Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with the foundational knowledge and clinical competencies needed to care for adult patients experiencing a broad range of acute and chronic medical conditions. Emphasizing evidence-based practice, the course covers key concepts such as patient assessment, pathophysiology, pharmacology, perioperative care, fluid and electrolyte management, pain management, and infection prevention. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and clinical experiences, students learn to develop critical thinking, prioritize patient care, and collaborate effectively within interdisciplinary teams to deliver holistic and safe nursing care across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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Q1) Graduates of the first school for training the practical nurse were referred to as ___________ nurses.
Answer: attendant
The first school for training the practical nurse started in Brooklyn, New York in 1892 and was conducted under the auspices of the Young Women's Christian Association (YWCA). The Ballard School, as it was known, was approximately 3 months in duration and trained its students to care for the chronically ill, invalids, children, and the elderly. The main emphasis was on home care and included cooking, nutrition, basic science, and basic procedures. Graduates of this program were referred to as attendant nurses.
Q2) What is the purpose of licensing laws for LPN/LVNs?
A) To limit the number of LPN/LVNs.
B) Prevention of malpractice
C) Protection of the public from unqualified people
D) To increase revenue for the state board of nursing
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician instructs the nurse to bladder train a patient. The nurse clamps the patient's indwelling urinary catheter but forgets to unclamp it. The patient develops a urinary tract infection. What do the nurse's actions exemplify?
A) Malpractice
B) Battery
C) Assault
D) Neglect of duty
Answer: A
Q2) What role is the nurse who diligently works for the protection of patients' interests playing?
A) Caregiver
B) Health care administrator
C) Advocate
D) Health care evaluator
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Q1) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
Q2) When documenting an incident in the nurse's notes, what should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Description of injury, including diagrams of injury placement
B) Date, time, and location of incident
C) Name of physician and family members notified
D) Chronologic order of events of the incident
E) Confirmation that an incident report was initiated
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q3) Why is documentation especially significant in managed care?
A) The hospital needs to show that employees care for patients.
B) Institutions are reimbursed only for patient care that is documented.
C) Patients might bring lawsuits if care was not given.
D) Documents may become part of a lawsuit.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Q1) A grieving young widow cries out, "Why was my husband killed? Why wasn't it me?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) Stating "You need to be strong for your children."
B) Silently placing her hand on the widow's arm.
C) Asking if there is anyone the widow needs to have notified.
D) Stating "You are feeling overwhelmed about your husband's death."
Q2) A nurse must violate the personal space of a patient to perform an invasive procedure. How can the nurse reduce the discomfort of the patient?
A) By approaching the interaction in a professional manner
B) By distracting the patient with jokes and humor
C) By asking another nurse to be present at the bedside
D) By assuring the patient that all people dislike invasion of personal space
Q3) What is one of the main characteristics of therapeutic communication?
A) It allows the patient a passive role.
B) It uses only verbal communication.
C) It involves the patient as a person.
D) It is directive.
Q4) When a nurse lectures to a large group, the method of communication is usually in the form of ____________ communication.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Q1) A patient with a urinary tract infection is assessed using a clinical pathway. When a projected outcome is not met by a predetermined date, it is determined that what has occurred?
A) Omission
B) Variance
C) Failure
D) Error
Q2) During an admission assessment, the nurse collects objective and subjective data. What is an example of objective data?
A) The patient complains of feeling depressed.
B) The patient states, "I hear voices in my head."
C) The patient complains of auditory hallucinations.
D) The patient is pacing back and forth while chanting.
Q3) What is classified as information provided by the family when a patient is unable to provide data during assessment?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Unreliable
D) Biased
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Q1) Culture varies from patient to patient. Why is it important that the nurse understand and accept each person as an individual?
A) To develop a plan of care
B) To provide holistic care
C) To identify differences
D) To support each patient
Q2) What basic philosophy in the United States is relevant to health care?
A) Folk remedies
B) Biomedical therapy
C) Holistic therapy
D) Spiritual intervention
Q3) What is the term for when members of a particular ethnic group believe that their beliefs and practices are the best?
A) Prejudice
B) Separatism
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Bias
Q4) The nurse should not maintain eye contact with a Korean patient because many Asians believe prolonged eye contact is _____________.
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) The nurse is providing instruction to an anxious mother of a child with Rocky Mountain spotted fever. When discussing this diagnosis what information will the nurse relay about this disease?
A) It is extremely contagious among humans.
B) It is contracted from handling unvaccinated animals.
C) It is a hemolytic B Streptococcus infection spread by droplet transmission.
D) It is a serious disease contracted from the bite of a tick.
Q2) What contribution did Joseph Lister introduce to medical practice?
A) Isolation of infected patients
B) Iodine and alcohol use as disinfectants
C) The autoclave
D) Aseptic technique
Q3) What is a method used to kill all microorganisms, including spores?
