Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that focuses on the comprehensive care of adult patients with a variety of medical and surgical conditions. The course emphasizes the development of clinical reasoning and decision-making skills needed to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing interventions. Key topics include the management of common diseases and disorders affecting body systems, perioperative care, pain management, infection control, and patient safety. Students will gain a deep understanding of pathophysiology, pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions, and the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration in promoting optimal patient outcomes. Through a combination of theoretical learning and practical application, this course prepares nursing students to deliver high-quality, evidence-based care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum
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110 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this, the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
Q2) What are the properties of an ideal drug?
A) Irreversible action
B) Predictability
C) Ease of administration
D) Chemical stability
E) A recognizable trade name
Answer: B, C, D
Q3) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?
A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.
B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.
C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.
D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been receiving intravenous penicillin for pneumonia for several days and begins to complain of generalized itching. The nurse auscultates bilateral wheezing and notes a temperature of 38.5°C (101°F). Which is the correct action by the nurse?
A) Administer the next dose and continue to evaluate the patient's symptoms.
B) Ask the prescriber if an antihistamine can be given to relieve the itching.
C) Contact the prescriber to request an order for a chest radiograph.
D) Hold the next dose and notify the prescriber of the symptoms.
Answer: D
Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is to be discharged from the hospital. The nurse teaching this patient about home management should begin by doing what?
A) Asking the patient to demonstrate how to measure and administer insulin
B) Discussing methods of storing insulin and discarding syringes
C) Giving information about how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements
D) Teaching the patient about the long-term consequences of poor diabetes control
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what?
A) To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects
B) To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment
C) To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group
D) To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?
A) A loading dose was not given.
B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.
C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.
D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.
Q2) A patient is given a prescription for azithromycin [Zithromax] and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A) "A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster."
B) "The first dose is larger to minimize the first-pass effect of the liver."
C) "The four smaller doses help the body taper the amount of drug more gradually."
D) "Tubular reabsorption is faster with initial doses, so more is needed at first."
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?
A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.
B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.
C) It gives the receptor a new function.
D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.
Q2) A patient has been receiving an antibiotic with a small therapeutic index for 10 days. Upon assessment, the nurse notes an increase in the drug's side effects. What would be the nurse's priority action?
A) Call the prescriber and have the antibiotic changed.
B) Suspect an allergic reaction and administer a PRN antihistamine.
C) Ask the prescriber to order a plasma drug level test.
D) Set up oxygen and obtain an order for an antagonist.
Q3) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability?
A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth
B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms
D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body
E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain
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7
Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering morning medications. The nurse gives a patient multiple medications, two of which compete for plasma albumin receptor sites. As a result of this concurrent administration, the nurse can anticipate that what might occur?
A) Binding of one or both agents will be reduced.
B) Plasma levels of free drug will rise.
C) Plasma levels of free drug will fall.
D) The increase in free drug will intensify effects.
E) The increase in bound drug will intensify effects.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?
A) Alcoholic beverages
B) Aged cheeses
C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage
D) Grapefruit juice
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being discharged after surgery. During the admission history, the nurse learned that the patient normally consumes 2 or 3 glasses of wine each day. The prescriber has ordered hydrocodone with acetaminophen [Lortab] for pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Request an order for acetaminophen without hydrocodone for pain.
B) Suggest that the patient use ibuprofen for pain.
C) Tell the patient not to drink wine while taking Lortab.
D) Tell the patient to limit wine intake to 1 or 2 glasses per day.
Q2) A patient is given a drug for the first time and develops shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 76 beats/min, the respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. The nurse checks a drug administration manual to make sure the correct dose was given and learns that some patients taking the drug experience shortness of breath. The nurse will contact the provider to report what?
A) An allergic reaction
B) An idiosyncratic effect
C) An iatrogenic response
D) A side effect
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to care for a patient who is receiving digoxin. When screening for potential adverse effects from this drug, the nurse will review which of this patient's laboratory results?
A) Albumin
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
C) Hepatic enzymes
D) Serum electrolytes
Q2) A postoperative patient who is worried about pain control will be discharged several days after surgery. The nurse providing discharge teaching tells the patient that the prescribed Lortab is not as strong as the morphine the patient was given in the immediate postoperative period. Which response is the patient likely to experience?
A) A decreased likelihood of filling the prescription for the drug
B) A negative placebo effect when taking the medication
C) An increased compliance with the drug regimen
D) Optimistic, realistic expectations about the drug
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?
A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.
B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.
C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient and her newborn immediately after delivery. The patient's medication history includes prenatal vitamins throughout pregnancy, one or two glasses of wine before knowing she was pregnant, occasional use of an albuterol inhaler in her last trimester, and intravenous morphine during labor. What will the nurse expect to do?
A) Administer opioids to the infant to prevent withdrawal syndrome.
B) Monitor the infant's respirations and prepare to administer naloxone if needed.
C) Note a high-pitched cry and irritability in the infant and observe for seizures.
D) Prepare the patient for motor delays in the infant caused by the alcohol use.
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11
Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child with asthma ask the nurse why their child cannot use oral corticosteroids more often, because they are so effective. The nurse will offer which information that is true for children?
A) Chronic steroid use can inhibit growth.
B) Frequent use of this drug may lead to a decreased response.
C) A hypersensitivity reaction to this drug may occur.
D) Systemic steroids are more toxic in children.
Q2) A pediatric nurse is teaching nursing students to calculate medication doses for children using a formula based on body surface area. Which statement by a nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "This formula helps approximate the first dose; other doses should be based on clinical observations."
B) "This formula accounts for pharmacokinetic factors that are different in children."
C) "Using this formula will prevent side effects of medications in children."
D) "This formula can determine medication dosing for a child of any age."
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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation of a chronic illness. Admission laboratory work reveals an extremely low serum drug level of the drug used to treat this condition. The patient has brought the medication to the hospital, along with other medications taken. The patient's renal and hepatic function tests are normal. What might the nurse suspect as a likely cause of this finding?
A) Financial concerns
B) Inability to open drug containers
C) Increased tolerance to the drug's effects
D) Patient's conviction that the drug is unnecessary
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about administering medications to older adult patients. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Alteration in hepatic function requires more frequent drug dosing."
B) "Changes in GI function in older adult patients lead to lower serum drug levels."
C) "Most adverse drug reactions in older adult patients are related to altered renal function."
D) "Most nonadherence among older adult patients is intentional."
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Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?
A) Bradycardia
B) Positive inotropic effects
C) Prolonged receptor activation
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?
A) Activators
B) Agonists
C) Antagonists
D) Antidotes
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q2) A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta agonist medication. Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse will monitor for which side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Tachypnea
D) Urinary retention
Q3) What is the target organ when a beta<sub>1</sub> agonist is administered?
A) Heart
B) Kidney
C) Respiratory
D) Liver
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has esophageal cancer is experiencing dry mouth and the provider orders oral pilocarpine to treat this symptom. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient about this medication?
A) "This medication may cause rapid heart rate and elevated blood pressure."
B) "This medication may cause constipation and gastric discomfort in large doses."
C) "You should experience sweating with this medication and should not have other side effects."
D) "You will begin taking 5 mg 3 times daily and may increase the dose to 10 mg."
Q2) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder (OAB) and reports occasional constipation. The patient has tried behavioral therapy to treat the OAB without adequate results. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?
A) Oxybutynin short-acting syrup
B) Oxybutynin [Ditropan XL] extended-release tablets
C) Oxybutynin [Oxytrol] transdermal patch
D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child?
A) Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions
B) Giving diazepam to control seizures
C) Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen
D) Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency
Q2) A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication will the nurse expect to administer?
A) Donepezil [Aricept]
B) Edrophonium [Reversol]
C) Neostigmine [Prostigmin]
D) Physostigmine
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing nursing actions for emergency treatment of malignant hyperthermia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Analgesics should be given to help with muscle pain."
B) "Dantrolene helps to slow the metabolic activity in skeletal muscles."
C) "If malignant hyperthermia occurs, the succinylcholine must be stopped immediately."
D) "The patient may need an intravenous infusion of cold saline."
