Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of adult patients experiencing acute and chronic illnesses across various body systems. The course integrates knowledge of anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, and pathology to enable students to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate individualized patient care.
Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, patient safety, use of technology, and interdisciplinary collaboration to promote optimal health outcomes. Through clinical experiences, case studies, and simulation labs, students develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and hands-on skills necessary for effective nursing care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1183 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23366
Sample Questions
Q1) The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as
A) latent.
B) subclinical.
C) prodromal.
D) convalescence.
Answer: B
Q2) A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: A
Q3) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23367
Sample Questions
Q1) The effect of stress on the immune system A) is unknown.
B) has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies.
C) most often involves enhancement of the immune system. D) may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
Answer: D
Q2) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
Q3) Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by A) norepinephrine.
B) cortisol.
C) glucagon.
D) ACTH.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23368
Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of cellular metabolism in which energy is released during breakdown of nutrient sources is ________.
Answer: CATABOLISM
Catabolism involves energy release via breakdown of nutrient sources such as glucose to provide ATP to the cell.In contrast, anabolism refers to energy-using processes that result in complex molecules such as fats.
Q2) Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form A) CO and H O.
B) 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate.
C) 30 ATP.
D) oxygen.
Answer: B
Q3) During conditions of prolonged insufficient oxygen availability (e.g., respiratory or cardiovascular disease)anaerobic glycolysis accumulated pyruvate can lead to _____ acidosis.
Answer: lactic
Pyruvate is converted to lactate and released into the blood stream, resulting in lactic acidosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23369
Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in organ size and function due to increased workload is termed
A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia
D) inflammation.
Q2) Bacteria cause injury to cells by
A) producing exotoxins.
B) producing endotoxins.
C) producing destructive enzymes.
D) reproducing inside of host cells altering cellular function.
E) evoking an immune reaction.
Q3) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23370
Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
Q2) Approximately what percentage of the human DNA chromosomes code for proteins?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 80%
Q3) Protein synthesis involves
A) direction from mRNA.
B) amino acid movement into the nucleus.
C) nucleotide triplets.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) removal of introns from the DNA template.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23371
Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Q2) The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies.The correct assessment of the risk is
A) each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier.
B) each child has a 25% chance of being affected.
C) since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected.
D) one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies.
Q3) Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes
A) high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation.
D) mental retardation is inevitable.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23372
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
Q2) Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as A) lymphoma.
B) sarcomas.
C) carcinomas.
D) adenomas.
Q3) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
Q4) Side effects of chemotherapy include A) anemia.
B) nausea.
C) leukocytosis.
D) bleeding.
E) infections.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23373
Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection, because it maintains A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
Q2) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q3) A characteristic of some bacteria is
A) intracellular parasite.
B) composed of RNA or DNA.
C) contains cell wall endotoxin.
D) cannot replicate extracellularly.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23374
Sample Questions
Q1) The "classical pathway" for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by A) activation of C3.
B) inflammation.
C) first recognition of an antigen.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
Q2) Functions of antibodies include
A) antigen agglutination.
B) antigen precipitation.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.
E) complement activation.
Q3) The primary function of kinins is
A) phagocytosis of antigens.
B) production of antibodies.
C) to limit immune reactions.
D) vasodilation to enhance inflammation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23375
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they A) run high fevers.
B) have unusually high WBC counts.
C) develop brain infections.
D) develop recurrent infections.
Q2) Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by A) donor antigens.
B) recipient antibodies.
C) donor T cells.
D) recipient T cells.
Q3) The effects of histamine release include A) vasoconstriction.
B) bronchodilation.
C) increased vascular permeability.
D) decreased gut permeability.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23376
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR)of leukemia?
A) CR is the absence of leukemic cells in the blood.
B) CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.
C) CR is absence of leukemic cells regardless of CBC values.
D) CR is less than 5% leukemic cells in the blood.
Q2) The patient is a 12-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).Manifestations of the patient's leukemia prior to treatment may include A) anemia.
B) leukocytosis.
C) leukopenia.
D) thrombocytopenia.
E) anuria.
Q3) The major cause of death from leukemic disease is A) infection.
B) malnutrition.
C) hypovolemic shock.
D) kidney failure.
Q4) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the
Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23377
Sample Questions
Q1) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for ____ to ____ seconds.
Q2) An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce, primarily because
A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves to the vaccine.
Q3) In which type of cells is the CD4 found?
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
Q4) Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?
A) One who has a CD4 count of 300/µl
B) One who has neuropathy
C) One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) One who has genital herpes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23378
Sample Questions
Q1) The arterial oxygen content (CaO )for a patient with PaO 100 mm Hg, SaO 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dl is _____ ml oxygen/dl.