A) Disinfecting
B) Using an antiseptic
C) Using chlorine bleach
D) Sterilizing
Q4) The nurse reminds a group of nursing students that the type of asepsis that destroys all microorganisms and their spores is _______ asepsis.
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Q1) The nurse is performing passive range-of-motion exercises on a patient following a traumatic injury. What is the number of times the nurse should move each joint when performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Q2) The 125-pound nurse assesses the weight of a patient. What weight is the heaviest the nurse may safely lift by herself?
A) 158.75 lb
B) 168.75 lb
C) 178.75 lb
D) 188.75 lb
Q3) What is the site of the most common strain injury acquired by the nurse when working?
A) Trapezius muscle group
B) Thoracic muscle group
C) Lumbar muscle group
D) Thigh muscle group
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Q1) The nursing assessment of a pressure ulcer includes size, depth, pain, odor, and color of tissue. What does this evaluate?
A) Treatment needed
B) Effectiveness of implementation
C) Whether improvement is occurring
D) Need for additional interventions
Q2) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
Q3) The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient with a risk for skin impairment. How often will the nurse plan to change the position of this patient?
A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every 60 minutes
C) Every 120 minutes
D) Every 180 minutes
Q4) Because of its effect on epithelization, the LPN/LVN should confirm the order to use ____________ or _____________ on a stage III pressure ulcer.
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11
Chapter 10: Safety
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Q1) What skills should health care workers frequently attend in-services about to ensure that staff has competent skills and risk for falls can be decreased?
A) Bathing
B) Feeding
C) Transferring
D) Ambulating
Q2) What important safety precaution should the home health nurse teach parents in order to prevent burns to small children?
A) Never leave them unattended
B) Turn pot handles on stoves away from reach
C) Turn hot water on first when filling the bathtub
D) Keep side rails up on the crib
Q3) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy. The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
Q4) The nurse conducting a seminar on bioterrorism reviews several types of agents that may be used as weapons. An agent that does not seriously damage or kill the target population but only impairs it is classified as _____________.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Q1) What does the nurse use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to best assess?
A) Carotid sounds
B) Lung sounds
C) Vascular sounds
D) Low-pitched sounds
Q2) What part of the body maintains a balance between heat production and heat loss, regulating body temperature?
A) Thymus
B) Thyroid
C) Hypothalamus
D) Adrenal glands
Q3) The nurse assesses respirations of a patient demonstrating pursed-lip breathing, flared nostrils, and retractions. How will the nurse describe these respirations?
A) Tachypnea
B) Stertorous
C) Dyspnea
D) Cheyne-Stokes
Q4) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Q1) A patient was admitted with a complaint of abdominal pain. Later, the nurse observed the patient demonstrating dyspnea. What type of assessment does this change in condition require?
A) Individualized
B) Focused
C) Specialized
D) Systematic
Q2) The nurse is discussing the origin of diabetes with a diabetic patient. What will the nurse discuss as the most appropriate explanation for the cause of this disease?
A) Pituitary
B) Adrenals
C) Pancreas
D) Thyroid
Q3) A creamy, viscous, pale yellow or yellow-green fluid exudate that is the result of fluid remains of liquefied necrosis of tissues is known as ___________ ___________.
Q4) Redness or inflammation of the skin or mucous membranes that is the result of dilation and congestion of superficial capillaries is known as _________________.
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14
Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Q1) When a patient demands to be discharged without a physician's order and is leaving the unit with his belongings, what should the nurse ask the patient to sign?
A) A form exercising the patient's rights
B) A discharge against medical advice form
C) An informed consent
D) An advanced directive
Q2) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
Q3) How can the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity to a Haitian American patient?
A) By providing a well-lit room 24 hours a day
B) By writing out all instructions given to the patient
C) By allowing the patient to keep leaves in her room
D) By asking the physician to provide all directions to the patient
Q4) Because of the stress caused by hospitalization, the nurse assesses a newly admitted older adult patient for ________________.
Q5) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Q1) The nurses employed at a wound therapy clinic are preparing an educational in-service about the vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) device for hospital nurses. What accurate information will be included in this in-service? (Select all that apply.)
A) Positive pressure is applied by this device
B) Healing is facilitated by decrease in drainage
C) Promotes formulation of granulation tissue
D) Reduces local and peripheral edema
E) Drops bacterial level in wound
Q2) Hemostasis begins as soon as the injury occurs and a clot begins to form. What is the substance in the clot that holds the wound together?
A) Fibrin
B) Thrombin
C) Protime
D) Calcium
Q3) What is the advantage of an occlusive dressing?
A) Allows air to the incision
B) Keeps the incision moist
C) Delays epithelialization
D) Does not have to be changed
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Q1) The nurse has an order to perform occult blood testing on a patient's emesis. What color will the sample turn to indicate that the test is positive for occult blood?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow
Q2) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for a brain scan?