Q2) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?
A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication
B) Muscles in the lower extremities
C) Muscles controlling the glottis
D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm
Q3) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:
A) has fallen asleep.
B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.
C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.
D) may need mechanical ventilation.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Catecholamines may be given orally."
B) "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective."
C) "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier."
D) "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."
Q2) A patient is receiving dobutamine [Dobutrex] as a continuous infusion in the immediate postoperative period. The patient also is receiving a diuretic. What adverse drug reactions are possible in this patient?
A) Angina
B) Dysrhythmias
C) Hypotension
D) Oliguria
E) Tachycardia
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a patient who has been given phentolamine [OraVerse] to treat pheochromocytoma. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 76/52 mm Hg and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Contact the provider to request an order for epinephrine.
B) Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and notify the provider if the heart rate increases.
C) Notify the provider and request an order for a beta blocker.
D) Notify the provider and request an order for norepinephrine.
Q2) A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg, and a pulse of 88 beats/min. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with:
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) left-sided heart failure.
C) rebound cardiac excitation.
D) sinus bradycardia.
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
Q2) A patient who has been taking clonidine [Catapres] for several weeks complains of drowsiness and constipation. What will the nurse do?
A) Recommend that the patient take most of the daily dose at bedtime.
B) Suggest asking the provider for a transdermal preparation of the drug.
C) Suspect that the patient is overusing the medication.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug and call the provider.
Q3) Clonidine is approved for the treatment of which conditions?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Opioid withdrawal
D) Severe pain
E) Smoking cessation
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
Q2) A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier. The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier:
A) prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system.
B) causes infants to be less sensitive to CNS drugs and thus require larger doses.
C) allows only ionized or protein-bound drugs to cross into the central nervous system.
D) prevents lipid-soluble drugs from entering the central nervous system.
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22
Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has begun taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy, especially when standing up from a sitting position. What will the nurse recommend?
A) An alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication
B) Discussing amantadine with the prescriber
C) Increasing salt and water intake
D) Taking a drug holiday
Q2) A nurse is discussing motor symptoms with a patient with Parkinson disease who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for 9 months and who is now having regular tics. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this symptom?
A) "I may need to try a lower dose of Sinemet to reduce my tics."
B) "My provider may order clozapine to treat these tics."
C) "These tics are an indication that my dose of Sinemet is too low."
D) "This means I will have to have surgery to stop the symptoms."
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23
Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."
B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."
C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."
D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."
Q2) The spouse of a patient with Alzheimer's disease asks a nurse for more information about the rivastigmine [Exelon] transdermal patch that is being used. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further explanation?
A) "Doses are lower but more steady with the transdermal patch."
B) "Reduced side effects occur with the transdermal patch."
C) "We only need to change the patch every 2 weeks."
D) "We should remove the old patch before applying the new one."
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24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), and the nurse provides teaching about the medications for the disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need to take additional drugs at times of acute relapse."
B) "I will need to take medication indefinitely."
C) "If medication is begun early, permanent remission can be achieved."
D) "Some symptoms may need to be managed with symptom-specific drugs."
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with primary progressive multiple sclerosis for 1 year and reports a recent brief period of being symptom free. The nurse will tell the patient that this indicates what?
A) Hope for long-term remission
B) Temporary improvement
C) Development of relapsing-remitting MS
D) Development of secondary progressive MS
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The patient tells the nurse that she is taking oral contraceptives. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) She may need to increase her dose of phenytoin while taking oral contraceptives.
B) She should consider a different form of birth control while taking phenytoin.
C) She should remain on oral contraceptives, because phenytoin causes birth defects. D) She should stop taking oral contraceptives, because they reduce the effectiveness of phenytoin.
Q2) A child who receives valproic acid [Depakote] begins taking lamotrigine [Lamictal] because of an increase in the number of seizures. The nurse will observe this child closely for which symptom?
A) Angioedema
B) Hypohidrosis
C) Rash
D) Psychosis
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. The patient is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention?
A) Preparing to support respirations
B) Administering an antidote to baclofen
C) Administering diazepam to prevent seizures
D) Obtaining an electrocardiogram
Q2) A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication."
B) "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength."
C) "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate."
D) "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."
Q3) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for which reasons?
A) To enhance absorption
B) To reduce the risk of toxicity
C) To prevent bradycardia
D) To shorten the duration of action
E) To prolong anesthesia
Q2) A nurse is assisting a physician who is preparing to suture a superficial laceration on a patient's leg. The physician asks the nurse to draw up lidocaine with epinephrine. The nurse understands that epinephrine is used with the lidocaine to:
A) allow more systemic absorption to speed up metabolism of the lidocaine.
B) increase the rate of absorption of the lidocaine.
C) improve perfusion by increasing blood flow to the area.
D) prolong anesthetic effects and reduce the risk of systemic toxicity from lidocaine.
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given nitrous oxide, along with another inhalation anesthetic. The nurse knows that the benefits of nitrous oxide include what?
A) It is a potent analgesic.
B) It has high anesthetic potency.
C) It is less likely to cause nausea and vomiting.
D) It is less likely to precipitate malignant hyperthermia.
E) It can significantly reduce the dose of inhalation anesthetic.
Q2) The nurse cares for patients who receive propofol extended [Diprivan]. What are important nursing considerations for these patients?
A) Ensuring that respiratory support equipment is readily available
B) Maintaining the rate of intravenous infusion at 6 mg/kg/hr
C) Refrigerating open vials of the drug up to 24 hours
D) Stopping the infusion if a patient's CPK is greater than 5000 units/L
E) Using a local anesthetic at the IV site prior to infusing the drug
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Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.
B) changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.
C) confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.
D) withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.
Q2) A patient who has biliary colic reports a pain level of 8 on a 1 to 10 pain scale with 10 being the most severe pain. The patient has an order for ibuprofen as needed for pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the ibuprofen as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss nonpharmacologic pain measures.
C) Request an order for meperidine [Demerol].
D) Request an order for morphine sulfate.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer is admitted to the hospital. The nurse obtains an admission history and learns that the patient has been taking oxycodone and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for a year. The patient reports a recent increase in the intensity of pain, along with a new pain described as "burning" and "shooting." The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will order:
A) a combination opioid/NSAID and an adjunctive analgesic.
B) a fentanyl transdermal patch, acetaminophen, and an adjunctive analgesic.
C) an increase in the oxycodone and NSAID doses.
D) intramuscular morphine sulfate and acetaminophen.
Q2) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will ____ ibuprofen.
A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used to prevent migraine headaches?
A) Divalproex [Depakote]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Timolol
D) Ergotamine [Ergomar]
E) Acebutolol
Q2) A patient who has a history of asthma experiences three or four migraine headaches each month. The patient uses sumatriptan [Imitrex] as an abortive medication and has developed medication overuse headaches. The patient asks the nurse what can be done to prevent migraines. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which preventive medication with the provider?
A) Botulinum toxin
B) Meperidine [Demerol]
C) Timolol
D) Topiramate [Topamax]
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an oral FGA for 1 week. The patient has been taking the drug daily in two divided doses. The individual complains of daytime drowsiness. The patient's family reports a decrease in the person's hostility and anxiety but states that the patient remains antisocial with disordered thinking. What will the nurse tell the patient and the family?
A) An increased dose of the drug may be needed.
B) Intramuscular dosing may be needed.
C) Some symptoms take months to improve.
D) The entire dose may be taken at bedtime.
Q2) A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse will ask the patient's provider about which course of action?
A) Administering a direct dopamine antagonist
B) Giving an anticholinergic medication
C) Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
D) Switching to a second-generation antipsychotic drug
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has indicated that a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) will be prescribed for a patient who is experiencing major depression. When conducting a pretreatment health history, the nurse learns that the patient has a recent history of alcohol abuse. Which SNRI would be contraindicated for this patient?
A) Desvenlafaxine [Pristiq]
B) Duloxetine [Cymbalta]
C) Escitalopram [Lexapro]
D) Venlafaxine [Effexor SR]
Q2) A woman who is nursing a newborn develops postpartum depression and her provider orders sertraline [Zoloft] to treat her symptoms. The patient is concerned about the safety of this medication for her infant. What will the nurse tell her about this medication?