A) 19.4
B) 1909.8
C) 210
D) 21.05
Q2) A newborn patient is diagnosed with hemolytic disease.The nurse may expect to find what signs and symptoms?
A) Petechial hemorrhages
B) Hepatomegaly
C) Splenomegaly
D) Kernicterus
E) Erythema
Q3) What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?
A) Leukocytosis
B) Thrombocythemia
C) Neutrophilia
D) Pancytopenia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23379
Sample Questions
Q1) A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is
A) acetaminophen.
B) tobacco.
C) caffeine.
D) aspirin.
Q2) A patient presents to the physician's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin.The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.
A) 6 months and 2
B) 4 and 7
C) 15 and 18
D) 25 and 45
Q3) A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria.The newborn most likely experiencing
A) vitamin K deficiency bleeding.
B) acquired vitamin K deficiency.
C) von Willebrand disease.
D) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
Page 16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23380
Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include A) edema.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction.
D) distal hyperemia.
Q2) When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling.This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called A) autoregulation.
B) edema.
C) hyperemia.
D) hypoxia.
Q3) The primary functions of the circulatory system are
A) transport oxygen.
B) transport nutrients.
C) remove metabolic waste.
D) reabsorb leaking fluid.
E) return leukocytes to the circulation.
Q4) The smallest vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic vessels are commonly referred to as the ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23381
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q2) Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) Magnesium
Q3) Hypertension is closely linked to
A) obstructive sleep apnea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) de Quervain syndrome.
D) spinal stenosis.
Q4) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q5) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q6) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23382
Sample Questions
Q1) One role of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction is
A) providing energy to pump calcium into the cell.
B) inducing a conformational change in tropomyosin.
C) altering myosin affinity for actin-binding sites.
D) releasing sequestered calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) The v wave of an atrial pressure tracing corresponds to
A) atrial filling.
B) ventricular systole.
C) atrial systole.
D) mitral valve closure.
Q3) While caring for a geriatric patient, the changes in the heart that may be expected include
A) increased oxygen consumption.
B) increased coronary artery blood flow.
C) decreased response to an elevated heart rate.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q4) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q5) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Q6) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23383
Sample Questions
Q1) A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of A) aortic regurgitation.
B) aortic stenosis.
C) mitral regurgitation.
D) mitral stenosis.
Q2) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpes virus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q3) Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present as A) unstable angina.
B) MI.
C) sudden cardiac arrest.
D) bleeding.
E) hypovolemia.
Q4) A reduction in _________ production after birth contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in patent ductus arteriosus.
Q5) The cause of Prinzmetal angina is ________.
Q6) Atherosclerotic plaque formation is due to injury to the ____________.
Page 20
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23384
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Q2) Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach)is characterized by A) absent P waves.
B) lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
C) constant PR interval and dropped QRS complexes.
D) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes.
Q3) Cor pulmonale refers to
A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
Q4) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
Q5) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Page 21
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Shock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23385
Sample Questions
Q1) The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by A) tachycardia.
B) hypertension.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) cardiac failure.
Q2) In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 ml of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?
A) Class I, Initial Stage
B) Class II, Compensated Stage
C) Class III, Progressive Stage
D) Class IV, Refractory Stage
Q3) Positive inotropic drugs work by increasing A) contractility.
B) cardiac output.
C) tissue perfusion.
D) myocardial oxygen demand.
E) vascular resistance.
Q4) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is ____________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23386
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about lung compliance?
A) Represents lung expandability
B) Decreases in the elderly
C) Can be decreased by obesity, abdominal distention, pregnancy
D) Is decreased in emphysema
E) Is affected by body position
Q2) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Q3) Most of the carbon dioxide in blood is transported
A) as bicarbonate.
B) on the hemoglobin molecule.
C) as carbonic acid.
D) dissolved in plasma.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23387
Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have A) a productive cough.
B) normal lung sounds.
C) a barrel chest.
D) substantial weight loss.
Q2) Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is due to A) thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
B) loss of alveolar elastin.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) hyperplasia and deformation of bronchial cartilage.
Q3) Allergic (extrinsic)asthma is associated with A) hyporesponsiveness of airways.
B) unknown precipitating factors.
C) IgE-mediated airway inflammation.
D) irreversible airway obstruction.
Q4) The hyper-secretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of A) recurrent infection.
B) destruction of alveolar septa.
C) reduced inflammation.
D) barrel chest.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23388
Sample Questions
Q1) A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is
A) high fever.
