conditions
C)better nutrition
D)advancements in healthcare
E)increase in regular physical exercise
Q2) With advancing age,the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A)irregular impulse conduction in the heart
B)reduced number of collagen fibres to support cardiac muscle
C)vascular degeneration leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis
D)heart valves become thin and weak
E)lower blood pressure and slower pulse
Q3) All are physiologic changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A)reduced skeletal muscle mass
B)degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine
C)increased Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
D)reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying
E)thinner dermis and decreased subcutaneous tissue
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A)less elastic
B)atrophied
C)contracted
D)spastic
Q2) Paralysis of the lower part of the body is called:
A)hemiplegia
B)paraplegia
C)quadriplegia
D)None of the above are correct.
Q3) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A)bone demineralization
B)lengthening of tendons and ligaments
C)decreased skeletal muscle mass
D)a,b
E)a,c
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Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selye defined 3 stages in the stress response.The third stage is designated as the:
A)alarm stage
B)resistance stage
C)stage of exhaustion
D)maladaptive stage
Q2) The stress response involves the integrated action of the:
1)hypothalamus
2)hypophysis
3)sympathetic nervous system
4)adrenal glands
A)1,3
B)2,3
C)1,2,4
D)1,2,3,4
Q3) During the stress response,glucocorticoids assist in:
A)increasing blood glucose levels and stabilizing blood pressure
B)depressing and calming cerebral function
C)stimulating increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin
D)preventing excessive secretion of epinephrine
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A)pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal,chemical,or physical means
B)spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin
C)responsible for the state of arousal with pain
D)useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body
Q2) Which of the following occurs frequently with acute pain but not with chronic pain?
A)depression and debilitation
B)a perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
C)fatigue and lower pain tolerance
D)a stress response
Q3) What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
A)meperidine
B)acetaminophen
C)codeine
D)ibuprofen
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15
Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has developed a tolerance for codeine will:
A)demonstrate physical signs when the drug is discontinued
B)require a larger dose than expected to control pain
C)require a smaller dose than expected to control pain
D)show signs or symptoms of drug toxicity
Q2) When an increased dosage of a drug causes toxic effects,it is called:
A)synergism
B)neurostimulant
C)overdose
D)detoxification
Q3) Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol? It:
A)is primarily a CNS stimulant
B)may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers
C)does not interact with other drugs in the CNS
D)usually causes severe kidney damage
Q4) Withdrawal from any drug is best accomplished:
A)with medical support
B)with legally prescribed drugs
C)following intensive counselling
D)using CNS stimulants
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A)systemic vasodilation
B)lethargy and confusion
C)nausea and cramps
D)rapid but strong pulse
Q2) During the development of hyperthermia,the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A)body core temperature is very high
B)skeletal muscle spasms occur
C)hypovolemia and fainting occur
D)the cool-down process is too rapid
Q3) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A)bone and cartilage
B)skeletal and smooth muscle
C)peripheral and central neurons
D)epithelial tissue and bone marrow
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is trained to help individuals with swallowing problems?
A)occupational therapist
B)physiotherapist
C)dietitian/nutritionist
D)speech-language pathologist
Q2) Ingesting a drug with a large meal would likely:
A)immediately increase the blood level of the drug
B)delay the absorption of the drug into the blood
C)ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood
D)cause more rapid excretion of the drug
Q3) A drug is taken with a meal when it:
A)needs to be absorbed quickly
B)irritates the stomach
C)interacts with certain foods
D)is intended to delay digestion
Q4) Most drugs are metabolized in the ____ and excreted through the ____.
A)blood;intestines
B)lymph nodes;lungs
C)liver;kidneys
D)body cells;kidneys
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood?
A)increased hemoglobin in the blood
B)decreased hematocrit
C)increased risk of hemostasis
D)decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
Q2) Which stage of Hodgkin's lymphoma would be identified when several malignant lymph nodes are found in two regions on the same side of the diaphragm?
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
Q3) Thalassemia is caused by:
A)a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin
B)an abnormal form of heme
C)abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron
D)overproduction of hypochromic,microcytic RBCs
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19
Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classic early manifestation(s)of left-sided congestive heart failure are ____,whereas the early indicator(s)of right-sided failure are _______.
A)palpitations and periodic chest pain;shortness of breath on exertion
B)swelling of the ankles and abdomen;chest pain
C)shortness of breath on exertion or lying down;swelling of the ankles
D)coughing up frothy sputum;hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
Q2) Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?
A)Furosemide
B)Digoxin
C)Epinephrine
D)Nifedipine
Q3) Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?
A)It indicates decreased CO diffusion in the lungs.
B)It indicates swelling in the bronchioles and bronchi.
C)It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position.
D)It results from pleural effusion.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement related to tuberculosis:
A)The microbe is present in the sputum of all patients with a positive TB skin test.
B)The infection is transmitted primarily by blood from an infected person.
C)The microbe is an acid-fast bacillus,resistant to many disinfectants.
D)The microbe is quickly destroyed by the immune response.
Q2) How does total obstruction of a major bronchus lead to atelectasis?
A)Decreased surfactant production impairs lung expansion.
B)The involved lung is compressed.
C)Air is absorbed from the alveoli distal to the obstruction.