A) To stop nursing while taking the medication
B) To expect symptoms of colic and poor weight gain in the baby
C) That sertraline is safer than other antidepressants for nursing mothers
D) To ask her provider about switching to fluoxetine [Prozac] instead
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years and has not been evaluated by a provider for over a year. Besides obtaining a lithium level, the nurse caring for this patient will anticipate orders for which laboratory tests?
A) Calcium level
B) Complete blood count with differential
C) Liver function tests
D) Renal function tests
E) Serum potassium
F) Thyroid function tests
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years. The patient has developed a goiter, and serum tests reveal hypothyroidism. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Administration of levothyroxine
B) Increasing the lithium dose
C) Iodine supplements
D) Referral to an endocrinologist
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35
Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sedative-hypnotics are useful for both difficulty falling asleep and difficulty maintaining sleep?
A) Eszopiclone [Lunesta]
B) Flurazepam [Dalmane]
C) Temazepam [Restoril]
D) Triazolam [Halcion]
E) Extended-release zolpidem [Ambien CR]
Q2) A patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal is given a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that this drug is effective because:
A) the alcohol does not interact with the benzodiazepine.
B) the benzodiazepine potentiates alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
C) the benzodiazepine relieves muscle spasms and spasticity.
D) the patient has a cross-dependence to the benzodiazepine.
Q3) A nurse recognizes that the actions of benzodiazepines include which findings?
A) Sleep deprivation
B) Relief of general anxiety
C) Suppression of seizures and/or seizure activity
D) Development of tardive dyskinesia
E) Increase in muscle spasms
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient who will stop taking lorazepam [Ativan] for anxiety and begin taking buspirone [Buspar]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can drink alcohol when taking Buspar, but not grapefruit juice."
B) "I may need to use a sedative medication if I experience insomnia."
C) "I may not feel the effects of Buspar for a few weeks."
D) "I should stop taking the Ativan when I start taking the Buspar."
Q2) An agitated, extremely anxious patient is brought to the emergency department. The prescriber orders a benzodiazepine. The nurse understands that benzodiazepines are used in this clinical situation based on which principle?
A) Benzodiazepines have a very short half-life.
B) Physical dependence is not a risk when taking benzodiazepines.
C) Benzodiazepines are known to cure generalized anxiety.
D) Benzodiazepines have a rapid onset of action.
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child will begin taking methylphenidate [Ritalin] for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Important baseline information about this patient will include:
A) results of an electrocardiogram (ECG).
B) family history of psychosis.
C) height and weight.
D) renal function.
Q2) A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin], 10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600, for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta].
B) Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication.
C) Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed.
D) Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a class on addiction. Which statement by one of the class participants indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Addictive drugs lead to dopamine release in amounts similar to those released by normal reward circuits."
B) "Neural remodeling leads to decreased dopamine release, leaving users with feelings of lifelessness and depression."
C) "Over time, the brain will develop reduced responses to many addictive drugs."
D) "With the use of a drug over time, the brain undergoes synaptic remodeling."
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."
B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."
C) "Pre-existing psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."
D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a health history, the nurse asks a male patient about alcohol use. The patient tells the nurse that he and his wife are trying to conceive a pregnancy and he is using alcohol to lower his inhibitions. What will the nurse counsel this patient?
A) "Alcohol causes increased masculinization."
B) "Alcohol may cause testicular atrophy and sterility."
C) "Alcohol will improve your chances of conceiving."
D) "Alcohol will also help you to ejaculate."
Q2) A nurse is obtaining an admission history on a patient who reports daily drinking for several years. When the nurse questions the patient further, the patient reports drinking up to five or six drinks each day. The patient expresses worry about liver damage. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the patient's provider to request liver function studies.
B) Explain that hepatitis, progressing to severe liver impairment, is likely.
C) Inform the patient that the history indicates that cirrhosis is likely to occur.
D) Tell the patient that stopping drinking will reverse any effects on the liver.
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has just found out she is pregnant tells the nurse she wants to quit smoking. She asks about pharmacologic aids to help her quit. The nurse is correct to tell her what?
A) "Nicotine replacement therapy is harmful, but it is safer than smoking, so it can be used."
B) "Psychosocial support is the only recommended treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy."
C) "Varenicline [Chantix] is safe to use during pregnancy."
D) "You should try to taper off your smoking gradually, because none of the drugs are safe."
Q2) A patient who wants to quit smoking has a prescription for varenicline [Chantix], which will be used with a nicotine patch. The patient asks the nurse why the varenicline is necessary. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It helps patients experiencing withdrawal to sleep better."
B) "It helps reduce anxiety and other withdrawal symptoms."
C) "It will help reduce the likelihood of addiction to the patch."
D) "The drug blocks nicotine's access to 'pleasure' receptors."
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school nurse is teaching a high school health class about the effects of marijuana use. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Chronic use of marijuana can result in irreversible brain changes."
B) "Higher doses of marijuana are likely to produce increased euphoria."
C) "Marijuana is unique in that it produces euphoria, sedation, and hallucinations."
D) "Marijuana has more prolonged effects when it is ingested than when it is smoked."
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to barbiturates and who will begin receiving phenobarbital. The nurse discusses the care of this patient with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Phenobarbital acts as an antagonist to barbiturates and prevents toxicity."
B) "Phenobarbital has a long half-life and can be tapered gradually to minimize abstinence symptoms."
C) "Phenobarbital can be administered on an as-needed basis to treat withdrawal symptoms."
D) "Phenobarbital prevents respiratory depression associated with barbiturate withdrawal."
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension is taking furosemide [Lasix] for congestive heart failure. The prescriber orders digoxin to help increase cardiac output. What other medication will the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?
A) Bumetanide [Bumex]
B) Chlorothiazide [Diuril]
C) Hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]
D) Spironolactone [Aldactone]
Q2) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication, the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Elevated creatinine clearance
B) Elevated serum potassium level
C) Normal blood glucose level
D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
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43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who was injured at home is brought to the emergency department. The nurse caring for this patient notes a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. The injuries are minor, but the patient is inconsolable and hysterical. The nurse expects that initial management will include:
A) administering a gas mixture of 5% carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>).
B) providing 100% oxygen via nasal cannula.
C) giving sodium bicarbonate IV.
D) providing sedatives to calm the patient.
Q2) A patient collapses after running a marathon on a hot day and is brought to the emergency department to be treated for dehydration. The nurse will expect to provide which therapy?
A) Intravenous hypertonic fluids given slowly over several hours
B) Intravenous hypotonic fluids administered in stages
C) Intravenous isotonic fluids given as a rapid bolus
D) Oral electrolyte replacement fluids with potassium
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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a beta<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:
A) cardiac afterload.
B) cardiac preload.
C) myocardial contractility.
D) venous return.
Q2) A patient with hypertension is admitted to the hospital. On admission the patient's heart rate is 72 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/95 mm Hg. After administering an antihypertensive medication, the nurse notes a heart rate of 85 beats/ min and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg. What does the nurse expect to occur?
A) A decrease in the heart rate back to baseline in 1 to 2 days
B) An increase in the blood pressure within a few days
C) An increase in potassium retention in 1 to 2 days
D) A decrease in fluid retention within a week
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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Renal artery stenosis
Q2) A patient who is taking furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin will begin taking captopril [Capoten]. The nurse is providing information about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can use acetaminophen for analgesia if needed."
B) "I should stop taking the Lasix about a week before starting the Capoten."
C) "I should take this medication on a full stomach."
D) "I will need to have blood tests done every 2 weeks for a few months."
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who took an overdose of verapamil has been treated with gastric lavage and a cathartic. The emergency department nurse assesses the patient and notes a heart rate of 50 beats/min and a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate:
A) administering intravenous norepinephrine (NE) and atropine and glucagon.
B) assisting with direct-current (DC) cardioversion.
C) placing the patient in an upright position.
D) preparing to administer a beta blocker.
Q2) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
Q3) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?