A) Allow the patient to wear a wig during the scan
B) Allow the patient to wear a partial denture plate during the scan
C) Inform the patient that a clicking noise will be heard during the scan
D) Keep the patient NPO for 12 hours before scan if contrast dye is used
Q3) A patient is required to provide a sample of body excretions per physician order. What action can the nurse take when providing proper instructions to lessen the patient's embarrassment?
A) Instruct patient to provide the specimen behind a screen.
B) Instruct patient to obtain his or her own specimen.
C) Instruct patient to return later when he or she is more comfortable.
D) Instruct patient to use a CNA for assistance to obtain the specimen.
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17
Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Q1) A patient with multiple serious injuries sustained in a motorcycle accident is lying beside his wrecked motorcycle unconscious and bleeding when the rescuer arrives at the scene. What will be the rescuer's priority action?
A) Assessing blood loss
B) Assessing respiratory status
C) Obtaining vital signs
D) Organizing laypeople at the scene
Q2) CPR has been initiated on an adult patient. How will the nurse confirm the effectiveness of CPR?
A) Assessing an EKG pattern with each compression
B) Assessing a palpable carotid pulse during each compression
C) Assuring a compression depth of \(1 \frac { 1 } { 2 }\) to 2 inches
D) Observing pupils that change from pinpoint to dilated
Q3) If a spinal injury is suspected, before the rescuer starts CPR, the trachea should be opened with a _______ _______ maneuver.
Q4) When treating an infant choking on a foreign body, the nurse should use a combination of ______ _________ and chest thrusts.
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) What is true regarding manufacturers of herbal remedy products?
A) They do extensive field testing on the products.
B) They must show dosage equivalents.
C) They must adhere to standards of strength.
D) They do not have to demonstrate their safety.
Q2) A patient admitted with lower back pain is not sure that the prescribed treatment is helping and asks what alternative therapies might help. What should the nurse suggest?
A) Herbal therapy
B) Chiropractic therapy
C) Acupressure
D) Reflexology
Q3) Confusion and misinformation relative to herbal medicine can make patients reluctant to disclose their herbal use to health care providers. What should be the nurse's approach?
A) Instructive
B) Nonjudgmental
C) Inquisitive
D) Determined
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) The nurse is trying to reassure a patient who is concerned about receiving addictive drugs. What percentage of patients become addicted to analgesics?
A) Less than 0.1%
B) Less than 1%
C) Less than 5%
D) Less than 6%
Q2) When should a nurse administer prescribed analgesic medication when treating a postoperative patient?
A) Before activity
B) Only when requested by the physician
C) Only when requested by the family
D) Only when requested by the patient
Q3) Why should a nurse promptly administer a prescribed analgesic after a pain assessment?
A) The physician has ordered it
B) It is an efficient use of time
C) Unrelieved pain can cause setbacks
D) It meets the goals of the nursing care plan
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Q1) The body uses 22 common amino acids, but 9 of them must be obtained from protein in the diet. What are these proteins considered?
A) Essential
B) Basic
C) Fundamental
D) Primary
Q2) What eating disorder is characterized by body image distortion, excessive exercise, and vicarious enjoyment of food?
A) Self-fasting
B) Anorexia nervosa
C) Bulimia nervosa
D) Binge eating
Q3) The nurse is educating a patient on a vegan diet. What supplement will the nurse encourage this patient to take to avoid a deficiency?
A) B6
B) B12
C) K
D) D
Q4) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Q1) Electrolytes are not measured by weight; their chemical activity is expressed in milliequivalents. What does 1 milliequivalent of potassium have the same combining power as?
A) 1 mEq of nitrogen
B) 1 mEq of oxygen
C) 1 mEq of hydrogen
D) 1 mEq of magnesium
Q2) What is the nurse closely assessing for in a patient with hypokalemia?
A) Systemic edema
B) Cardiac complications
C) Muscle cramping
D) Impaired kidney function
Q3) What should the nurse expect when assessing a patient with respiratory alkalosis?
A) Slow respirations
B) Muscle weakness
C) Strong, even heart rate
D) Flushed face
Q4) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fractions is the largest?
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 1/5
Q2) What is the sum o \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) f an \(\frac { 7 } { 8 }\) d ?
A) \(\frac { 10 } { 48 }\)
B) \(\frac { 10 } { 12 }\)
C) \(\frac { 21 } { 4 }\)
D) \(1 \frac { 5 } { 8 }\)
Q3) What is 2.34 + 0.77?
A) 0.01
B) 90.4
C) 2.417
D) 3.11
Q4) What is 6.147 rounded to the nearest tenth?
