Medical-Surgical Nursing
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and clinical skills necessary to care for adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasizing a holistic approach, the course covers assessment, diagnosis, planning, intervention, and evaluation of patient care, with a strong focus on evidence-based practice, critical thinking, and patient safety. Topics include fluid and electrolyte balance, perioperative care, cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, neurologic, and musculoskeletal disorders, as well as the management of patients with comorbidities. Students engage in both theoretical and hands-on learning experiences, preparing them to deliver competent, compassionate care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition by Lilley
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58 Chapters
791 Verified Questions
791 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2416
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47982
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is performing an assessment of a newly admitted patient. Which is an example of subjective data?
A) Blood pressure 158/96 mm Hg
B) Weight 255 pounds
C) The patient reports that he uses the herbal product ginkgo.
D) The patient's complete blood count results.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is developing a human needs statement for a patient who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Identification of human needs statements occur with which of these activities?
A) Collection of patient data
B) Administering interventions
C) Deciding on patient outcomes
D) Documenting the patient's behavior
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet?
A) Under the tongue
B) On top of the tongue
C) At the back of the throat
D) In the space between the cheek and the gum
Answer: A
Q2) The patient is stating that he has a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest?
A) A capsule
B) A tablet
C) An enteric-coated tablet
D) A powder
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that an elderly patient may experience a reduction in the stomach's ability to produce hydrochloric acid. This change may result in which effect?
A) Delayed gastric emptying
B) Increased gastric acidity
C) Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
D) Altered absorption of some drugs
Answer: D
Q2) Which statements are true regarding pediatric patients and pharmacokinetics?
A) The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.
B) Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased and may result in reduced renal function.
C) First-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation.
D) First-pass elimination is reduced because of the immaturity of the liver.
E) Total body water content is much less than in adults.
F) Gastric emptying is slowed because of slow or irregular peristalsis.
G) Gastric emptying is more rapid because of increased peristaltic activity.
Answer: A, B, D, F
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Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing an elderly Hispanic woman who is being treated for hypertension. During the assessment, what is important for the nurse to remember about cultural aspects?
A) The patient should be discouraged from using folk remedies and rituals.
B) The nurse will expect the patient to value protective bracelets and "root doctors" as healers.
C) The nurse will remember that the balance among body, mind, and environment is important for this patient's health beliefs.
D) The nurse's assessment needs to include gathering information regarding religious practices and beliefs regarding medication, treatment, and healing.
Q2) The nurse is performing an admission assessment. Which findings reflect components of a cultural assessment?
A) The patient uses aspirin as needed for pain.
B) The patient has a history of hypertension.
C) The patient uses herbal tea to relax in the evenings.
D) The patient does not speak English.
E) The patient is allergic to shellfish.
F) The patient does not eat pork products because of religious beliefs.
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6
Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing pediatric medication administration, the nurse recognizes that which type of medication error is most common with children?
A) Oral medication administration errors
B) Wrong route errors
C) Incorrect dosage form errors
D) Dosing errors
Q2) During a period of time when the computerized medication order system was down, the prescriber wrote admission orders, and the nurse is transcribing them. The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the prescriber's handwriting. Which is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Ask a colleague what the order says.
B) Contact the prescriber to clarify the order.
C) Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order.
D) Ask the patient what medications he takes at home.
Q3) Digoxin is available in 0.125-mg tablet form. Convert this dose to microgram strength. (do not round) _______
Q4) Levothyroxine is available in 75-mcg tablet form. Convert this dose to milligram strength. (do not round) _______
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is setting up a teaching session with an 85-year-old patient who will be going home on anticoagulant therapy. Which educational strategy would reflect consideration of the age-related changes that may exist with this patient?
A) Show a video about anticoagulation therapy.
B) Present all the information in one session just before discharge.
C) Give the patient pamphlets about the medications to read at home.
D) Develop large-print handouts that reflect the verbal information presented.
Q2) The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who will be self-administering a metered-dose inhaler. Which statement reflects a measurable outcome?
A) The patient will know about self-administration of a metered-dose inhaler.
B) The patient will understand the principles of self-administration of a metered-dose inhaler.
C) The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of self-administering a metered-dose inhaler.
D) The patient will comprehend the proper technique of self-administering a metered-dose inhaler.
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Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47988
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is giving a lecture about current U.S. laws and regulations of herbal products. According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act of 1994, which statement is true?
A) Medicinal herbs are viewed as dietary supplements.
B) Herbal remedies are held to the same standards as drugs.
C) Producers of herbal products must prove therapeutic efficacy.
D) Herbal remedies are protected by patent laws.
Q2) During an assessment, the patient tells the nurse that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits. Which drug or drug class, if taken, would have a potential interaction with the garlic?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Insulin
C) Antilipemic drugs
D) Sedatives
Q3) A patient with a PEG tube is to receive ferrous sulfate, 65 mg per the tube, daily. The medication is available as an elixir, 220 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing gene therapy in a continuing education class. Which is the best definition of eugenics?