A) Captopril PO
B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO
C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO
D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV
Q2) A nurse is administering a vasodilator that dilates resistance vessels. The nurse understands that this drug will have which effect on the patient?
A) Decreased cardiac preload
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Increased tissue perfusion
D) Increased ventricular contraction
Q3) A nurse is reviewing the phenomenon of reflex tachycardia with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this phenomenon?
A) "Baroreceptors in the aortic arch stimulate the heart to beat faster."
B) "Reflex tachycardia can negate the desired effects of vasodilators."
C) "Reflex tachycardia is more likely to occur when beta blockers are given."
D) "Venous dilation must occur for reflex tachycardia to occur."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who does not consume alcohol or nicotine products reports a strong family history of hypertension and cardiovascular disease. The patient has a blood pressure of 126/82 and a normal weight and body mass index for height and age. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:
A) ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blocker medications.
B) the DASH diet, sodium restriction, and exercise.
C) increased calcium and potassium supplements.
D) thiazide diuretics and lifestyle changes.
Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse why multi-drug therapy is often used to treat hypertension. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Multi-drug therapy often means that drugs may be given in lower doses."
B) "Some agents are used to offset adverse effects of other agents."
C) "Treatment of hypertension via different mechanisms increases success."
D) "Two or more drugs will lower blood pressure more quickly."
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse why he cannot use digoxin [Lanoxin] for his heart failure, because both of his parents used it for HF. The nurse will explain that digoxin is not the first-line therapy for which reason?
A) It causes tachycardia and increases the cardiac workload.
B) It does not correct the underlying pathology of heart failure.
C) It has a wide therapeutic range that makes dosing difficult.
D) It may actually shorten the patient's life expectancy.
Q2) A nurse is discussing heart failure with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of how compensatory mechanisms can compound existing problems in patients with heart failure?
A) "An increase in arteriolar tone to improve tissue perfusion can decrease resistance."
B) "An increase in contractility to increase cardiac output can cause pulmonary edema."
C) "When the heart rate increases to increase cardiac output, it can prevent adequate filling of the ventricles."
D) "When venous tone increases to increase ventricular filling, an increase in arterial pressure occurs."
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a patient who will begin taking procainamide [Procanbid] for long-term suppression of a dysrhythmia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I need to take this drug at evenly spaced intervals around the clock."
B) "I may have increased bruising, but this is a temporary side effect."
C) "I should report pain and swelling in my joints when taking this drug."
D) "I will need to have blood tests at regular intervals while taking this drug."
Q2) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and develops a dysrhythmia. The nurse reports this finding to the prescriber, who will most likely order what?
A) Amiodarone
B) Diltiazem
C) Phenytoin [Dilantin]
D) Quinidine
E) Serum electrolytes
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease: Drugs That Help
Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing the medications of a patient with diabetes before discharge. The nurse realizes that the patient will be going home on colesevelam, a bile-acid sequestrant, and insulin. What patient education should the nurse provide in the discharge teaching for this patient?
A) The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hypoglycemia.
B) The patient needs to monitor the blood sugar carefully, because colesevelam can cause hyperglycemia.
C) The patient needs to take the insulin at least 3 hours before the colesevelam.
D) The patient needs to use an oral antidiabetic agent or agents, not insulin, with colesevelam.
Q2) Lovastatin [Mevacor] is prescribed for a patient for the first time. The nurse should provide the patient with which instruction?
A) "Take lovastatin with your evening meal."
B) "Take this medicine before breakfast."
C) "You may take lovastatin without regard to meals."
D) "Take this medicine on an empty stomach."
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse how beta blockers increase the oxygen supply to the heart in the treatment of anginal pain. The nurse tells the student that beta blockers:
A) dilate arterioles to improve myocardial circulation.
B) improve cardiac contractility, which makes the heart more efficient.
C) increase arterial pressure to improve cardiac afterload.
D) increase the time the heart is in diastole.
Q2) A patient who has begun using transdermal nitroglycerin for angina reports occasional periods of tachycardia. The nurse will expect the prescriber to order:
A) digoxin [Lanoxin] to slow the heart rate.
B) immediate discontinuation of the nitroglycerin.
C) periods of rest when the heart rate increases.
D) verapamil as an adjunct to nitroglycerin therapy.
Q3) A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states, "Nitroglycerin:
A) dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart."
B) increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle."
C) increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output."
D) promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."
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53
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Heparin has a longer half-life."
B) "Heparin has fewer adverse effects."
C) "The onset of warfarin is delayed."
D) "Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation."
Q2) A patient who is taking warfarin [Coumadin] has just vomited blood. The nurse notifies the provider, who orders laboratory work revealing a PT of 42 seconds and an INR of 3.5. The nurse will expect to administer:
A) phytonadione (vitamin K1) 1 mg IV over 1 hour.
B) phytonadione (vitamin K1) 2.5 mg PO.
C) protamine sulfate 20 mg PO.
D) protamine sulfate 20 mg slow IV push.
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Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is evaluating a patient admitted to the emergency department with an evolving STEMI for possible administration of thrombolytic therapy. Which information, identified during history taking, would contraindicate this type of therapy?
A) The patient just completed her last menstrual cycle.
B) The patient states that the chest pain started 1 hour ago.
C) The patient has a history of a small cerebral aneurysm.
D) The patient has hypertension that is well controlled by diuretic therapy.
Q2) A patient who is receiving reperfusion therapy has a history of heparin-induced thrombosis (HIT). The patient has a creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min. In addition to the fibrinolytic agent, which medication will the nurse expect to administer to this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Bivalirudin [Angiomax]
C) Clopidogrel [Plavix]
D) Fondaparinux [Arixtra]
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948
Sample Questions
Q1) A child with moderate hemophilia A who weighs 20 kg is admitted to the hospital after a knee injury with bleeding into the joint. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication?
A) Advate 400 units IV over 10 minutes
B) Benefix 800 units slow IV push
C) Desmopressin 6 mcg IV over 15 to 30 minutes
D) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron] 200 mg IV
Q2) A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives, a low-grade temperature elevation, and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to:
A) administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
B) give an antipyretic medication.
C) give oral diphenhydramine.
D) provide respiratory support.
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56
Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949
Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital before sinus surgery. The nurse preparing to care for this patient notes that the admission hemoglobin is 10.2 gm/dL, and the hematocrit is 32%. The nurse will ask the child's parents which question about their daughter?
A) "Does she eat green, leafy vegetables?"
B) "Has she begun menstruating?"
C) "Is she a vegetarian?"
D) "Is there a chance she might be pregnant?"
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with moderate vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency. The nurse reviews the laboratory work and notes that the plasma B<sub>12</sub> is low; also, a Schilling test reveals B<sub>12</sub> malabsorption. The provider orders oral cyanocobalamin 500 mcg/day. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss IM dosing.
B) request an order for folic acid.
C) suggest an increased dose.
D) suggest platelet transfusion therapy.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients are eligible to receive erythropoiesis stimulating agents?
A) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies who require transfusions
B) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies whose chemotherapy is palliative
C) All patients whose goal of therapy is curative
D) All patients with nonmyeloid malignancies and chemotherapy-induced anemia
E) All patients with leukemias or myeloid malignancies
Q2) A patient with lung cancer receives filgrastim [Neupogen] after chemotherapy to reduce neutropenia. The patient reports a moderate degree of bone pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Obtain an order to administer acetaminophen.
B) Request an order for a complete blood count (CBC).
C) Request an order to reduce the dose of filgrastim.
D) Suspect metastasis of the cancer to the bone.
Q3) A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure?
A) Filgrastim [Neupogen]
B) Pegfilgrastim [Neulasta]
C) Oprelvekin [Neumega]
D) Sargramostim [Leukine]
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58
Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most reliable measure for assessing diabetes control over the preceding 3-month period?
A) Self-monitoring blood glucose (SMBG) graph report
B) Patient's report
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes recently became pregnant. The nurse plans a blood glucose testing schedule for her. What is the recommended monitoring schedule?
A) Before each meal and before bed
B) In the morning for a fasting level and at 4:00 PM for the peak level
C) 6 or 7 times a day
D) 3 times a day, along with urine glucose testing
Q3) The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include?
A) Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis
B) Cranial nerve testing for peripheral neuropathy
C) Pedal pulse palpation for arterial insufficiency
D) Auscultation of the carotids for bruits associated with atherosclerosis
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a patient notes that the patient has a temperature of 104°F and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. The patient's skin is warm and moist, and the patient complains that the room is too warm. The patient appears nervous and has protuberant eyes. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) cretinism.
B) Graves' disease.
C) myxedema.
D) Plummer's disease.
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department with a heart rate of 128 beats/min and a temperature of 105°F. The patient's skin feels hot and moist. The free T? level is 4 ng/dL, the free T? level is 685 pg/dL, and the TSH level is 0.1 microunits/mL. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to administer:
A) intravenous levothyroxine.
B) iodine-131 (131I).
C) methimazole [Tapazole].
D) propylthiouracil (PTU).
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 60
Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with acromegaly asks the nurse about treatments for this condition. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Drugs are generally used after surgical and radiation therapies have been tried.
B) Drug therapy is easy to administer.
C) Drug therapy is inexpensive.
D) Drug therapy is generally short term.
Q2) A nurse teaches a nursing student about the differences between desmopressin (DDAVP) and vasopressin [Pitressin]. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Desmopressin has a shorter duration of action than vasopressin."
B) "Desmopressin is easier to administer than vasopressin."
C) "Vasopressin can be used in cardiac resuscitation."
D) "Vasopressin can cause serious adverse cardiovascular effects."
Q3) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males?
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25954
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about glucocorticoid therapy to a patient preparing to be discharged home. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of glucocorticoid therapy?
A) "I will take the entire dose early with breakfast."
B) "I may take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the afternoon."
C) "I will divide the dose in half and take half in the morning and half in the evening."
D) "I will take a dose with each meal."
Q2) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with adrenal hormone deficiency will begin taking hydrocortisone. The nurse provides teaching for this patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may take all of my daily dose in the morning or divide it in half and take it twice daily."
B) "I will need to take this medication until my symptoms completely clear, and then I may stop."
C) "Side effects are common with hydrocortisone, even with therapeutic doses."
D) "When I am sick, I should take 3 times the normal dose for 3 days in a row."
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."
B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."
C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."
D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:
A) waistline and shoulders."
B) abdomen and arms."
C) breasts and abdomen."
D) thighs and calves."
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63
Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a combination oral contraceptive (OC) and reports breast tenderness, edema, and occasional nausea. What will the nurse recommend?
A) The patient should ask her provider about an OC with less progestin.
B) The patient should discuss an alternate method of birth control.
C) The patient should request an OC containing less estrogen.
D) The patient should take the OC at bedtime to reduce side effects.
Q2) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is preparing to administer a first dose of intramuscular DMPA [Depo-Provera] to a young adult patient. The woman tells the nurse she has just finished her period. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the injection today and counsel backup contraception for 7 days.
B) Administer the injection today and tell her that protection is immediate.
C) Obtain a pregnancy test to rule out pregnancy before administering the drug.
D) Schedule an appointment for her to receive the injection in 3 weeks.
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64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving menotropins [Repronex] for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened.
B) Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds.
C) Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation.
D) Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropins.
Q2) An infertile patient has received two 5-day courses of clomiphene [Clomid] to help her conceive. An ultrasound 1 week after the last dose reveals that follicular maturation has occurred without ovulation. The nurse expects the next step for this patient to be:
A) administration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
B) an order for cabergoline to be given twice weekly.
C) evaluation of ovarian and pituitary function.
D) repeating clomiphene once daily for 5 days.
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65
Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching to a woman who is taking tranexamic acid [Lysteda] for menorrhagia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience back pain or muscle cramps while taking this drug."
B) "I may take two tablets 3 times daily for up to 5 days with each period."
C) "I should take an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy while taking this drug."
D) "I should take this medication with food to improve absorption of the drug."
Q2) A patient has received two doses of dinoprostone [Prepidil] to initiate labor. It has been 6 hours since the last dose. The nurse assesses the patient and notes that the cervix is ripe and dilated to 4 cm, but contractions are diminishing in intensity and frequency. What will the nurse expect to do?
A) Administer oxytocin.
B) Monitor urine output.
C) Prepare for a cesarean section.
D) Watch closely for fetal distress.
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959
Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient who swims competitively admits to using anabolic steroids to increase her muscle mass and improve her performance. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Anabolic steroids may actually regulate her periods.
B) Breast size may increase as a result of this drug use.
C) The risk of liver disease will increase.
D) Voice changes and facial hair will reverse when she stops the drug.
Q2) An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment regimen?
A) "I will need to have x-rays of my hands and feet every 6 months."
B) "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."
C) "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer."
D) "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."
Q3) A nurse is teaching a male adult patient about the use of testosterone gel. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should apply this to my forearms and neck after showering."
B) "I should keep treated areas exposed to the air so that they can dry."
C) "I should not let my child touch the gel to prevent behavioral problems."
D) "I should not swim or bathe for 3 to 4 hours after applying the gel."
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Page 67
Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960
Sample Questions
Q1) Tadalafil [Cialis] was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin [Minipress] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil [Cialis]?
A) "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse."
B) "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose."
C) "I should take this medication with food."
D) "I should take this medication no more than once a day."
Q2) A nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who will receive tadalafil [Cialis] for erectile dysfunction. The patient reports that he expects to have sexual activity 3 or 4 times a week. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) Adverse effects of tadalafil resolve more quickly than those of sildenafil.
B) There is an increased risk of priapism with frequent sexual activity.
C) He should take tadalafil 30 to 60 minutes before sexual activity.
D) He should talk to his provider about daily dosing of tadalafil.
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68
Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who breast-feeds her infant asks the nurse about the immunity the infant receives from breast milk. What does the nurse tell the patient about immunity through breast-feeding?
A) "The immunity protects the infant from hypersensitivity reactions."
B) "The immunity provides phagocytes to help the infant fight infections."
C) "The immunity results from the transfer of IgA through the breast milk."
D) "The immunity protects the infant from respiratory and gastrointestinal (GI) microbes."
Q2) A nurse is reviewing the immune system with a group of nursing students. One student asks about the difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity. What should the nurse reply?
A) "Humoral immunity does not involve helper T cells in the immune response."
B) "Humoral immunity does not have a role in hypersensitivity reactions."
C) "Humoral immunity requires cytolytic T cells that attack antigens directly."
D) "Humoral immunity uses cells produced by B lymphocytes in the immune response."
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69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse at an immunization clinic is providing vaccines to children. The parent of a child waiting to receive vaccines tells the nurse that the child has an immune deficiency disorder. The nurse understands that which vaccine should not be administered to this child?
A) Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
B) Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine
C) Polio injection
D) Varicella virus vaccine
Q2) The nurse at a public health infant immunization clinic is acting as a preceptor for a nursing student. To assess the student's understanding of vaccinations, the nurse asks the student where the hepatitis B vaccine (HepB) should be administered. The student would be correct to respond that the hepatitis B vaccine should be administered in the:
A) dorsogluteal muscle in an adult.
B) anterolateral thigh in infants.
C) ventrogluteal muscle in adolescents.
D) deltoid of toddlers.
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963
Sample Questions
Q1) The public health nurse is teaching a group of parents about immunizations. The nurse tells the parents that after receiving the varicella virus vaccine, children should temporarily avoid close contact with whom?
A) Neonates
B) Siblings
C) Relatives older than 65 years
D) Pregnant women
E) Individuals infected with HIV
Q2) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration?
A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.
B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.
C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.
D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.
E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.
C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.
D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.
Q2) A patient will begin taking fexofenadine [Allegra] for hay fever. The nurse teaching this patient will tell the patient that:
A) fexofenadine should be taken with food to prevent gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.
B) the medication may be taken once or twice daily.
C) tolerance to sedation will occur in a few weeks.
D) with renal impairment, this drug should be taken every other day.