A) 6.2
B) 6.15
C) 6.14
D) 6.1
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Q1) During insertion of a Foley catheter, the patient grimaces as the balloon is inflated. What is the immediate reaction of the nurse?
A) Withdraw the catheter
B) Ask the patient to bear down
C) Continue to inflate the balloon
D) Advance the catheter into the bladder
Q2) When a patient asks if he can keep the heating pack on his leg all the time, the nurse reminds him of which of the following complication of long-term heat application?
A) The heat can cause extreme vasoconstriction.
B) The heat can increase the possibility of infection.
C) The heat can cause the blood pressure to increase.
D) The heat can damage epithelial cells.
Q3) What is the nurse's first priority when a patient receiving IV fluid therapy shows an increase in blood pressure and has bilateral crackles?
A) Raise the head of the bed
B) Slow the infusion
C) Turn the patient to the left side
D) Notify the charge nurse
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24
Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Q1) In response to a mother's concern about the development of a food allergy in her 5-month-old, the nurse should suggest the delay of which foods?
A) Oat cereals
B) Potatoes
C) Citrus fruits
D) Green vegetables
Q2) A child who has just begun to demonstrate object permanence is in which of the Piaget stages of cognitive development?
A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational thought
C) Formal operational thought
D) Concrete operational thought
Q3) Which theory of aging suggests that the body becomes less able to tolerate the "self"?
A) Free radical theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Biologic programming theory
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) What is the termination of tube feedings to a dying patient considered?
A) Active euthanasia
B) Holistic care
C) Passive euthanasia
D) Terminal care
Q2) How does a perceived loss differ from an actual loss?
A) A perceived loss is more quickly resolved.
B) A perceived loss is situational.
C) A perceived loss is easily overlooked.
D) A perceived loss has a superficial response.
Q3) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
Q4) The nurse spends a great deal of time in the room of a dying 12-year-old because the nurse knows that most children are aware of their condition and want the nurse to do which of the following?
A) Keep them clean
B) Help them eat
C) Care about them
D) Keep them comfortable
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) Which hormone is secreted by the placenta?
A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q2) Which of the following discomforts of a pregnant woman should be reported to the physician at the first occurrence?
A) Leg cramps
B) Pelvic discomfort
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Urinary frequency
Q3) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________ __________.
Q4) Which of the following demonstrate culturally competent care of the pregnant patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Discuss beliefs with the patient and incorporate them in the plan of care.
B) Prohibit visits from anyone other than immediate family members.
C) Require the patient's participation in every aspect of the health care system.
D) Maintain the patient's modesty at all times.
E) Strive to maintain a harmonious environment for the patient.
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Q1) After the delivery of a newborn, what is the priority action of the nurse?
A) Place the newborn on the right side
B) Cover the cord stump
C) Dry the infant immediately
D) Suction nose and mouth
Q2) For the first hour following delivery, how often should the nurse assess the mother?
A) Every 5 minutes
B) Every 10 minutes
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Every 30 minutes
Q3) What is the largest diameter of the fetal skull?
A) Temporal
B) Biparietal
C) Lateral
D) Frontal-occipital
Q4) The nurse explains to the patient whose membranes ruptured an hour ago that delivery is usually accomplished in ____ to _____ hours postrupture.
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28
Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) Which finding should the nurse suspect as abnormal in the newborn during the initial assessment?
A) Eyes crossed at times
B) Persistent high-pitched cry
C) Arms and legs flexed
D) Slight bluish tinge of the extremities
Q2) What is characteristic of a normal breastfed infant's stool?
A) Green and loose
B) Dark green and sticky
C) Pale yellow and frequent
D) Light brown and pasty
Q3) When is breast engorgement most likely to occur?
A) When the infant's mouth surrounds the areola when feeding
B) When the breast tissue becomes congested
C) When the breast is emptied completely at each feeding
D) When the infant's mouth grasps the nipple firmly
Q4) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
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Family with Special Needs
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Q1) A pregnant woman visits a clinic visit during her 21st week of pregnancy. The nurse identifies edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. What condition does the nurse suspect?
A) Allergy
B) Protein deficiency
C) Circulatory problem
D) Gestational hypertension
Q2) A 14-year-old pregnant adolescent arrives at the hospital in early labor. The nurse should recognize that the adolescent is at a greater risk for which problem?
A) Calcium deficit
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Bleeding tendency
D) Low hemoglobin levels
Q3) What should the nurse hope to identify by keeping a record of a patient's blood pressure during prenatal visits?
A) Ketoacidosis
B) Placenta previa
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent accidental poisoning of a child, where should medications be placed in the home?
A) In a dresser drawer
B) In the medicine cabinet
C) In a locked cupboard
D) On a high shelf
Q2) What practice should be used by a pediatric nurse to remind parents of their responsibility in reducing the number of accidents involving children?