A) The use of gene therapy to prevent disease
B) The development of new drugs based on gene therapy
C) Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others
D) The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications
Q2) The nurse is explaining the Human Genome Project to colleagues. Which of these is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) The study of genetic diseases.
B) The study of genetic traits in humans.
C) The discovery new genetic diseases.
D) To describe the entire genome of a human being.
Q3) A patient will be receiving ranitidine (Zantac) 150 mg twice a day. A liquid form is ordered because the patient cannot swallow pills or capsules; the concentration of the liquid is 15 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive per dose?
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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is giving liquid medications through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which technique is correct?
A) Administering the medications using a 3-mL medication syringe
B) Applying firm pressure on the syringe's piston to infuse the medication
C) Flushing the tubing with 30 mL of saline after the medication has been given
D) Using the barrel of the syringe, allowing the medication to flow via gravity into the tube
Q2) After administering an intradermal (ID) injection for a skin test, the nurse notices a small bleb at the injection site. Which of these is the best action for the nurse to take at this time?
A) Apply heat.
B) Massage the area.
C) Do nothing.
D) Report the bleb to the physician.
Q3) When administering nasal spray, which instruction by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "You will need to blow your nose before I give this medication."
B) "You will need to blow your nose after I give this medication."
C) "When I give this medication, you will need to hold your breath."
D) "You need to sit up for 5 minutes after you receive the nasal spray."
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 57-year-old woman being treated for end-stage breast cancer has been using a transdermal opioid analgesic as part of the management of pain. Lately, she has been experiencing breakthrough pain. The nurse expects this type of pain to be managed by which of these interventions?
A) Administering NSAIDs
B) Administering an immediate-release opioid
C) Changing the opioid route to the rectal route
D) Making no changes to the current therapy
Q2) The opioid Vicodin (acetaminophen/hydrocodone) is prescribed for a patient who has had surgery. The nurse informs the patient that which common adverse effects can occur with this medication?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Lightheadedness
D) Nervousness
E) Urinary retention
F) Itching
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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering a neuromuscular blocking drug, the nurse needs to remember which principle?
A) It is used instead of general anesthesia during surgery.
B) Only skeletal muscles are paralyzed; respiratory muscles remain functional.
C) It causes sedation and pain relief while allowing for lower doses of anesthetics.
D) Artificial mechanical ventilation is required because of paralyzed respiratory muscles.
Q2) While monitoring a patient who had surgery under general anesthesia 2 hours ago, the nurse notes a sudden elevation in body temperature. This finding may be an indication of which problem?
A) Tachyphylaxis
B) Postoperative infection
C) Malignant hypertension
D) Malignant hyperthermia
Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose.
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Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has received some traumatic news is panicking and asks for some medication to help settle down. The nurse anticipates giving which drug that is most appropriate for this situation?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Zolpidem (Ambien)
C) Phenobarbital
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Q2) A patient has been taking temazepam (Restoril) for intermittent insomnia. She calls the nurse to say that when she takes it, she sleeps well, but the next day she feels "so tired." Which explanation by the nurse is correct?
A) "Long-term use of this drug results in a sedative effect."
B) "If you take the drug every night, this hangover effect will be reduced."
C) "These drugs affect the sleep cycle, resulting in daytime sleepiness."
D) "These drugs increase the activity of the central nervous system, making you tired the next day."
Q3) A patient is about to receive pentobarbital (Nembutal) 100 mg IV as preoperative sedation. The medication is available in a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the patient receive for this dose?
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started?
A) Eye examination
B) Height and weight
C) Liver function studies
D) Hearing test
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the use of central nervous system stimulants. Which of these are indications for this class of drugs?
A) Narcolepsy
B) Depression
C) Panic attacks
D) Neonatal apnea
E) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
F) Appetite suppression
Q3) The order reads, "Give atomoxetine (Strattera) 0.5 mg/kg/day once daily in the morning before school." The child weighs 88 pounds. Identify how many milligrams will be administered per dose. _______
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a 9-year history of a seizure disorder that has been managed well with oral phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy. He is to be NPO (consume nothing by mouth) for surgery in the morning. What will the nurse do about his morning dose of phenytoin?
A) Give the same dose intravenously.
B) Give the morning dose with a small sip of water.
C) Contact the prescriber for another dosage form of the medication.
D) Notify the operating room that the medication has been withheld.
Q2) The nurse has given medication instructions to a patient receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient has an adequate understanding of the instructions?
A) "I will need to take extra care of my teeth and gums while on this medication."
B) "I can go out for a beer while on this medication."
C) "I can skip doses if the side effects bother me."
D) "I will be able to stop taking this drug once the seizures stop."
Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mg twice daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give to the patient for each dose. _______
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While a patient is receiving drug therapy for Parkinson's disease, the nurse monitors for dyskinesia, which is manifested by which finding?
A) Rigid, tense muscles
B) Difficulty in performing voluntary movements
C) Limp extremities with weak muscle tone
D) Confusion and altered mental status
Q2) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will give with each dose. _______
Q3) When a patient is taking an anticholinergic such as benztropine (Cogentin) as part of the treatment for Parkinson's disease, the nurse should include which information in the teaching plan?