B) alveolar infiltrates on a chest x-ray.
C) increased white blood cell count.
D) dry cough.
Q2) Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?
A) Productive cough
B) Low-grade fever
C) Night sweats
D) Cyanosis
Q3) Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a A) fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.
B) viral pneumonia found in transplant recipients.
C) non-infectious inflammation in the lung.
D) pneumonia secondary to bladder infection.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23389
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient
A) takes very large doses of vitamin D to supplement during chemotherapy for breast cancer.
B) has fatty stools from taking an OTC weight loss product that decreases absorption of fat.
C) has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics.
D) experiences anorexia and chronic oliguric renal failure.
Q2) Hypernatremia may be caused by
A) decreased aldosterone secretion.
B) decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion.
C) compulsive water drinking.
D) excessive dietary potassium.
Q3) Hyperaldosteronism causes
A) ECV deficit and hyperkalemia.
B) ECV excess and hypokalemia.
C) hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.
D) excessive water reabsorption without affecting sodium concentration.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23390
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3 year old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis.What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?
A) Slow, shallow breathing, belligerence, hyperexcitability
B) Slow, shallow breathing, numbness and tingling around his mouth
C) Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain
D) Rapid, deep breathing, tremors, elevated blood pressure
Q2) The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is
A) hemoglobin.
B) albumin.
C) bicarbonate.
D) phosphate.
Q3) Emesis causes
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Renal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23391
Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that increase the glomerular filtration rate include
A) fluid volume excess.
B) increased hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
C) high oncotic pressure in glomerular capillary blood.
D) obstruction in the renal tubules.
Q2) The underlying mechanism which directly results in glycosuria is
A) filtration of glucose from the glomerulus.
B) exceeding the threshold for glucose reabsorption.
C) secretion of glucose into the distal tubule.
D) the mechanism is unknown.
Q3) The primary function of the vasa recta is to
A) secrete renin.
B) reabsorb NaCl.
C) reabsorb interstitial fluid.
D) secrete urea.
Q4) Which finding on urinalysis should prompt further evaluation?
A) pH 4.5
B) Red blood cells 2 per high-power field
C) Specific gravity of 1.015
D) White blood cells 20 per high-power field
Page 28
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23392
Sample Questions
Q1) The physiology that explains the intermittent nature of pain caused by a kidney stone is that
A) ureters use peristalsis and gravity to move urine.
B) ureters insert into the bladder at an angle.
C) in men, the prostate gland surrounds the urethra.
D) in men, the urethra is longer than in women.
Q2) The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
A) pneumonia.
B) throat infection.
C) endocarditis.
D) urinary tract infection.
Q3) The urea-splitting bacteria (Proteus, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas)contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones.
A) struvite
B) calcium oxalate
C) uric acid
D) cystine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23393
Sample Questions
Q1) Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing A) hydronephrosis.
B) acute tubular necrosis.
C) nephrosis.
D) renal inflammation.
Q2) Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by A) chronic loss of blood in the urine.
B) poor appetite, with lack of iron intake.
C) decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
D) increased secretion of aldosterone.
Q3) The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in the United States is
A) hypotension.
B) hypovolemia.
C) renal artery stenosis.
D) sepsis.
Q4) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
Q5) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23394
Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of vesicoureteral reflux in children include
A) possibly being genetic in nature.
B) often leading to recurrent urinary tract infections.
C) possibly occurring secondary to bladder outlet obstruction.
D) possibly resulting in hypertension.
E) usually requiring surgical intervention.
Q2) The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is A) Klebsiella.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) Candida albicans.
Q3) Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause
A) bladder contraction.
B) bladder relaxation.
C) sphincter contraction.
D) urine reflux.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23395
Sample Questions
Q1) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q2) Erectile function is most likely to be impaired if spinal cord injury occurs at A) L1-L2.
B) L2-L3.
C) S1-S2.
D) S2-S4.
Q3) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q4) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23396
Sample Questions
Q1) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q2) Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q3) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
Q4) Sexual impotence is rarely due to A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23397
Sample Questions
Q1) During the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium proliferates under the influence of A) estrogen.
B) testosterone.
C) progesterone.
D) hCG.
Q2) Before the onset of menstruation, water retention and breast swelling is thought to be due to high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q3) Pregnancy is associated with
A) decreased oxygen consumption and ventilation.
B) decreased basal metabolic rate.
C) decreased absorption of sodium and water.
D) increased cardiac output and blood volume.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23398
Sample Questions
Q1) The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Q2) Endometriosis is a condition in which
A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
Q3) A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed.The procedure performed was a
A) radical mastectomy.