A) Child awareness
B) Good manners
C) Anticipatory guidance
D) Strict discipline
Q3) Which factor is mostly associated with problems such as domestic violence, sexually transmitted infections (STIs), school failure, and motor vehicle accidents (MVAs)?
A) Lack of supervision
B) Psychological problems
C) Substance abuse
D) Physiological problems
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does obtaining the respirations of an infant require a modified approach from that of an adult?
A) Infants breathe through their noses
B) Infants have very rapid respirations
C) Infants' respirations are thoracic in nature
D) Infants' respiratory movements are abdominal
Q2) When the nurse is inserting a feeding tube in an 8-month-old, what safety reminder device (SRD) should the nurse most likely use?
A) Mummy
B) Clove hitch
C) Jacket device
D) Elbow device
Q3) What is the special category that encompasses children who have congenital abnormalities, malignancies, gastrointestinal (GI) diseases, or central nervous system (CNS) anomalies?
A) Very dependent children
B) Children requiring special education
C) Children with special needs
D) Children requiring long-term care
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the priority nursing diagnosis for the parents of a newborn born with cleft lip and palate?
A) Parental role conflict
B) Risk for delayed growth and development
C) Risk for impaired attachment
D) Anticipatory grieving
Q2) What is the main characteristic of cystic fibrosis?
A) Multiple upper respiratory infections
B) An underproduction of exocrine glands
C) Excessive, thick mucus
D) An overproduction of thin mucus
Q3) The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?
A) Abduction
B) Adduction
C) Flexion
D) Extension
Q4) The nurse reminds a family that people with autism are also referred to as
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the older adult, the nurse considers which aspect of the patient's routine as a possible contributor to constipation?
A) Intake of antacids several times a day
B) Taking a laxative once a week
C) Excessive exercise routine
D) Eating two apples a day
Q2) An older adult is having difficulty swallowing. What position should the nurse recommend to aid in swallowing?
A) Chin parallel
B) Chin upward
C) Chin down
D) Chin to the side
Q3) Which statements are myths that have been disproved concerning aging? (Select all that apply.)
A) All older adults are senile.
B) Most older adults live in their own homes.
C) Older adults are poor.
D) Older adults have frequent contact with family members.
E) Older adults are disabled.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assisting the older adult who is despondent about the need to leave his home, what technique should the nurse use?
A) Ask him if he has a drinking problem
B) Explore the option of his moving in with someone
C) Reminisce with the patient and review his life
D) Assess for hopelessness and helplessness
Q2) What is the most likely result when an attempt at adaptation fails?
A) Depression
B) Anger
C) Frustration
D) Anxiety
Q3) The patient admitted to the hospital may adjust to illness by assuming a role in which everyday responsibilities are avoided. What is this role called?
A) Patient role
B) Illness role
C) Sick role
D) Dependent role
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is experiencing a panic attack, how should the nurse best assist the patient?
A) Assist with reality orientation
B) Aid in decision making
C) Assist with rational thought
D) Coach in deep breathing
Q2) The patient talks with his dead brother and arranges furniture so that his brother will have a place to sit. How should the nurse document this behavior?
A) Disordered thinking
B) Anhedonia
C) Hallucination
D) Alogia
Q3) What is the prognosis for a schizophrenic patient who is exhibiting positive behaviors?
A) Guarded
B) Poor
C) Good
D) Repeatable
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug is often used in date rape?
A) Dalmane
B) Xanax
C) Narcan
D) Rohypnol
Q2) What should the entire health team focus on during the rehabilitation phase?
A) Establishing a support system
B) Seeking and maintaining employment
C) Abstaining from drug use
D) Addressing the problems related to addiction
Q3) A college student has brought his hallucinating roommate to the college clinic. The young man says his roommate has been experimenting with phencyclidine (PCP). How long should the nurse expect the hallucinations to last?
A) 30 to 60 minutes
B) 1 to 4 hours
C) 4 to 6 hours
D) 6 to 12 hours
Q4) The nurse uses the CAGE questionnaire to assess a patient. The nurse suspects the patient is an alcoholic if there are affirmative answers for _____ items on the questionnaire.
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The licensed nurse can delegate which task(s) to the home health assistive personnel?
A) Bathing the patient
B) Assessing ability to void
C) Administering an injection
D) Teaching about medications
Q2) The nurse should provide the patient and family with accurate health information concerning diagnoses and progress. What will accurate information help the family to become?
A) Active participants
B) Effective caregivers
C) Encouraged supporters
D) Active providers
Q3) A major change to Medicare reimbursement was implemented in 1983. The new system paid a set rate according to diagnosis. What was the new payment system based upon?
A) Interim payment systems
B) Diagnosis-related groups
C) Title XVIII
D) Title XIX
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What differentiates the services of a long-term care facility from that of an assisted living facility?
