Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Exam Questions - 1446 Verified Questions

Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip nursing students with foundational and advanced knowledge in the care of adult patients experiencing a wide range of medical and surgical conditions. The course covers key concepts in pathophysiology, pharmacology, patient assessment, and evidence-based interventions across various body systems. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, clinical decision-making, and effective communication within interprofessional healthcare teams. Students will learn to apply nursing processes in planning and delivering holistic care, managing complications, promoting patient safety, and supporting patient education throughout the perioperative and medical management journey.

Recommended Textbook

Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum

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110 Chapters

1446 Verified Questions

1446 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology

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5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the properties of an ideal drug? (Select all that apply.)

A) Irreversible action

B) Predictability

C) Ease of administration

D) Chemical stability

E) A recognizable trade name

Answer: B,C,D

Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this,the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?

A) Clinical pharmacology

B) Drug efficacy

C) Pharmacokinetics

D) Pharmacotherapeutics

Answer: D

Q3) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?

A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.

B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.

C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.

D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is using a metered-dose inhaler containing albuterol for asthma. The medication label instructs the patient to administer "2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for coughing or wheezing." The patient reports feeling jittery sometimes when taking the medication,and she doesn't feel that the medication is always effective. Which action is outside the nurse's scope of practice?

A) Asking the patient to demonstrate use of the inhaler

B) Assessing the patient's exposure to tobacco smoke

C) Auscultating lung sounds and obtaining vital signs

D) Suggesting that the patient use one puff to reduce side effects

Answer: D

Q2) A postoperative patient reports pain,which the patient rates as an 8 on a scale from 1 to 10 (10 being the most extreme pain). The prescriber has ordered acetaminophen [Tylenol] 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient what medications have helped with pain in the past.

B) Contact the provider to request a different analgesic medication.

C) Give the pain medication and reposition the patient to promote comfort.

D) Request an order to administer the medication every 4 hours.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse educator is conducting a continuing education class on pharmacology. To evaluate the learning of the nurses in the class,the nurse educator asks,"Which drug name gives information about the drug's pharmacologic classification?" Which is the correct response?

A) Amoxicillin

B) Tylenol

C) Cipro

D) Motrin

Answer: A

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?

A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.

B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.

C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.

D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct,and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?

A) A loading dose was not given.

B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.

C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.

D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.

Q2) A provider has written an order for a medication: drug ´ 100 mg PO every 6 hours. The half-life for the drug is approximately 6 hours. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose at 8:00 AM on Tuesday. On Wednesday,when will the serum drug level reach plateau?

A) 2:00 AM

B) 8:00 AM

C) 2:00 PM

D) 8:00 PM

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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine?

A) It binds to different types of receptors in the body.

B) It can cause constipation in toxic doses.

C) It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental.

D) It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.

Q2) What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?

A) It alters the receptor to become nonresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules.

B) It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.

C) It gives the receptor a new function.

D) It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.

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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking oral contraceptives thinks she may be pregnant. As part of this patient's history,what will the nurse ask the patient?

A) "Do you drink grapefruit juice?"

B) "Do you take seizure medication?"

C) "Do you take your contraception with milk?"

D) "Do you use laxatives regularly?"

Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO)inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?

A) Alcoholic beverages

B) Aged cheeses

C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage

D) Grapefruit juice

Q3) In a discussion of drug-drug interactions,which would be the best example of a beneficial inhibitory interaction?

A) Naloxone [Narcan] blocking morphine sulfate's actions

B) Antacids blocking the action of tetracycline [Sumycin]

C) Propanolol [Inderal] blocking the effects of albuterol

D) Cholestyramine blocking the actions of antihypertensive drugs

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse consults the drug information manual and learns that nausea is not an expected adverse effect of this drug. When the next dose is due,what will the nurse do?

A) Administer the drug and tell the patient to report further nausea.

B) Hold the drug and notify the provider of the patient's symptoms.

C) Report the symptoms of nausea to the MEDWATCH program.

D) Request an order for an antiemetic to counter this drug's effects.

Q2) Which actions occur in 90% of fatal medication errors? (Select all that apply.)

A) Confusing drugs with similar packaging

B) Giving a drug intravenously instead of intramuscularly

C) Giving Nasarel instead of Nizoral

D) Using an infusion device that malfunctions

E) Writing a prescription illegibly

Q3) A nurse is reviewing a medication administration record before administering medications. Which order will the nurse implement?

A) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg QD PO

B) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg qd PO

C) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg daily

D) Furosemide [Lasix] 20 mg PO daily

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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse why a friend who is taking the same drug responds differently to that drug. The nurse knows that the most common variation in drug response is due to differences in each patient's:

A) drug receptor sites.

B) hypersensitivity potential.

C) metabolism of drugs.

D) psychosocial response.

Q2) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects? (Select all that apply.)

A) Older adults

B) Caucasians

C) Infants

D) Minorities

E) Women

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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has just learned she is pregnant has stopped using a prescription medication that she takes for asthma because she doesn't want to harm her baby. What will the nurse tell her?

A) That asthma medications will not affect the fetus

B) That her baby's health is dependent on hers

C) To avoid taking medications during her pregnancy

D) To resume the medication in her second trimester

Q2) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?

A) Drugs that are highly polar

B) Ionized drugs

C) Lipid-soluble drugs

D) Protein-bound drugs

Q3) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?

A) Immediately before conception

B) During the first trimester

C) During the second trimester

D) During the third trimester

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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pediatric nurse is teaching nursing students to calculate medication doses for children using a formula based on body surface area. Which statement by a nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "This formula helps approximate the first dose; other doses should be based on clinical observations."

B) "This formula accounts for pharmacokinetic factors that are different in children."

C) "Using this formula will prevent side effects of medications in children."

D) "This formula can determine medication dosing for a child of any age."

Q2) Parents ask the nurse why an over-the-counter cough suppressant with sedative side effects is not recommended for infants. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Babies have a more rapid gastric emptying time and don't absorb drugs well."

B) "Cough medicine tastes bad, and infants usually won't take it."

C) "Infants are more susceptible to central nervous system effects than are adults."

D) "Infants metabolize drugs too rapidly, so drugs aren't as effective."

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12

Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess?

A) Creatinine clearance

B) Sodium levels

C) Potassium levels

D) Serum creatinine

Q2) A nurse is reviewing an older adult patient's chart before giving medications. Which patient information is of most concern?

A) Chronic constipation

B) Increased body fat

C) Low serum albumin

D) Low serum creatinine

Q3) A nurse is preparing to give medications to four older patients who are all taking multiple medications. Which patient is most likely to have an adverse drug reaction related to increased drug effects?

A) Obese patient

B) Patient with decreased serum creatinine

C) Patient with chronic diarrhea

D) Thin patient with a chronically low appetite

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?

A) Activators

B) Agonists

C) Antagonists

D) Antidotes

Q2) A nurse learns about a drug that interferes with transmitter storage in the PNS. The transmitter affected by this drug causes an increased heart rate. What response will the nurse expect to see when this drug is administered?

A) Bradycardia

B) Positive inotropic effects

C) Prolonged receptor activation

D) Tachycardia

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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the target organ when a beta₁agonist is administered?

A) heart

B) kidney

C) respiratory

D) liver

Q2) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?

A) Alpha₁ agonist

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta₂ agonist

D) Beta₂ antagonist

Q3) Many medications list side effects that include dry mouth,constipation,and urinary retention. What kinds of effects are these?

A) Alpha adrenergic

B) Anticholinergic

C) Beta adrenergic

D) Sympathetic

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15

Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder (OAB)and reports occasional constipation. The patient has tried behavioral therapy to treat the OAB without adequate results. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate for this patient?

A) Oxybutynin short-acting syrup

B) Oxybutynin [Ditropan XL] extended-release tablets

C) Oxybutynin [Oxytrol] transdermal patch

D) Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)

Q2) A patient will begin using a transdermal preparation of a muscarinic antagonist for overactive bladder (OAB). The nurse teaches the patient what to do if side effects occur. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "I can use sugar-free gum for dry mouth."

B) "I may need laxatives for constipation."

C) "I should keep the site covered to prevent other people from getting the medicine."

D) "I will take Benadryl for any itching caused by a local reaction to the patch."

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16

Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in

Myasthenia Gravis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."

B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."

C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."

D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."

Q2) A patient with myasthenia gravis who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor is being admitted to the intensive care unit and is on mechanical ventilation. The prescriber has ordered a challenge dose of edrophonium to distinguish between a myasthenic crisis and a medication overdose. The nurse will expect to do what?

A) Administer neostigmine if muscle strength decreases.

B) Be prepared to administer atropine and oxygen if muscle weakness increases.

C) Give a second dose of edrophonium if no improvement is seen.

D) Give pralidoxime [Protopam] if cholinergic symptoms worsen.

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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic

Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hepatitis requires endotracheal intubation. Which agent does the nurse expect to be administered to facilitate this procedure?