A) Minimize the amount of fluid taken while on this drug.
B) Discontinue the medication if adverse effects occur.
C) Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.
D) Use artificial saliva, sugarless gum, or hard candy to counteract dry mouth.
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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil) for 6 months. The patient wants to go to a party and asks the nurse, "Will just one beer be a problem?" Which advice from the nurse is correct?
A) "You can drink beer as long as you have a designated driver."
B) "Now that you've been on the drug for 6 months, there will be no further dietary restrictions."
C) "If you begin to experience a throbbing headache, rapid pulse, or nausea, you'll need to stop drinking."
D) "You need to avoid all foods that contain tyramine, including beer, while taking this medication."
Q2) The nurse is reviewing medications used for depression. Which of these statements is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more widely prescribed today than tricyclic antidepressants?
A) SSRIs have fewer sexual side effects.
B) Unlike tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions.
C) Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs.
D) SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants.
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Chapter 17: Substance Use Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is experiencing severe ethanol withdrawal. Which are signs and symptoms of severe ethanol withdrawal?
A) Agitation
B) Drowsiness
C) Tremors
D) Systolic blood pressure higher than 200 mm Hg
E) Temperature over 100° F (37.7° C)
F) Pulse rate 150 beats/min
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will be taking varenicline (Chantix) as part of a smoking-cessation program. Which teaching points are appropriate for a patient taking this medication?
A) This drug is available as a chewing gum that can be taken to reduce cravings.
B) Use caution when driving because drowsiness may be a problem.
C) There have been very few adverse effects reported for this drug.
D) Notify the prescriber immediately if feelings of sadness or thoughts of suicide occur.
E) Avoid caffeine while on this drug.
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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering a stat dose of epinephrine. Epinephrine is appropriate for which situation?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Angina
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Tachycardia
Q2) The nurse is presenting information to a class of students about adrenergic drugs. Which are the effects of drugs that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Dilation of bronchioles
B) Constriction of bronchioles
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Increased heart rate
E) Dilated pupils
F) Constricted pupils
G) Glycogenolysis
Q3) The nurse is to administer epinephrine 0.3 mg subcutaneously. The ampule contains 1 mL of medication and is labeled 1 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of epinephrine the nurse will give. _______
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20
Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking an alpha blocker as treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia. The nurse will monitor for which potential drug effect?
A) Orthostatic hypotension
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Decreased urine flow
D) Discolored urine
Q2) During a teaching session about self-monitoring while taking a beta blocker at home, the nurse has taught the patient to take his apical pulse daily for 1 minute. If the pulse rate decreases to less than 60 beats/min, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of these?
A) Notify his prescriber.
B) Reduce the dose of his beta blocker by half.
C) Continue the medication because this is an expected effect.
D) Skip the medication dose that day, and check his pulse again the next day.
Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 9.375 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg each. Identify how many tablets will the nurse administer per dose.
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Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient is taking pilocarpine (Pilocar). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Anticholinergic poisoning
B) Glaucoma
C) Bladder atony
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q2) A patient is receiving a dose of edrophonium (Tensilon). The nurse recognizes that this drug is given to determine the diagnosis of which disease?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Alzheimer's disease
Q3) A patient has had an overdose of an intravenous cholinergic drug. The nurse expects to administer which drug as an antidote?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
C) Dobutamine
D) Atropine sulfate
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22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the use of anticholinergic drugs. Anticholinergic drugs block the effects of which nervous system?
A) Central nervous system
B) Somatic nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
Q2) In preparation for eye surgery, the nurse monitors for which desired drug effect in a patient who is receiving a cholinergic-blocking eyedrop medication?
A) Miosis
B) Mydriasis
C) Increased intraocular fluid production
D) Enhanced tear production
Q3) A patient is to receive glycopyrrolate (Robinul) 4 mcg/kg IM 30 minutes before a procedure. The patient weighs 110 pounds; the medication is available in a strength of 0.2 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication the nurse will draw up into the syringe. _______
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Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing for a community education program on hypertension. Which of these parameters determine the regulation of arterial blood pressure?
A) Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
B) Heart rate and peripheral resistance
C) Blood volume and renal blood flow
D) Myocardial contractility and arteriolar constriction
Q2) A patient is to receive enalapril (Vasotec) 5 mg IV every 6 hours. Each dose is given over 5 minutes. The medication is available in an injectable form, 1.25 mg/mL. Identify how many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the orders for a patient and notes a new order for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse checks the current medication orders, knowing that this drug class may have a serious interaction with what other drug class?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Diuretics
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
D) Nitrates
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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?
A) Apply the ointment on the skin on the forearm.
B) Apply the ointment only in the case of a mild angina episode.
C) Remove the old ointment before new ointment is applied.
D) Massage the ointment gently into the skin, and then cover the area with plastic wrap.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?
A) Take up to 5 doses at 15-minute intervals for an angina attack.
B) If the tablet does not dissolve quickly, chew the tablet for maximal effect.