A) Skilled nursing care
B) Personal care services
C) Weekly visits by the staff physician
D) Intensive rehabilitation services
Q2) The LPN/LVN performs which function(s) when working as a staffing coordinator of a home health agency? (Select all that apply.)
A) Scheduling appropriate care providers
B) Reviewing documentation
C) Verifying financial coverage
D) Making referrals
E) Performing comprehensive assessments
Q3) How often does the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) require that a summary (including vital signs and weight) be obtained in the long-term care setting?
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Yearly
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to decrease the potential for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient who is a paraplegic from a spinal cord injury?
A) Massage the patient's legs daily
B) Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
C) Encourage frequent warm baths
D) Allow the patient's legs to dangle for a period of 10 minutes several times a day
Q2) The nurse explains that the main roles of the gerontological rehabilitation nurse are to provide rehabilitative care and what other role?
A) Provide restoration
B) Teach prevention
C) Teach adaptive skills
D) Provide positive reinforcement
Q3) A child who was struck by a car and suffered a closed head injury was unconscious for 24 hours before waking. The nurse recognizes this as a _______ brain injury.
Q4) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication relaxes the patient's respiratory effort and thus increases the efficiency of the patient's respiratory status?
A) Aminophylline
B) Theophylline
C) Epinephrine
D) Morphine
Q2) When educating a patient concerning ways to prevent nausea, the nurse suggests that eating slowly in a pleasant atmosphere will help, as well as taking an antiemetic before meals. How many minutes before meals should the patient take the antiemetic?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 60
Q3) Who conducts the nutritional assessment at the time of admission to hospice care?
A) Physician
B) Hospice nurse
C) Caregiver
D) Nursing assistant
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that when a patient complains of pain in the epigastric region, the source of the pain is most likely to be a disorder involving the: A) gallbladder.
B) transverse colon.
C) stomach.
D) appendix.
Q2) Using a poster, the nurse demonstrates the protection of the nucleus. Arrange the layers starting with the most superficial. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Nuclear membrane
C) Nucleus
D) Plasma membrane
E) Cytoplasm
Q3) The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane.
Q4) The nurse explains that ___________are small saclike structures inside the cell that digest compounds that have invaded the cell.
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that serum potassium levels are determined before surgery to:
A) assess kidney function.
B) determine respiratory insufficiency.
C) prevent arrhythmias related to anesthesia.
D) measure functional liver capability.
Q2) In which location are guidelines for ensuring that all nursing interventions on the day of surgery completed and documented?
A) In the nurse's notes
B) In the anesthesia record
C) In the preoperative checklist
D) In the progress notes
Q3) The patient is brought into PACU still unconscious. What should the nurse do when the nurse assesses an oral temperature of 94° F?
A) Notify the charge nurse immediately
B) Offer warm fluids through a straw
C) Do nothing, this is a normal reaction to anesthesia
D) Cover with a warm blanket
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43
Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient developed a severe contact dermatitis of the hands, arms, and lower legs after spending an afternoon picking strawberries. The patient states that the itching is severe and cannot keep from scratching. Which instruction would be most helpful in managing the pruritus?
A) Use cool, wet dressings and baths to promote vasoconstriction.
B) Trim the fingernails short to prevent skin damage from scratching.
C) Expose the areas to the sun to promote drying and healing of the lesions.
D) Wear cotton gloves and cover all other affected areas with clothing to prevent environmental irritation.
Q2) The nurse takes into consideration that carbon monoxide intoxication secondary to smoke inhalation is often fatal because carbon monoxide:
A) binds with hemoglobin in place of oxygen.
B) interferes with oxygen intake.
C) is a respiratory depressant.
D) is a toxic agent.
Q3) The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and __________.
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 68, has suffered an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Before surgery, to provide support and comfort, an immobilizing device of a ______ is applied.
A) Thomas splint
B) Bryant traction
C) Russell traction
D) Buck traction
Q2) Forty-eight hours after a patient sustained a fractured femur in a car accident, the nurse assessed a pulse of 110, respirations at 25, and labored crackles in both lung fields. The nurse immediately reports to the charge nurse the probability of a(n):
A) impending pneumonia.
B) atelectasis.
C) fat embolism.
D) anxiety attack.
Q3) What does prolonged bed rest put the older adult at risk for?
A) Ankylosing spondylitis
B) Pathologic fractures
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Gout
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse takes into consideration that long-term use of antibiotics can cause an antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis from the organism________.
Q2) Which of the following are indicators of colorectal cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Constant diarrhea
B) Excessive flatulence
C) Cachexia
D) Cramps
E) Rectal bleeding
F) Anemia
Q3) The patient with a peptic ulcer has been placed on regular doses of bismuth salicylate (Pepto-Bismol) to combat H. pylori. What color will this drug turn the stool?