D)Air continues to be inspired but is trapped distal to the obstruction.
Q3) Laryngotracheobronchitis is typically manifested by:
A)drooling and difficulty swallowing
B)hoarse voice and barking cough
C)sore and scratchy throat with fever
D)wheezing and dyspnea
Q4) Whenever PO levels decrease below normal,then PCO levels:
A)increase
B)decrease also
C)may or may not change
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
A)Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance.
B)Erosions in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria.
C)Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop.
D)Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic.
Q2) In peptic ulcer disease,which of the following does NOT decrease the resistance of the mucosal barrier?
A)prolonged vasoconstriction
B)excessive glucocorticoid intake
C)proteases and cytotoxins from H.pylori
D)decreased vagal stimulation
Q3) Which of the following is/are (a)manifestation(s)of hemolytic jaundice?
A)increased unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
B)increased bleeding tendencies
C)pale stool and dark urine
D)elevated liver enzymes in the blood
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first indicator in the arterial blood gases of acidosis caused by kidney disease?
A)increased carbonic acid
B)increased bicarbonate ion
C)pH less than 7.35
D)decreased bicarbonate ion
Q2) What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia?
A)decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
B)insufficient calcium in the diet
C)excessive excretion of calcium ions in the urine
D)a deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia
Q3) Agenesis is often not diagnosed because:
A)the kidney is displaced from its normal position
B)it is a genetic defect and asymptomatic until mid-life
C)the two functioning kidneys are fused together
D)one kidney provides more than adequate function
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23
Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual result of damage to the right occipital lobe?
A)left eye is blind
B)loss of left visual field
C)right eye is blind
D)visual loss in the medial half of each eye
Q2) In the weeks following CVA,why might some neurologic function return?
1)presence of collateral circulation
2)immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion
3)reduced inflammation in the area
4)development of alternative neuronal pathways
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)1,3
D)2,3,4
E)1,2,3,4
Q3) What does a vegetative state refer to?
A)depression of the RAS and inability to initiate action
B)loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
C)continuing intellectual function but inability to communicate or move
D)disorientation and confusion with decreased responsiveness
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
A)the localization of the seizure activity
B)the uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres
C)seizures that persist for several hours
D)loss of consciousness and all motor function
Q2) Which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia?
A)disorganized thought processes,short attention span,delusions
B)lack of energy and motivation,poor concentration,insomnia
C)hyperventilation,tachycardia,intense anxiety
D)memory loss,mood swings,hostile behavior
Q3) Which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years?
A)vitamin B
B)folic acid
C)vitamins A and D
D)zinc and magnesium
Q4) The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of vision can occur when:
A)excessive intraocular pressure develops
B)the cornea is scarred
C)either of the preceding occurs
Q2) What is the basic pathologic change with macular degeneration?
A)increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye
B)movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid
C)degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
D)damage to the optic nerve and meninges
Q3) What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
A)movement of the eyeball
B)movement of the eyelid
C)size of the pupil
D)shape of the lens
Q4) Trachoma is indicated by the presence of:
A)purulent exudate and red sclerae
B)corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids
C)diplopia and cloudy lens
D)ptosis and fixed dilation of the pupil
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
A)Type I diabetics
B)Type II diabetics
C)patients with a poor stress response
D)those with a regular exercise and meal plan
Q2) Severe impairment of all aspects of growth and development,including difficulty feeding,mental retardation,and stunted skeletal growth are associated with:
A)myxedema
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)diabetes insipidus
D)cretinism
E)Graves' disease
Q3) Which of the following is a major function of the hormone norepinephrine?
A)inhibition of an excessive stress response
B)visceral and cutaneous vasoconstriction
C)increased force of heart contraction
D)vasodilation in skeletal muscle
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
A)additional ischemia in the broken bone
B)nonunion or malunion of the fracture
C)pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
D)abscess and infection at a distant site
Q2) What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
A)relief with moderate activity
B)quite severe in the early stages
C)aggravated by general muscle aching
D)increased with weight-bearing and activity
Q3) How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
A)enzymatic destruction by the pannus
B)inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
C)fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
D)blood supply to the cartilage is lost
Q4) When a fracture is healing,the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
A)can bear weight
B)serves as a splint across the fracture site
C)is the tissue to gradually be remodeled
D)is made up of new bone
28
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis?
A)small brown pruritic lines
B)painful and pruritic fissures
C)erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
D)firm,red,painful nodule or pustule
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding acute necrotizing fasciitis is TRUE?
A)Infection is localized in a small area of the epidermis.
B)It is usually caused by S.aureus.
C)Spontaneous recovery usually occurs in 48 hours.
D)Infection rapidly causes extensive tissue necrosis and toxic shock.
Q3) Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?
A)They predispose to malignant melanoma.
B)They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
C)They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons.
D)They are malignant and invasive.
Q4) Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections?
A)fungus
B)virus
C)gram-negative bacterium
D)mite
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A)varicocele
B)hypospadias
C)spermatocele
D)hydrocele
Q2) Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery?
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)herpes simplex
D)syphilis
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
A)development of malignancy
B)irregular menstrual cycles
C)interference with ovulation
D)abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
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