C) If the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, call 911 immediately.
D) Wait 1 minute between doses of sublingual tablets, up to 3 doses.
Q3) A patient will be receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV push. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. Identify how much medication will the nurse draw up for each dose. _______
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Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit and receiving an infusion of milrinone (Primacor) for severe heart failure. The prescriber has written an order for an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix). How will the nurse give this drug?
A) Infuse the drug into the same intravenous line as the milrinone.
B) Stop the milrinone, flush the line, and then administer the furosemide.
C) Administer the furosemide in a separate intravenous line.
D) Notify the prescriber that the furosemide cannot be given at this time.
Q2) A patient has been placed on a milrinone (Primacor) infusion as part of the therapy for end-stage heart failure. What adverse effect of this drug will the nurse watch for when assessing this patient during the infusion?
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Cardiac dysrhythmias
Q3) The medication order for a 5-year-old child reads, "Give digoxin elixir, 15 mcg/kg, PO now." Convert the 15 micrograms to milligrams. _______
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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes in the patient's medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Ventricular ectopy
B) Atrial fibrillation
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Bradycardia
Q2) A patient has been started on therapy of a continuous infusion of lidocaine after receiving a loading dose of the drug. The nurse will monitor the patient for which adverse effect?
A) Drowsiness
B) Nystagmus
C) Dry mouth
D) Convulsions
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer a bolus dose of verapamil (Calan) as follows: "Give 5-mg bolus of verapamil, IV push, over 2 minutes. May repeat in 30 minutes if needed." The medication is available in a 2.5-mg/mL strength solution. Identify how many milliliters will the nurse draw into the syringe for this dose. _______
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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes in the patient's medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
A) Stabilizing an existing thrombus
B) Dissolving an existing thrombus
C) Preventing thrombus formation
D) Dilating the vessel around a clot
Q2) A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?
A) Dysrhythmias
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Anaphylactic reactions
D) Internal and superficial bleeding
Q3) A patient has received an overdose of enoxaparin (Lovenox). The order was for 30 mg, but the patient received 90 mg. The nurse notes that the patient is showing signs of bleeding (oozing blood from the intravenous sites, increased bruising) and notifies the physician, who prescribes protamine sulfate to cover the excess amount of enoxaparin that the patient received. Calculate how much protamine sulfate the patient will receive.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48008
Sample Questions
Q1) Antilipemic drug therapy is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse is providing instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instructions will the nurse include?
A) Limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
B) Eat extra servings of raw vegetables and fruit.
C) Report abnormal or unusual bleeding or yellow discoloration of the skin.
D) Report the occurrence of muscle pain immediately.
E) Drug interactions are rare with antilipemics.
F) Take the drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption.
Q2) The medication order reads, "Give simvastatin (Zocor) 30 mg daily at bedtime, PO." The medication is available in 20-mg tablets. Identify how many tablets the nurse will administer to the patient. _______
Q3) While a patient is receiving antilipemic therapy, the nurse knows to monitor the patient closely for the development of which problem?
A) Neutropenia
B) Pulmonary problems
C) Vitamin C deficiency
D) Liver dysfunction
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29
Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48009
Sample Questions
Q1) The order for a child reads, "Give furosemide (Lasix) 2 mg/kg IV STAT." The child weighs 33 pounds. Identify how many milligrams the child will receive for this dose.
Q2) Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient who is about to be discharged, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Take this medication in the evening."
B) "Avoid foods high in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, fresh vegetables, and dates."
C) "If you experience weight gain, such as 5 pounds or more per week, be sure to tell your physician during your next routine visit."
D) "Be sure to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying so as to prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes."
Q3) A patient is to receive furosemide (Lasix) via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. The order reads, "Give furosemide, 80 mg, per PEG tube once daily." The medication is available in a liquid form, 40 mg/5 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for each dose. _______
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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48010
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium for a patient on a regular medical-surgical unit. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
A) "We will need to monitor this infusion closely."
B) "The infusion rate needs to infuse at 10 mEq/hr."
C) "The intravenous potassium will be diluted before we give it."
D) "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted."
Q2) During diuretic therapy, the nurse monitors the fluid and electrolyte status of the patient. Which assessment findings are symptoms of hyponatremia?
A) Red, flushed skin
B) Lethargy
C) Decreased urination
D) Hypotension
E) Stomach cramps
F) Elevated temperature
Q3) The order reads, "Give 1500 mL of normal saline over 12 hours. The tubing drop factor is 15 gtt/mL." The nurse will set the gravity drip infusion at how many drops per minute (gtt/min). _______
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48011
Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old boy who is taking somatropin comes into the office because he had an asthma attack during a race at school. Because of this new development, the nurse expects which intervention to occur next?
A) He will need to stop participating in school physical education classes.
B) The somatropin must be discontinued immediately.
C) The somatropin dosage may be adjusted.
D) His growth will be documented and monitored for changes.
Q2) A patient's medication order indicates that he is to receive a dose of cosyntropin (Cortrosyn). The nurse is aware that this drug is used to diagnose which condition?