A) Gray-black
B) Dark green
C) Red-orange
D) Yellow
Q4) Due to frequent bouts of constipation, the nurse examines the bedfast nursing home resident for ulceration of the anus, called __________________.
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.
Q2) What should the nurse expect of a patient with a malabsorption of vitamin K?
A) Lowered hemoglobin
B) Elevated hematocrit
C) Increased prothrombin time
D) Diminished white blood cell count
Q3) A ___________occurs when the body encapsulates the autodigestive debris in the pancreatic tissue, frequently becoming an abscess.
Q4) The patient's cirrhosis of the liver has also caused a dilation of the veins of the lower esophagus secondary to portal hypertension, resulting in the development of the complication of:
A) esophageal varices.
B) diverticulosis.
C) Crohn disease.
D) esophageal reflux (GERD).
Q5) The disease that is on the increase because of the growing obesity population and is associated with coronary artery disease and use of corticosteroids is_______________.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse recommends to the mother of a 12-year-old child with leukemia that the child should have:
A) the series for prevention of hepatitis B.
B) an annual influenza vaccine.
C) an annual pneumococcal vaccine.
D) vitamin B12 shots.
Q2) The typical medical treatment of polycythemia vera involves repeated phlebotomies and medications such as busulfan (Myleran) in order to:
A) stimulate bone marrow.
B) inhibit bone marrow activity.
C) increase hemoglobin.
D) reduce gout.
Q3) Which of the following foods would the nurse recommend to a person with iron deficiency anemia as an excellent meat source for erythropoiesis?
A) Dark meat of chicken
B) Cured ham
C) Pork chops
D) Processed meat
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment would lead the nurse to examine the leg closely for evidence of a stasis ulcer?
A) Cool dry lower limb
B) Edematous, red scaly skin on medial surface of the leg
C) Lack of hair and shiny appearance of the lower leg
D) Lack of a pedal pulse
Q2) The nurse reminds the patient who is on Coumadin for the treatment of atrial fibrillation that the ideal is to maintain the international normalized ratio (INR) at between:
A) 1 and 2.
B) 2 and 3.
C) 3 and 4.
D) 4 and 5.
Q3) The nurse identifies the "LUBB" sound of the "LUBB/DUBB" of the cardiac cycle as the sound of the:
A) AV valves closing.
B) closure of the semilunar valves.
C) contraction of the papillary muscles.
D) contraction of the ventricles.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who has a closed chest drainage system notes that there is fluctuation (tidaling) in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on this assessment?
A) Document the tidaling
B) Elevate the head of the bed and notify charge nurse of malfunction of drainage system
C) Add more sterile water to the water seal chamber
D) Turn patient to the affected side
Q2) What should the nurse do to keep the chest tubes from becoming occluded?
A) Irrigate tubes as needed
B) Prevent dependent loops
C) Loop the tube over the bed rail
D) "Milk" the tube frequently
Q3) The nurse prepares a patient for the procedure of a(n) __________, which will remove the fluid from around the lung to improve respiration and obtain a specimen.
Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
Q5) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse encourage, barring any other contraindication, when teaching a patient how to decrease the chance of further problems with urolithiasis?
A) Increase his fluid intake
B) Increase intake of dairy products
C) Restrict his protein intake
D) Take one baby aspirin daily
Q2) The patient is on postoperative day 1 after having undergone a TURP procedure. He has continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). Actual urine output during continuous bladder irrigation is calculated by:
A) measuring and recording all fluid output in the drainage bag.
B) measuring the total output and deducting the total of the irrigating and intravenous solutions.
C) adding the total of the intravenous and irrigating solutions and then deducting the amount of output.
D) measuring total output and deducting the amount of irrigating solution used.
Q3) The prostatectomy technique, which involves an incision through the abdomen and the bladder, is a ____________prostatectomy.
Q4) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
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Page 51
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse caution a type I diabetic about excessive exercise?
A) It can increase the need for insulin and may result in hyperglycemia.
B) It can decrease the need for insulin and may result in hypoglycemia.
C) It can increase muscle bulk and may result in malabsorption of insulin.
D) It can decrease metabolic demand and may result in metabolic acidosis.
Q2) What is the postoperative position for a person who has had a thyroidectomy?
A) Prone
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Side-lying
D) Supine
Q3) A patient has come to the clinic because of enlarged hands and feet, amenorrhea, and increased hair growth. These symptoms most likely indicate problems with the:
A) pituitary gland.
B) adrenal glands.
C) thyroid gland.
D) pancreas.
Q4) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q5) ________________is the term that describes a condition of normal thyroid function.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting the physician in removing a small sample of tissue from the patient's cervix to have it evaluated. This procedure is called a cervical
Q2) What are some advantages of a vaginal hysterectomy over the abdominal hysterectomy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Less postoperative discomfort
B) Reduced hospital stay
C) Less expensive
D) Better visualization of the intrapelvic area
E) Faster recovery
Q3) Select the interventions that should be performed with caution, in the affected arm, on patients who have undergone a modified radical mastectomy. (Select all that apply.)