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965
Sample Questions
Q1) An older male patient with an increased risk of MI is taking furosemide [Lasix] and low-dose aspirin. The patient is admitted to the hospital, and the nurse notes an initial blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. The patient has had a 10-pound weight gain since a previous admission 3 months earlier. The patient has voided only a small amount of concentrated urine. The serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are elevated. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) adding an antihypertensive medication.
B) obtaining serum electrolytes.
C) ordering a potassium-sparing diuretic.
D) withdrawing the aspirin.
Q2) A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL, and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do?
A) Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache.
B) Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity.
C) Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose.
D) Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25966
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse tells a nursing student that the glucocorticoids given for rheumatoid arthritis are nearly identical to substances produced naturally by the body. The student remarks that the drug must be very safe. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "As long as the drug is taken as prescribed, side effects usually do not occur."
B) "By interrupting the inflammatory process, these drugs inhibit side effects."
C) "Side effects can occur and are dependent on the dose and duration of treatment."
D) "The negative feedback loop prevents side effects."
Q2) A patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for several months arrives in the clinic. The nurse notes that the patient's cheeks appear full and that a prominent hump of fat is present on the upper back. The nurse will ask the provider to order which test(s)?
A) Liver function tests
B) Serum electrolytes
C) Tuberculin skin test
D) Vitamin D levels
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25967
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:
A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.
B) limiting folic acid consumption.
C) reporting alopecia and rash.
D) taking the medication on a daily basis.
Q2) A nurse is discussing the administration of an intravenous infusion of rituximab (Rituxan) with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education about the care of a patient receiving this drug?
A) "Angioedema and hypersensitivity may occur, but they are usually self-limiting and mild."
B) "I should be prepared to administer epinephrine, glucocorticoids, and oxygen if needed."
C) "I will administer an antihistamine and acetaminophen before beginning the infusion."
D) "I will monitor this patient's blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation closely."
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25968
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?
A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."
B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."
C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."
D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."
Q2) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia, and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.
A) increasing; allopurinol
B) increasing; warfarin
C) reducing; allopurinol
D) reducing; warfarin
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25969
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports experiencing weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and nocturia. Total serum calcium is 10.5 mg/dL. A dipstick urinalysis shows a positive result for protein. When questioned, the patient reports taking vitamin D and calcium supplements. The nurse will counsel the patient to:
A) reduce the amount of vitamin D and stop taking the calcium.
B) discuss taking calcitonin-salmon [Fortical] with the provider.
C) stop both supplements and discuss the use of a diuretic with the provider.
D) stop taking vitamin D, reduce the amount of calcium, and increase the fluid intake.
Q2) A nurse is providing education to a patient who will begin taking alendronate [Fosamax]. Which complication should the patient be instructed to report immediately?
A) Difficulty swallowing
B) Dizziness
C) Drowsiness
D) Pallor
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just received a prescription for fluticasone/salmeterol [Advair Diskus]. What will the nurse include as part of the teaching for this patient about the use of this device?
A) "You do not need good hand-lung coordination to use this device."
B) "You will begin to inhale before activating the device."
C) "You will need to use a spacer to help control the medication."
D) "You will take 2 inhalations twice daily."
Q2) A child is receiving a combination albuterol/ipratropium [DuoNeb] inhalation treatment. The patient complains of a dry mouth and sore throat. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to report systemic anticholinergic side effects.
B) Discontinue the aerosol treatment immediately.
C) Notify the provider of a possible allergic reaction.
D) Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.
Q3) Which drugs are used to treat COPD?
A) Anticholinergic medications
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Leukotriene modifiers
D) Long-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists
E) Monoclonal antibodies
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25971
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a cough has been advised to use guaifenesin. The patient asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the drug. The nurse will explain that guaifenesin:
A) dries secretions to help suppress coughing so patients can rest.
B) helps stimulate the flow of secretions to increase cough productivity.
C) helps to relieve chest pain associated with a cough.
D) stimulates the body's natural immune responses.
Q2) What is ipratropium bromide [Atrovent]?
A) A cholinergic agent used for perennial rhinitis
B) An anticholinergic used for allergic rhinitis and colds
C) A medication that is used only in patients with asthma
D) A drug that is inappropriate for use in patients with allergic rhinitis
Q3) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, I should use it every other day."
B) "I should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid."
C) "I should use the glucocorticoid whenever I have symptoms."
D) "I will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25972
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and a cimetidine [Tagamet]. Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?
A) "Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine."
B) "The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect."
C) "Take the antacid 15 minutes before the ranitidine."
D) "Take the antacid 30 minutes after the ranitidine."
Q2) Which nonpharmaceutical interventions can be used to reduce symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) Avoiding late-night meals
B) Consuming a glass of wine with meals
C) Drinking soft drinks
D) Losing weight
E) Stopping smoking
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.
B) Give another dose of the psyllium.
C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.
D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.
Q2) The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has pebble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider?
A) Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories
B) Magnesium citrate
C) Methylcellulose [Citrucel]
D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25974
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital who reports having recurrent, crampy abdominal pain followed by diarrhea. The patient tells the nurse that the diarrhea usually relieves the pain and that these symptoms have occurred daily for the past 6 months. The patient undergoes a colonoscopy, for which the findings are normal. The nurse will plan to teach this patient to:
A) use antispasmodic medications.
B) avoid food containing lactose and gluten.
C) keep a food, stress, and symptom diary.
D) use antidiarrheal drugs to manage symptoms.
Q2) A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is to begin taking oral metoclopramide [Reglan]. The patient asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "After 3 months, if the drug is not effective, you may need to increase the dose."
B) "Metoclopramide may cause hiccups, especially after meals."
C) "Serious side effects may occur but will stop when the drug is discontinued."
D) "You should take the drug 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime."
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient who is malnourished and has a history of poor nutrition. The patient reports difficulty seeing at night. This patient is likely to be deficient in which fat-soluble vitamin?
A) A (retinol)
B) D
C) E (alpha-tocopherol)
D) K
Q2) A patient who is known to be a heavy drinker is brought to the emergency department, with ataxia and confusion. The patient cannot remember the events of the previous day. The examination reveals nystagmus, and the patient reports having double vision. The nurse will expect to administer which vitamin to this patient?
A) Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) IV
B) Intramuscular pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
C) Intravenous thiamine (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
D) Nicotinic acid (niacin) PO
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has received a prescription for orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss asks the nurse how the drug works. The nurse will tell the patient that orlistat works by:
A) altering how the body stores energy.
B) reducing the body's absorption of fats.
C) increasing the body's metabolic rate.
D) suppressing the appetite.
Q2) Which statement by a patient about to begin taking orlistat [Xenical] for weight loss therapy indicates an understanding of this drug's actions?
A) "I can eat as much as I want and still lose weight."
B) "I should avoid fat-soluble vitamin supplements while taking this drug."
C) "If I take a bulk-forming laxative, I can reduce the incidence of fecal incontinence."
D) "If I take the drug 4 times daily instead of twice daily, I will lose weight faster."
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25977
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall."
B) "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid."
C) "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells."
D) "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."
Q2) Which patients should be given antibiotics prophylactically?
A) Children who attend day care with other children who have strep throat
B) Children undergoing chemotherapy who have mild neutropenia
C) Patients with certain congenital heart defects at risk for bacterial endocarditis
D) Patients with compound fractures undergoing surgical repair
E) Postoperative patients who have undergone emergency cesarean sections
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25978
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse transcribes a new prescription for potassium penicillin G given intravenously (IV) every 8 hours and gentamicin given IV every 12 hours. Which is the best schedule for administering these drugs?
A) Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1800 and 0600.
B) Give the penicillin at 0800, 1600, and 2400; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 1200 and 2400.
C) Give the penicillin at 0600, 1400, and 2200; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] at 0600 and 1800.
D) Give the penicillin every 8 hours; give the gentamicin [Garamycin] simultaneously with two of the penicillin doses.
Q2) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.
C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.
D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.
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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse notes that the patient is experiencing flushing, rash, pruritus, and urticaria. The patient's heart rate is 120 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 92/57 mm Hg. The nurse understands that these findings are consistent with:
A) allergic reaction.
B) red man syndrome.
C) rhabdomyolysis.