A) Adrenocortical insufficiency
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Pituitary dwarfism
Q3) Which of these hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Oxytocin
D) Growth hormone (GH)
E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48012
Sample Questions
Q1) The order reads, "Give levothyroxine (Synthroid), 200 mg, PO once every morning." Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Give the medication as ordered.
B) Change the dose to 200 mcg because that is what the prescriber meant.
C) Hold the drug until the prescriber returns to see the patient.
D) Question the order because the dose is higher than 200 mcg.
Q2) During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?
A) Using iodized salt when cooking
B) Avoiding foods containing iodine
C) Restricting fluid intake to 2500 mL/day
D) Increasing intake of sodium- and potassium-containing foods
Q3) When reviewing the laboratory values of a patient who is taking antithyroid drugs, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Decreased glucose levels
B) Decreased white blood cell count
C) Increased red blood cell count
D) Increased platelet count
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33
Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48013
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes has been treated for pneumonia for the past week. The patient has been receiving intravenous corticosteroids as well as antibiotics as part of his therapy. At this time, the pneumonia has resolved, but when monitoring the blood glucose levels, the nurse notices that the level is still elevated. What is the best explanation for this elevation?
A) The antibiotics may cause an increase in glucose levels.
B) The corticosteroids may cause an increase in glucose levels.
C) His type 2 diabetes has converted to type 1.
D) The hypoxia caused by the COPD causes an increased need for insulin.
Q2) When administering morning medications for a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes that the patient has an allergy to sulfa drugs. There is an order for the sulfonylurea glipizide (Glucotrol). Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Give the drug as ordered 30 minutes before breakfast.
B) Hold the drug, and check the order with the prescriber.
C) Give a reduced dose of the drug with breakfast.
D) Give the drug, and monitor for adverse effects.
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48014
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy has had surgery to correct an abdominal hernia. The nurse keeps in mind that which potential effect of this medication may have the most impact on the patient's recovery?
A) Hypotension
B) Delayed wound healing
C) Muscle weakness
D) Osteoporosis
Q2) The nurse is administering an adrenal drug to a patient. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for this patient?
A) Administering oral adrenal drugs on an empty stomach to maximize absorption
B) Rinsing the oral cavity after using corticosteroid inhalers
C) Administering the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression
D) Discontinuing the medication immediately if weight gain of 5 pounds or more in 1 week occurs
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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48015
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer the contraceptive form of medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera). What route is appropriate?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Intramuscular
C) Vaginal
D) Transdermal
Q2) An older adult female patient is receiving the progestin drug megestrol (Megace). Which is the most likely reason megestrol is ordered for this patient?
A) Migraine headaches
B) Osteoporosis
C) Appetite stimulant
D) Reduction of hot flashes
Q3) The nurse recognizes that the risk of osteoporosis is higher in an individual with which risk factor?
A) White or Asian race
B) African-American race
C) History of participation in active sports
D) Obesity
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Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48016
Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old male athlete admits to using androgenic steroids. The nurse tells him that which of these is a possible adverse effect of these drugs?
A) Liver damage
B) Renal failure
C) Heart failure
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Q2) During the administration of finasteride (Proscar), the nurse must remember which important precaution?
A) It must be taken on an empty stomach.
B) It must not be handled by pregnant women.
C) It is given by deep intramuscular injection to avoid tissue irritation.
D) The patient needs to be warned that alopecia is a common adverse effect.
Q3) The nurse notes in a female patient's history that she has an order for the androgen testosterone (Android). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
A) Fibrocystic breast disease
B) Hereditary angioedema
C) Hypertension
D) Inoperable breast cancer
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Page 37
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48017
Sample Questions
Q1) A child will be receiving diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 5 mg/kg/day, in divided doses, every 6 hours. The child weighs 80 pounds. Identify how many milligrams of medication will the child receive with each dose. (record answer using one decimal place)
Q2) The nurse will instruct patients about a possible systemic effect that may occur if excessive amounts of topically applied adrenergic nasal decongestants are used. Which systemic effect may occur?
A) Heartburn
B) Bradycardia
C) Drowsiness
D) Palpitations
Q3) During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?
A) Constipation
B) Abdominal cramps
C) Drowsiness
D) Decreased libido
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48018
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring drug levels for a patient who is receiving theophylline. The most recent theophylline level was 22 mcg/mL, and the nurse evaluates this level to be:
A) below the therapeutic level.
B) at a therapeutic level.
C) above the therapeutic level.
D) at a toxic level.
Q2) When evaluating a patient's use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time?
A) Notify the prescriber that the patient is unable to use the MDI.
B) Obtain an order for a peak flow meter.
C) Obtain an order for a spacer device.
D) Ask the prescriber if the medication can be given orally.
Q3) A patient will be receiving oral theophylline (Theo-Dur), 600 mg/day, in three divided doses. Identify how many milligrams the patient will receive per dose. _______
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48019
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient with an infection, and notes that the culture indicates a gram-positive organism. Which generation of cephalosporin is most appropriate for this type of infection?