B) modified radical mastectomy.
C) mastectomy.
D) lumpectomy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23399
Sample Questions
Q1) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by
A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q2) The first choice of treatment for the management of syphilis is
A) penicillin G.
B) doxycycline.
C) antiviral agents.
D) antimicrobial agents.
Q3) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
Q4) Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A) Human papillomavirus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Granuloma inguinale
D) Chancroid
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23400
Sample Questions
Q1) Older individuals may experience which change in the mouth?
A) Increase in salivation
B) Increase in taste for salt
C) Increase in the number of papillae
D) Increased exposure of dentin
Q2) Failure of normal partitioning between the foregut and midgut can lead to a congenital condition known as
A) tracheoesophageal fistula.
B) esophageal atresia.
C) intestinal atresia.
D) anal agenesis.
Q3) Pancreatic secretions are high in
A) hydrochloric acid.
B) bicarbonate ions.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) secretin.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23401
Sample Questions
Q1) Crohn disease is associated with what complications?
A) Perianal fissures
B) Fistulae
C) Green stool
D) Abscesses
E) Rectal pain
Q2) Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.
A) appendectomy
B) intestinal biopsy
C) colonoscopy
D) gastric bypass
Q3) What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?
A) Negative stool leukocytes
B) Intermittent constipation
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Bloody stools
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23402
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic pancreatitis may lead to A) diabetes mellitus.
B) Crohn disease.
C) gallstones.
D) celiac sprue.
Q2) Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for A) respiratory depression.
B) narcotic dependency.
C) sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
D) allergic reaction.
Q3) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 39
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23403
Sample Questions
Q1) Confusion, subtle behavioral changes, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q2) A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia.The expected diagnosis is A) ascites.
B) cerebral edema.
C) hepatic encephalopathy.
D) gastroesophageal varices.
Q3) Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST)is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT)is characteristic of A) viral hepatitis.
B) alcohol-induced injury.
C) cirrhosis.
D) acetaminophen toxicity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23404
Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that lipid-soluble hormones are
A) transported in a free state in the bloodstream.
B) bound to receptors on the plasma membranes of target cells.
C) diffused through cell membranes to activate intracellular receptors.
D) activated by second-messenger cascades within the target cell.
Q2) The tightness of the hormone-receptor bond is known as A) specificity.
B) affinity.
C) half-life.
D) set point.
Q3) Up-regulation of target cell receptors results in
A) decreased target cell sensitivity to hormone.
B) reduced production of hormone.
C) increased target cell responsiveness to hormone.
D) an increased hormone half-life.
Q4) Which hormone is highly bound to carrier proteins in the bloodstream?
A) Thyroid hormones
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Parathyroid hormone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23405
Sample Questions
Q1) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital syndrome)results from A) cortisol excess.
B) testosterone-secreting tumor.
C) exogenous androgens.
D) blocked cortisol production.
Q2) Surgical removal of a gland may result in A) hypersecretion.
B) hyposecretion.
C) hyporesponsiveness.
D) tissue resistance.
Q3) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)increases
A) sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney.
B) potassium secretion in the distal tubule of the kidney.
C) water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.
D) urinary output.
Q4) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23406
Sample Questions
Q1) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 1 diabetes is A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) lack of insulin receptors.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
Q2) ________ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.
A) Aging
B) Obesity
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q3) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q4) Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from A) decreased myoinositol transport.
B) elevated HbA c.
C) deficient neuronal insulin receptors.
D) neuronal demyelination.
Page 43
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23407
Sample Questions
Q1) Malnutrition affecting the respiratory system can lead to A) increased respiratory function.
B) increased surfactant release.
C) increased vital capacity.
D) respiratory failure.
Q2) The metabolic response to fever is A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
Q4) The nutritional effects of cancer can be severe and result in A) malnutrition.
B) anorexia.
C) cachexia.
D) catabolism.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23408
Sample Questions
Q1) Neurotransmitter binding to neuronal receptors occurs primarily at the dendrite and A) cell body.
B) nucleus.
C) axon hillock.
D) axon terminal.
Q2) The language center in most individuals is located in the A) frontal lobe.
B) left hemisphere.
C) right hemisphere
D) limbic area.
Q3) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by
A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
45
Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23409
Sample Questions
Q1) Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion.This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to A) cerebral vasospasm.
B) hypotension.
C) excessive volume loss.
D) increased intracranial pressure.
Q2) A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring.
C) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
D) central perfusion pressure (CPP).
Q3) Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex)are due primarily to A) parasympathetic nervous system activation.
B) sympathetic nervous system activation.
C) autoregulation of body systems.