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Q2) A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and is going out of town in 2 days. To treat the infection quickly, the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order:
A) aztreonam [Azactam].
B) fosfomycin [Monurol].
C) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim].
D) vancomycin [Vancocin].
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25980
Sample Questions
Q1) Tetracyclines are considered first-line drugs for which disorders?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis cervicitis
B) Clostridium difficile diarrhea
C) Lyme disease
D) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococus aureus skin infections
E) Typhus fever
Q2) A child with an upper respiratory infection caused by B. pertussis is receiving erythromycin ethylsuccinate. After 2 days of treatment, the parent asks the nurse why the child's symptoms have not improved. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Erythromycin eliminates the bacteria that causes the infection, but not the toxin that causes the symptoms."
B) "We may need to add penicillin or another antibiotic to increase the antimicrobial spectrum."
C) "We will need to review the culture sensitivity information to see whether a different antibiotic is indicated."
D) "Your child may have developed a suprainfection that we need to culture and treat."
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88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25981
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient shows signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Which aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered?
A) Amikacin [Amikin]
B) Kanamycin [Kantrex]
C) Neomycin [Neomycin]
D) Paromomycin [Humatin]
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.
B) Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly.
C) Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload.
D) Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.
Q3) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of gentamicin to a patient who is receiving the drug 3 times daily. The nurse will monitor ____ levels.
A) peak
B) peak and trough
C) serum drug
D) trough
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25982
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is obtaining a drug history from a patient about to receive sulfadiazine. The nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin, glipizide, and a thiazide diuretic. Based on this assessment, the nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the antibiotic to TMP/SMZ.
B) increase the dose of the glipizide.
C) monitor the patient's electrolytes closely.
D) monitor the patient's coagulation levels.
Q2) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders TMP/SMZ. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of an allergic reaction.
B) Patients taking TMP/SMZ may need increased doses of glipizide.
C) The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ.
D) The patient should stop taking the glipizide while taking the TMP/SMZ.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25983
Sample Questions
Q1) Before giving methenamine [Hiprex] to a patient, it is important for the nurse to review the patient's history for evidence of which problem?
A) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
B) History of reactions to antibiotic agents
C) Possibility of pregnancy
D) Previous resistance to antiseptic agents
Q2) A pregnant female patient with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, urinary urgency and frequency, and a low-grade fever is allergic to sulfa, ciprofloxacin, and amoxicillin. The nurse knows that the best alternative for treating this urinary tract infection is with:
A) cephalexin [Keflex].
B) fosfomycin [Monurol].
C) methenamine [Hiprex].
D) nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin].
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25984
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients should be tested for latent TB?
A) A day care employee
B) A worker in a mycobacteriology laboratory
C) A patient with cardiovascular disease
D) A patient with diabetes mellitus
E) An immigrant from a country where TB is prevalent
Q2) A patient is about to begin treatment with isoniazid. The nurse learns that the patient also takes phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) increasing the phenytoin dose.
B) reducing the isoniazid dose.
C) monitoring isoniazid levels.
D) monitoring phenytoin levels.
Q3) A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB) in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will be used initially?
A) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
C) Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
Page 92
D) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?
A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]
B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]
C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]
D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who also has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) skin infection. The prescriber has ordered daptomycin [Cubicin]. The nurse encourages the student to approach the provider to request a different antibiotic because of which facts about daptomycin?
A) It causes significant renal impairment.
B) It is approved only for bloodstream and skin infections.
C) It increases the risk of serious cardiorespiratory events.
D) It is more likely to produce resistant strains of bacteria.
E) It is not effective against MRSA infections.
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25986
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B intravenously. The nurse will expect to pretreat the patient with which medications?
A) Acetaminophen [Tylenol], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
B) Aspirin, diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
C) Ibuprofen [Motrin], diphenhydramine [Benadryl], and meperidine [Demerol]
D) Morphine sulfate [Morphine] and acetaminophen [Tylenol]
Q2) A patient is being treated with amphotericin B [Abelcet] for a systemic fungal infection. After several weeks of therapy, the provider orders flucytosine [Ancobon] in addition to the amphotericin. The nurse understands that the rationale for this combination is that it:
A) broadens the antifungal spectrum.
B) improves the effectiveness of the amphotericin B.
C) lowers the dose of amphotericin B and reduces toxicity.
D) treats fungal central nervous system (CNS) infection.
Q3) Which superficial mycosis is generally treated with oral antifungal agents?
A) Tinea capitis
B) Tinea corporis
C) Tinea cruris
D) Tinea pedis
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Page 94
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25987
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with HIV contracts herpes simplex virus (HSV), and the prescriber orders acyclovir [Zovirax] 400 mg PO twice daily for 10 days. After 7 days of therapy, the patient reports having an increased number of lesions. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) extend this patient's drug therapy to twice daily for 12 months.
B) give intravenous foscarnet every 8 hours for 2 to 3 weeks.
C) increase the acyclovir dose to 800 mg PO 5 times daily.
D) order intravenous valacyclovir [Valtrex] 1 gm PO twice daily for 10 days.
Q2) A patient comes to the clinic and receives valacyclovir [Valtrex] for a herpes-zoster virus. The nurse instructs the patient to take the medication:
A) without regard to meals.
B) without any dairy products.
C) each morning.
D) on an empty stomach.
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95
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25988
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and is taking high doses of zidovudine [Retrovir]. The nurse is providing patient education about the adverse effects of the medication. Which statement by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience fatigue from anemia."
B) "I may be more susceptible to infection from neutropenia."
C) "I may have a deficiency of vitamin B<sub>6</sub>."
D) "I may have a deficiency of folic acid."
Q2) A patient starting therapy with efavirenz [Sustiva] asks about the timing of the medication with regard to meals. Which patient education about the administration of this medication should the nurse provide?
A) The drug must be taken within 30 minutes after a meal.
B) The drug is best taken with a high-fat meal.
C) The drug can be taken anytime without regard to meals.
D) The drug should be taken once daily on an empty stomach.
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Page 96
Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25989
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia, vagina, and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication?
A) Acyclovir [Zovirax]
B) Azithromycin [Zithromax]
C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
D) Tinidazole [Tindamax]
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent students about sexually transmitted diseases. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of infections caused by C. trachomatis?
A) "C. trachomatis conjunctivitis in newborns can result in blindness."
B) "The CDC recommends screening for chlamydial infections in all sexually active men."
C) "Treatment for C. trachomatis should be initiated when infections are symptomatic."
D) "Women with asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infections can become sterile."
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an abrasion, and the nurse is preparing to cleanse the area with iodine. Which preparation will the nurse use?
A) Free elemental iodine
B) Iodine solution
C) Iodine tincture
D) Povidone-iodine
Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department with multiple dirty abrasions after a bicycle-automobile accident . Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone-iodine [Betadine]
D) Soap and water
Q3) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?
A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)
B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)
C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)
D) Sodium hypochlorite
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Page 98
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with strongyloidiasis is being treated with ivermectin [Stromectol]. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) A Mazotti-type reaction is likely.
B) Hypotension is a common side effect of the drug.
C) The drug should be taken every 6 to 12 months until symptoms have cleared.
D) The drug should be taken with water for 1 to 2 days.
Q2) A patient is being treated with albendazole [Albenza] for neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of the pork tapeworm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the drug regimen?
A) "I may need to take this medication for a month before the infestation is cleared."
B) "I should take this drug with a fatty meal to improve absorption."
C) "I will need to have liver function tests before and during treatment."
D) "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free days."
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention, the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?
A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]
C) Primaquine phosphate
D) Quinine [Qualaquin]
Q2) A patient who is a missionary has returned from Africa to the United States and has completed treatment for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The provider has determined that clinical cure has been achieved. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about:
A) beginning medications for a radical cure.
B) beginning suppressive therapy.
C) reporting visual disturbances and headaches.
D) using insect repellents and mosquito netting.
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is diagnosed with cryptosporidiosis, and the prescriber orders nitazoxanide [Alinia]. While preparing the child's parents to administer this drug, the nurse will:
A) determine whether the child is taking immunosuppressant medications.