A) First-generation
B) Second-generation
C) Third-generation
D) Fourth-generation
Q2) A patient will be receiving penicillin G potassium, 12 million units daily in divided doses every 4 hours IVPB. Identify how many units the patient will receive for each dose each day. _______
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a patient who will be taking a sulfonamide antibiotic. During sulfonamide therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of these drugs or drug classes?
A) Opioids
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Sulfonylureas
D) Antihistamines
E) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
F) Warfarin (Coumadin)
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48020
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse checks the patient's laboratory work prior to administering a dose of vancomycin (Vancocin) and finds that the trough vancomycin level is 24 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next?
A) Administer the vancomycin as ordered.
B) Hold the drug, and administer 4 hours later.
C) Hold the drug, and notify the prescriber.
D) Repeat the test to verify results.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be receiving aminoglycoside therapy. Which other medication or medication class, if ordered, would be a potential interaction concern?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Phenytoin
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) Loop diuretics
Q3) Which problem may occur in a patient who has started aminoglycoside therapy?
A) Constipation
B) Renal damage
C) Gynecomastia
D) Leukocytosis
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48021
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a viral infection is to receive ganciclovir (Cytovene) 5 mg/kg/day IVPB every morning. The patient weighs 110 pounds. Identify how many milligrams this patient will receive for this dose. _______
Q2) A patient who is HIV-positive has been receiving medication therapy that includes zidovudine (Retrovir). However, the prescriber has decided to stop the zidovudine because of its dose-limiting adverse effect. Which of these conditions is the dose-limiting adverse effect of zidovudine therapy?
A) Retinitis
B) Renal toxicity
C) Hepatotoxicity
D) Bone marrow suppression
Q3) A patient who is diagnosed with genital herpes is taking topical acyclovir, and the nurse is providing instructions about adverse effects. The nurse will discuss which adverse effects of topical acyclovir therapy?
A) Insomnia and nervousness
B) Temporary swelling and rash
C) Burning when applied
D) This medication has no adverse effects.
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Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48022
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has started drug therapy for tuberculosis wants to know how long he will be on the medications. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped."
B) "Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance."
C) "You should expect to take these drugs for as long as 24 months."
D) "You will be on this drug therapy for the rest of your life."
Q2) When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity?
A) Rifampin (Rifadin)
B) Isoniazid (INH)
C) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
D) Streptomycin
Q3) The nurse will assess the patient for which potential contraindication to antitubercular therapy?
A) Glaucoma
B) Anemia
C) Heart failure
D) Hepatic impairment
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48023
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing instructions for vaginal antifungal drugs with a patient. Which statement by the nurse is an appropriate instruction regarding these drugs?
A) "The medication can be stopped when your symptoms are relieved."
B) "Discontinue this medication if menstruation begins."
C) "Daily douching is part of the treatment for vaginal fungal infections."
D) "Abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment has been completed and the infection has resolved."
Q2) The nurse is preparing an infusion of amphotericin B for a patient who has a severe fungal infection. Which intervention is appropriate regarding the potential adverse effects of amphotericin B?
A) Discontinuing the infusion immediately if fever, chills, or nausea occur
B) Gradually increasing the infusion rate until the expected adverse effects occur
C) If fever, chills, or nausea occur during the infusion, administering medications to treat the symptoms
D) Before beginning the infusion, administering an antipyretic and an antiemetic drug
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44
Chapter
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48024
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia will be receiving pentamidine as an intravenous piggyback (IVPB) dose. The medication has been added to a 100-mL bag of D W for the infusion, and it needs to infuse over 120 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to infuse at what rate for this IVPB medication? _______
Q2) A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?
A) Ivermectin (Stromectol)
B) Atovaquone (Mepron)
C) Praziquantel (Biltricide)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Q3) A patient is receiving hydroxychloroquine therapy but tells the nurse that she has never traveled out of her city. The nurse knows that a possible reason for this drug therapy is which condition?
A) Lyme disease
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Intestinal tapeworms
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Anti-Inflammatory and Antigout Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48025
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has a history of coronary artery disease has been instructed to take one 81-mg aspirin tablet a day. The patient asks about the purpose of this aspirin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is given reduce anxiety."
B) "It helps to reduce inflammation."
C) "Aspirin is given to relieve pain."
D) "It will help to prevent clot formation."
Q2) A 75-year-old woman has been given a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (an NSAID for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse is reviewing the patient's medication history and notes that which types of medications could have an interaction with the NSAID?
A) Antibiotics
B) Decongestants
C) Anticoagulants
D) Beta blockers
E) Diuretics
F) Corticosteroids
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1:
Cycle-Specific Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48026
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who has severe bone marrow suppression following antineoplastic drug therapy. Which is considered a principal early sign of infection?
A) Fever
B) Diaphoresis
C) Tachycardia
D) Elevated white blood cell count
Q2) A patient who has been on methotrexate therapy is experiencing mild pain. The patient is asking for aspirin for the pain. The nurse recognizes that which of these is true in this situation?