D) loss of brainstem reflexes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23410
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?
A) The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.
B) MS is more common in men than women.
C) There is a higher incidence of MS in military veterans.
D) There is a higher rate of MS in African-Americans.
Q2) Which are common causes of acquired parkinsonism?
A) Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons
B) History of infection
C) History of intoxication
D) History of trauma
E) Seizure disorder
Q3) Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by
A) hypertension and bradycardia.
B) hypotension and shock.
C) pallor and vasoconstriction above the level of injury.
D) extreme pain below the level of injury.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23411
Sample Questions
Q1) Which structures make up the middle ear?
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
Q2) _________ is one of the most common complications of diabetes.
A) Cataract
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Macular degeneration
D) Glaucoma
Q3) A vestibular disorder that is manifested by the sensation of motion without actual motion is referred to as
A) equilibrium.
B) nystagmus.
C) vertigo.
D) effusion.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48
Chapter 47: Pain
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23412
Sample Questions
Q1) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
Q2) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
Q3) One of the most common causes of acute pain is A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Q4) Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?
A) Narcotic analgesics
B) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and aspirin
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Nonnarcotic analgesics
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23413
Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder?
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
Q2) It is true that the "negative" symptoms of schizophrenia
A) are more easily managed than the positive symptoms.
B) are thought to be mediated by D1 receptors in the brain.
C) include rambling speech and delusional thoughts.
D) are due to a deficiency of brain dopamine.
Q3) The usual age of onset for schizophrenia in men is
A) before puberty.
B) 15 to 25 years.
C) 40 to 65 years.
D) after 65 years.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23414
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common childhood psychiatric disorder is
A) bipolar disorder.
B) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) psychosis.
Q2) Persistent, intrusive, uncontrollable thoughts that an individual recognizes as a product of his or her own mind are called
A) compulsions.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) hallucinations.
Q3) Which disorders are classified as anxiety-related?
A) Panic
B) Generalized anxiety
C) Obsessive-compulsive
D) Borderline personality
E) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23415
Sample Questions
Q1) Troponin is a muscle protein that A) binds the myosin protein to form cross-bridges.
B) forms the noncontractile Z lines.
C) binds calcium and regulates tropomyosin.
D) hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for contraction.
Q2) It is true that synovial fluid
A) is found in spinal disks.
B) provides protection.
C) is reduced in volume with injury.
D) becomes thinner with aging.
Q3) When oxygen for muscle activity from the respiratory vascular systems is insufficient for muscle activity, the body breaks down glucose, which results in A) hypoglycemia.
B) lactic acid buildup in muscle.
C) a large energy source.
D) exhaustion.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23416
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of osteomyelitis is A) hematogenous.
B) contiguous focus.
C) Brodie abscess.
D) direct invasion.
Q2) Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called A) epicondylitis.
B) arthritis.
C) tendinitis.
D) bursitis.
Q3) What type of fracture generally occurs in children?
A) Greenstick
B) Stress
C) Nightstick
D) Colles
Q4) The most common site affected in Paget's disease is the A) lower spine.
B) skull.
C) pelvis.
D) joints.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 53
Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23417
Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions, a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)should
A) avoid sun exposure.
B) avoid excessive use of moisturizers.
C) refrain from washing the affected areas.
D) apply warm, wet compresses daily.
Q2) The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are
A) stress fractures of the epiphysis, inflammation of the diaphysis, and accumulation of excessive synovial fluid.
B) autoimmune damage to the synovium, destruction of articular cartilage by pannus, and thickening of synovial fluid.
C) degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.
D) thinning of the joint capsule, resorption of bone, excessive formation of new bone, and formation of bone spurs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
54
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23418
Sample Questions
Q1) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chicken pox.
D) rubella.
Q2) Psoriasis is characterized by A) silvery scale on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) thickened, discolored nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
Q3) The difference between chickenpox and measles is that chickenpox
A) is caused by a virus, whereas measles is caused by a bacterium.
B) causes a widespread rash, whereas measles causes a macular rash.
C) is a childhood infection, but measles can evolve into shingles in adults.
D) causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash.
Q4) Itchy linear burrows on the hands and wrists are associated with A) tick bites.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) scabies.
D) contact dermatitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23419
Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
Q2) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is
A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
Q3) The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to A) limit the glucose available to infectious organisms.
B) create a positive nitrogen balance.
C) protect the kidney from excessive protein intake.
D) avoid hyperlipidemia.
Q4) It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets
A) promotes comfort.
B) facilitates healing.
C) prevents fluid loss.
D) promotes hypothermia.
Page 56
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.