A) Vaccinations
B) Taking of blood pressure or samples
C) Insertion of IV line
D) Physical therapy on uninvolved arm
E) Wear watch and jewelry on involved arm
F) Surgical interventions
Q4) ________are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient tells the nurse that he is legally blind. How would this information impact the nurse's plan of care for this patient?
A) The patient would be considered totally blind.
B) This patient probably has some light perception, but no usable vision.
C) This patient has some usable vision, which enables function at an acceptable level.
D) The nurse would need to determine how this patient's visual impairment affects normal functioning.
Q2) The home health patient complains of tearing and a feeling of dryness in the right eye. The nurse assesses that the eyelid is turned inward and the sclera is red. The nurse documents the presence of a(n)_________________.
Q3) The surgical incision into the eardrum with either a knife or a heated wire loop to relieve pressure in the middle ear is a(n) ___________.
Q4) What should the nurse include in the plan of care following a tympanoplasty?
A) Elevating head of bed with operative side facing upward
B) Enforcing bed rest for 72 hours
C) Frequent turning, coughing, and deep breathing
D) Continuous irrigation of the ear canal with antibiotic solutions
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The newly admitted patient to the emergency room 30 minutes ago after a fall off a ladder has gradually decreased in consciousness and has slowly reacting pupils, a widening pulse pressure, and verbal responses that are slow and unintelligible. What is the most appropriate position for the patient?
A) Neck placed in a neutral position
B) Head raised slightly with hips flexed
C) Supine in gravity neutral position
D) Turn on right side with head elevated
Q2) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space.
Q3) How would a nurse record the behavior when a patient with Alzheimer disease attempts to eat using a napkin rather than a fork?
A) Apraxia
B) Agnosia
C) Aphasia
D) Dysphagia
Q4) The nurse explains that the triad of signs of Parkinson disease is: _______, _______ and _______
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of immunity through a controlled exposure to an attenuated organism to stimulate the production of antibodies is _______________.
Q2) How does normal aging change the immune system?
A) Depresses bone marrow
B) T cells become hyperactive
C) B cells show deficiencies in activity
D) Increase in the size of the thymus
Q3) The nurse outlines the functions of the immune system as those actions which: (Select all that apply.)
A) Prevention of hemorrhage
B) Protection of the body's internal environment
C) Maintenance of hemoglobin level
D) Maintenance of homeostasis by removing damaged cells
E) Destruction of growth of abnormal cells
Q4) What is the etiology of autoimmune diseases based on?
A) Reaction to a "superantigen"
B) Immune system producing no antibodies at all
C) T cells destroying B cells
D) B and T cells producing autoantibodies
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of the AIDS wasting syndrome in a patient with an HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Episodes of vomiting for 20 days
B) Appearance of Kaposi sarcoma
C) Loss of 10% of body mass
D) Marked hair loss
E) Episodes of diarrhea for 30 days
Q2) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with the HIV virus.
Q3) The HIV patient asks the nurse about what to expect in terms of disease progression. The nurse tells this patient that although the disease can vary greatly among individuals, the usual pattern of progression includes:
A) viremia, clinical latency, opportunistic diseases, and death.
B) asymptomatic phase, clinical latency, ARC, and AIDS.
C) acute retroviral syndrome, early infection, early symptomatic disease, and AIDS.
D) transitional viral syndrome, inactive disease, early symptomatic infection, and opportunistic diseases.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would the nurse encourage the patient to look for during self-testicular testing?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Smooth consistency of testicle
B) Stomachache
C) Breast enlargement
D) Heavy feeling in the scrotum
E) Enlarged blood vessels in scrotum
F) Hematuria
Q2) How many minutes of daily exercise does the American Cancer Society recommend as a prevention of cancer?
A) 10 minutes
B) 15 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 30 minutes
Q3) The nurse remarks that the American Cancer Society (ACS) reports that cancer is the ______ leading cause of death in the United States.
Q4) The American Cancer Society recommends a clinical breast examination by a health care professional for women between the age of 20 and 39 years every ________ years.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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Sample Questions
Q1) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
Q2) Why is it important for new graduates to purchase their own malpractice insurance rather than depend on an institutional policy?
A) A private policy will not cover them unless they are on their primary job.
B) A private policy will carry personal liability coverage.
C) A private policy will protect them against all lawsuits.
D) A private policy will protect them from losing their license.
Q3) A manager is concerned that one of the nurses on the unit is experiencing burnout. Which symptoms would support the concerns? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fatigue
B) Forgetfulness
C) Increased energy
D) Negative outlook
E) Changes in eating habits
Q4) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n) ________________.
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