B) instruct the family to have the child take the drug on an empty stomach.
C) teach the parents that yellow discoloration of the sclerae represents a serious side effect.
D) tell the parents that headache, dry mouth, and a metallic taste are common.
Q2) A family has just returned from a camping trip, and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures, the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?
A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
C) Miltefosine [Impavido]
D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25994
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent has been instructed to apply a combination product of pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide [RID] to treat head lice in a child. The parent asks the nurse why it is necessary to repeat the application in 9 days. The nurse will respond by telling the parent that:
A) a second treatment helps combat medication resistance.
B) the dose needed to kill lice is too toxic to use all at once.
C) the combination is active only against adult lice and not ova.
D) the second dose helps rid the hair of nits and ova.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how to examine children in a day care center for pediculus humanus capitis (head lice). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this teaching?
A) "Adult lice are easily visible on the hair shaft."
B) "Children from lower socioeconomic families are more likely to have lice."
C) "I may observe hives, boils, and impetigo on the child's scalp if lice are present."
D) "I should be careful to prevent the lice from jumping into my hair."
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25995
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm³. The nurse expects the provider to:
A) begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics.
B) obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics.
C) order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia.
D) reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.
Q2) What contributes to drug resistance to chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Cellular production of P-glycoprotein
B) Creation of selection pressure by drugs
C) Drug-induced cellular mutation
D) Increased drug uptake by tumor cells
E) Reduced target molecule sensitivity
Q3) A patient is receiving chemotherapy. Seven days after a dose, the patient's neutrophil count is 1000 cells/mm³.The nurse will tell this patient:
A) that hospitalization is necessary to provide infection prophylaxis.
B) that the provider will probably repeat the lab work in 3 to 5 days.
C) to ask the provider about skipping the next dose of chemotherapy.
D) to report any symptoms such as pus, abscesses, or cough.
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Page 103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase-specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain?
A) Cell-cycle phase-nonspecific drugs are less toxic.
B) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs do not harm "resting" cells.
C) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs should be given at specific intervals.
D) Neither type is toxic to cells in the "resting" G0 phase.
Q2) A patient will begin receiving vincristine [Oncovin] to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which side effect(s) will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately?
A) Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
B) Hair loss
C) Headaches
D) Tingling of the extremities
Q3) A patient will begin chemotherapy with cisplatin. Which medications will the nurse expect to administer to offset this agent's side effects?
A) Amifostine [Ethyol], diuretics, and antiemetics
B) Antiemetics, vitamin B<sub>12</sub>, and glucocorticoids
C) Dexamethasone, antiemetics, and vistonuridine
D) Folic acid, gabapentin, and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
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Page 104
Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premenopausal woman has ER-positive breast cancer, and her prescriber has ordered tamoxifen [Nolvadex]. She asks the nurse if anastrozole [Arimidex] would work better for her. What will the nurse tell her?
A) Anastrozole is more likely to cause hot flushes than tamoxifen.
B) Anastrozole is more likely to promote endometrial carcinoma.
C) Cancer recurrence is higher with anastrozole.
D) Until she is postmenopausal, anastrozole will not be effective.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient in the oncology unit who was recently diagnosed with advanced renal carcinoma. The nurse prepares to administer aldesleukin [Proleukin] as part of the treatment regimen. What is the primary adverse effect of this drug?
A) Hypertension
B) Capillary leakage syndrome
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hyperuricemia
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Page 105
Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer timolol [Timoptic] eye drops to a patient who has open-angle glaucoma. The nurse notes that the patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse will contact the provider to discuss changing to which medication?
A) Betaxolol
B) Carteolol
C) Levobunolol
D) Metipranolol
Q2) A patient with severe allergic conjunctivitis who has been using cromolyn ophthalmic drops for 2 days calls the nurse to report persistence of the symptoms. When the nurse explains that it takes several weeks for maximum benefit to occur, the patient asks if there is something else to use in the meantime. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which drug with the provider?
A) An ophthalmic demulcent
B) H1-receptor antagonists
C) Glucocorticoid drops
D) Ocular decongestants
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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25999
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
C) Erythromycin [Ery-Tab] and benzoyl peroxide
D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane]
Q2) An infant has a severe contact diaper dermatitis. The provider orders triamcinolone acetonide [Kenalog] 0.1% cream to be applied 3 times daily. When teaching the infant's parents about this medication, the nurse will instruct them to apply:
A) a thick layer and massage the cream into the skin.
B) a thin layer and leave the diaper open as much as possible.
C) the cream and place an occlusive dressing over the area.
D) the cream and put the infant's diaper on tightly.
Q3) To provide protection against the full range of ultraviolet (UV) radiation, an organic sunscreen must contain which agent?
A) Avobenzone
B) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
C) Titanium dioxide
D) Zinc oxide
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Page 107
Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing health maintenance with the parent of a newborn infant. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of ways to reduce the incidence of otitis media?
A) "I should hold my baby in an upright position during feeding."
B) "I should keep my baby out of day care during cold and flu season."
C) "My baby should not use a pacifier after 6 months of age."
D) "The pneumococcal vaccine will prevent my baby from getting ear infections."
Q2) A child has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), and the child's parent asks the nurse what this means. The nurse will explain that OME is:
A) a condition with a heightened risk of acute otitis media.
B) an acute ear infection with fluid in the middle ear.
C) an infection of the skin and tissues of the outer ear.
D) fluid in the middle ear without localized or systemic infection.
Q3) Which are components of otitis externa management?
A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops
B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator
C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming
D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear
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Page 108
Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient begins active labor at 30 weeks' gestation. The provider orders dexamethasone 6 mg intramuscularly to be given twice daily for 4 doses. The patient asks the nurse what effect this drug will have on the fetus. The nurse will tell her that the dexamethasone is given to:
A) improve cognitive function in the fetus.
B) improve fetal neuromotor development.
C) increase fetal weight and length.
D) increase lung development in the fetus.
Q2) A nurse is quizzing a nursing student who is preparing to care for a patient with cystic fibrosis. The patient uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI], dornase alfa [Pulmozyme], ibuprofen, and salmeterol [Serevent Diskus]. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of this patient's drug regimen?
A) "Dornase alfa is used as needed to decrease viscosity of sputum."
B) "Ibuprofen is used to minimize pleuritic pain associated with coughing."
C) "Salmeterol acts by causing bronchodilation and improving ciliary function."
D) "Tobramycin is given via a metered-dose inhaler to avoid systemic side effects."
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109
Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?
A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.
B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.
C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.
D) It increases the risk of bleeding.
Q2) A patient asks a nurse how to know whether dietary supplements are safe. The nurse will tell this patient that:
A) any standards addressing safety merely regulate labeling and manufacturing processes.
B) manufacturers must provide the FDA with efficacy claims prior to marketing their supplements.
C) the DSHEA requires labeling that prohibits claims of treatment of specific diseases or conditions.
D) the FDA must approve dietary supplements prior to marketing them in the United States.
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking dimercaprol [BAL in Oil] for arsenic poisoning. The nurse performs a medical history on this patient. Which aspect of the patient's history would cause the most concern?
A) Anemia
B) Lead exposure
C) Peanut allergy
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Q2) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?
A) Activated charcoal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Fomepizole [Antizol]
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Q3) Which chelating agents can be used to treat iron toxicity?
A) Calcium EDTA
B) Deferoxamine [Desferal]
C) Fomepizole [Antizol]
D) Penicillamine
E) Succimer [Chemet]
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is attending a conference about terrorism and emergency response. During a discussion of radiation emergencies, the use of potassium iodide is reviewed. When should potassium iodide be administered to be most effective after exposure to radiation?
A) Immediately after exposure
B) Within 48 hours after exposure
C) Within 72 hours after exposure
D) The time frame is not important
Q2) A nurse responds when a patient asks why the smallpox vaccine is no longer given. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "The smallpox vaccine can cause serious side effects."
B) "The smallpox vaccine can confer protection when given after exposure."
C) "The smallpox vaccine is too expensive to give routinely."
D) "The smallpox vaccine may cause live virus to spread to others."
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