A) The aspirin will aggravate diarrhea.
B) The aspirin will mask signs of infection.
C) Aspirin can lead to methotrexate toxicity.
D) The aspirin will cause no problems for the patient on methotrexate.
Q3) A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m²/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in milliliters per hour?
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Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell
Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48027
Sample Questions
Q1) During chemotherapy, a patient develops severe diarrhea caused by a vasoactive intestinal peptide-secreting tumor (VIPoma). The nurse expects to administer which drug for this problem?
A) Dexrazoxane (Zinecard)
B) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
C) Octreotide (Sandostatin)
D) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
Q2) When giving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ), the nurse is aware that adverse effect of this drug is which condition?
A) Alopecia
B) Kidney damage
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Stomatitis
Q3) The nurse is teaching a class about the various chemotherapy drugs. Which of these statements explains why alkylating drugs are also called "cell cycle-nonspecific drugs"?
A) They are cytotoxic during a specific cell cycle.
B) They are cytotoxic in any phase of the cell cycle.
C) They are effective against several types of neoplasms.
D) They are more highly differentiated than cell cycle-specific drugs.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48028
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an order for the monoclonal antibody adalimumab (Humira). The nurse notes that the patient does not have a history of cancer. What is another possible reason for administering this drug?
A) Severe anemia
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Osteoporosis
Q2) When monitoring a patient's response to interferon therapy, the nurse notes that the major dose-limiting factor for interferon therapy is which condition?
A) Diarrhea
B) Fatigue
C) Anxiety
D) Nausea and vomiting
Q3) A patient will be receiving aldesleukin [IL-2] (Proleukin), 600,000 IU/kg every 8 hours for 14 doses. The patient weighs 220 pounds. Identify how many IU of medication this patient will receive per dose. _______
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Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48029
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse follows which procedures when giving intravenous (IV) cyclosporine?
A) Administering it as a single IV bolus injection to minimize adverse effects
B) Using an infusion pump to administer this medication
C) Monitoring the patient for potential delayed adverse effects, which may be severe
D) Monitoring the patient closely for the first 30 minutes for severe adverse effects
E) Checking blood levels periodically during cyclosporine therapy
F) Performing frequent oral care during therapy
Q2) When monitoring a patient who is on immunosuppressant therapy with azathioprine (Imuran), the nurse will monitor which laboratory results?
A) Serum potassium levels
B) White blood cell (leukocyte) count
C) Red blood cell count
D) Serum albumin levels
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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48030
Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-month-old infant has received an MMR II (measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine), and her mother calls the clinic that afternoon to ask about helping her fussy infant to "feel better." What will the nurse suggest?
A) Apply an ice pack to the injection site.
B) Apply warm compresses to the injection site.
C) Observe the site for further swelling and redness.
D) Bring the infant in to the emergency department for an immediate examination.
Q2) A 30-year-old woman is in the clinic for her yearly gynecologic exam and asks the nurse about the "new vaccine that prevents HPV." She wants to receive the papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "For women, the recommended age for this vaccine is 13 to 26 years of age."
B) "We will need to make sure you are not pregnant first."
C) "There will be a total of three injections."
D) "I will check with your health care provider and then get the first dose of the vaccine ready."
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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48031
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is asking advice about which over-the-counter antacid is considered the most safe to use for heartburn. The nurse explains that the reason that calcium antacids are not used as frequently as other antacids is for which of these reasons?
A) Their use may result in kidney stones.
B) They cause decreased gastric acid production.
C) They cause severe diarrhea.
D) Their use may result in fluid retention and edema.
Q2) A patient has excessive and painful gas. The nurse checks the patient's medication orders and prepares to administer which drug for this problem?
A) Famotidine (Pepcid)
B) Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox or Mylanta)
C) Calcium carbonate (Tums)
D) Simethicone (Mylicon)
Q3) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up for this dose. _______
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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48032
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking linaclotide (Linzess) to treat irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The nurse will monitor this patient for which adverse effect?
A) Chest pain
B) Chronic constipation
C) Abdominal pain
D) Elevated blood glucose levels
Q2) A laxative has been ordered for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history and would be concerned if which condition is present?
A) High ammonia levels due to liver failure
B) Diverticulosis
C) Abdominal pain of unknown origin
D) Chronic constipation
Q3) A patient is receiving lactulose (Enulose) three times a day. The nurse knows that the patient is not constipated and is receiving this drug for which reason?
A) High ammonia levels due to liver failure
B) Prevention of constipation
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Chronic diarrhea
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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48033
Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient is about to receive intravenous (IV) ondansetron (Zofran) during a chemotherapy treatment. A dose of 0.15 mg/kg IV 30 minutes before chemotherapy is ordered. The patient weighs 140 pounds. The medication is supplied in a vial marked 2 mg/mL for IV administration. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will administer for this dose. (record answer to one decimal place) _______
Q2) A woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing severe morning sickness. She asks, "I've heard that ginger tablets may be a natural way to ease the nausea and vomiting. Is it okay to try them?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "They are a safe and natural remedy for nausea when you are pregnant."
B) "Go ahead and try them, but stop taking them once the nausea is relieved."
C) "Some health care providers do not recommend ginger during pregnancy. Let's check with your provider."
D) "You will need to wait until after the first trimester to try them."
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54
Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48034
Sample Questions
Q1) Niacin is prescribed for a patient who has hyperlipidemia. The nurse checks the patient's medical history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated in which disorder?
A) Renal disease
B) Cardiac disease
C) Liver disease
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q2) A patient accidentally took an overdose of the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin), and the nurse is preparing to administer vitamin K as an antidote. Which statement about vitamin K is accurate?
A) The vitamin K dose will be given intramuscularly.
B) The patient will take oral doses of vitamin K after the initial injection.
C) The vitamin K cannot be given if the patient has renal disease.
D) The patient will be unresponsive to warfarin therapy for 1 week after the vitamin K is given.
Q3) A patient will be receiving monthly injections of cyanocobalamin (Nascobal). The dose is 100 mcg/month IM. The medication is available in a strength of 1000 mcg/mL. Identify how many milliliters the nurse will draw up into the syringe. (record answer using one decimal place) _______
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48035
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will teach a patient who is receiving oral iron supplements to watch for which expected adverse effects?
A) Palpitations
B) Drowsiness and dizziness
C) Black, tarry stools
D) Orange-red discoloration of the urine
Q2) A patient will be receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) 8000 units IV three times a week. The medication is available in a vial that contains 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose? _______
Q3) The nurse is administering folic acid to a patient with a new diagnosis of anemia. Which statement about treatment with folic acid is true?
A) Folic acid is used to treat any type of anemia.
B) Folic acid is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia.
C) Folic acid is used to treat pernicious anemia.
D) The specific cause of the anemia needs to be determined before treatment.
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56
Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48036
Sample Questions
Q1) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump? _______
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient who is receiving a feeding via a gastric tube. When reviewing the patient's medication list, the nurse notes a potential concern about a food-drug interaction if which medication is listed?
A) Multivitamin solution
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q3) A patient has been receiving total parenteral nutrition. Upon assessment, the nurse notes these assessment findings: blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg (elevated from previous readings); pulse rate 110 beats/min and weak; pitting edema on both ankles; and new-onset confusion. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?
A) Infection
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48037
Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse effects will the nurse expect in a teenage patient who is using topical tretinoin (Retin-A)?
A) Crusted skin
B) Itching
C) Altered skin pigmentation
D) Rosacea
E) Red and edematous blisters
Q2) A teenage boy is taking tretinoin (Retin-A) for acne. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) "Avoid foods that are heavy in salt and oils."
B) "This drug may cause increased redness of your skin."
C) "Try using an abrasive cleanser to remove old skin layers."
D) "Being out in the sunlight will help your skin heal."
Q3) A patient asks about using minoxidil (Rogaine) for hair thinning. Which statement about minoxidil is accurate?
A) The product is applied once daily in the morning.
B) Systemic absorption of topically applied minoxidil is rare.
C) Results may be seen as soon as 2 weeks after beginning therapy.
D) Systemic absorption may cause tachycardia, fluid retention, and weight gain.
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48038
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a new prescription for an antiglaucoma eyedrop. The next day, she calls the clinic and states, "The package insert says this medication might make my blue eyes turn brown! Is this true?" The nurse realizes that the patient has a prescription for which eye medication?
A) Latanoprost (Xalatan), a prostaglandin agonist
B) Dorzolamide (Trusopt), an ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C) Betaxolol (Betoptic), a direct-acting beta blocker
D) Pilocarpine (Pilocar), a direct-acting cholinergic
Q2) A patient has been taking the corticosteroid dexamethasone (Decadron) but has developed bacterial conjunctivitis and has a prescription for gentamicin (Garamycin) ointment. The nurse notes that which interaction is possible if the two drugs are used together?
A) The infection may become systemic.
B) The gentamicin effects may become more potent.
C) The corticosteroid may cause overgrowth of nonsusceptible organisms.
D) Immunosuppression may make it more difficult to eliminate the eye infection.
Q3) A patient will be receiving mannitol (Osmitrol), 1.5 g/kg IV 1 hour before ocular surgery. The patient weighs 110 pounds. How many grams of mannitol will this patient receive for this dose? _______
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Otic Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/48039
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administrating eardrops that have been refrigerated. Which action by the nurse is correct before administering the drops?
A) Leave the drops in the refrigerator until use.
B) Heat the chilled solution for 10 seconds in the microwave.
C) Soak the bottle for 60 seconds in a container of very hot water.
D) Take the drops out of the refrigerator 1 hour before the dose is due.
Q2) The nurse is administering eardrops that contain a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid. What is the rationale for combining these two drugs in eardrops?
A) The combination works to help soften and eliminate cerumen.
B) The corticosteroid reduces pain associated with ear infections.
C) The drops help to eliminate fungal infections.
D) The corticosteroid reduces the inflammation and itching associated with ear infections.
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