A) Atropine

B) Cisatracurium [Nimbex]

C) Rocuronium [Zemuron]

D) Vecuronium [Norcuron]

Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent before a procedure. The patient's eyes close. The nurse knows this is a sign that the patient:

A) has fallen asleep.

B) has received a toxic dose of the medication.

C) is beginning to feel the drug's effects.

D) may need mechanical ventilation.

Q3) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?

A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication

B) Muscles in the lower extremities

C) Muscles controlling the glottis

D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Catecholamines may be given orally."

B) "Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective."

C) "Noncatecholamines do not cross the blood-brain barrier."

D) "Noncatecholamines undergo rapid degradation by monoamine oxidase."

Q2) A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment of shock. The prescriber orders isoproterenol [Isuprel]. The nurse expects this drug to increase tissue perfusion in this patient by activating:

A) alpha₁ receptors to cause vasoconstriction.

B) alpha₁ receptors to increase blood pressure.

C) beta₁ receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect.

D) beta₂receptors to cause bronchodilation.

Q3) Because they cause vasoconstriction,alpha₁-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for:

A) causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes.

B) producing mydriasis to facilitate ophthalmic examinations.

C) slowing the heart rate in tachycardic patients.

D) treating hypotension.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing phentolamine [OraVerse] with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Phentolamine can be used to block both epinephrine- and norepinephrine-mediated vasoconstriction."

B) "Phentolamine can be used to prevent tissue necrosis after extravasation of drugs such as norepinephrine."

C) "Phentolamine is a competitive adrenergic agonist that acts selectively on alpha₁ receptors."

D) "Side effects of phentolamine may include tachycardia and hypotension."

Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha₁ receptors on arterioles and veins."

B) "Dilation of arterioles has a direct effect on arterial pressure."

C) "Dilation of veins by alpha-adrenergic antagonists improves cardiac output."

D) "Venous dilation by alpha-adrenergic antagonists indirectly lowers arterial pressure."

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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the pharmacology of methyldopa. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?

A) "Methyldopa results in alpha₂ agonist activation, but it is not itself an alpha₂ agonist."

B) "Methyldopa is not effective until it is converted to an active compound."

C) "Methyldopa reduces blood pressure by reducing cardiac output."

D) "Methyldopa's principal mechanism is vasodilation, not cardiosuppression."

Q2) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?

A) ADHD

B) Hypertension

C) Severe pain

D) Tourette's syndrome

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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System

Pharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults?

A) Blood-brain barrier

B) First-pass effect

C) Gastrointestinal absorption

D) Renal filtration

Q2) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Analgesia

B) Anesthesia

C) Depression

D) Euphoria

E) Seizure control

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22

Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease has been taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] for several weeks and complains of nausea and vomiting. The nurse tells the patient to discuss what with the provider?

A) Taking a lower dose on an empty stomach

B) Taking an increased dose along with a high-protein snack

C) Taking a lower dose with a low-protein snack

D) Taking dopamine in addition to levodopa/carbidopa

Q2) A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] along with amantadine [Symmetrel] 400 mg/day to treat dyskinesias. The patient reports having increased dyskinesias several months after beginning the amantadine. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss which action?

A) Increasing the dose of amantadine [Symmetrel]

B) Interrupting treatment with amantadine for several weeks

C) Ordering renal function tests

D) Ordering another anticholinergic medication

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23

Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient has confusion,memory loss,and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen,and the patient's spouse asks if the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?

A) The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.

B) The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.

C) The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects.

D) The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.

Q2) The spouse of a patient with Alzheimer's disease asks a nurse for more information about the rivastigmine [Exelon] transdermal patch that is being used. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further explanation?

A) "Doses are lower but more steady with the transdermal patch."

B) "Reduced side effects occur with the transdermal patch."

C) "We only need to change the patch every 2 weeks."

D) "We should remove the old patch before applying the new one."

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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is about to begin therapy with fingolimod [Gilenya] to treat multiple sclerosis. The nurse learns that the patient has not had chickenpox or the varicella zoster virus (VZV)vaccine. What will the nurse do?

A) Advise the patient to avoid individuals with chickenpox.

B) Give the VZV vaccine with the initial dose of fingolimod.

C) Give the VZV vaccine and tell the patient to begin using fingolimod in 1 month.

D) Obtain an order for a VZV antibody test.

Q2) A patient is being treated with interferon beta-1a [Avonex] for relapsing-remitting MS. The patient calls the clinic to report headache,fever,chills,and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse recommend?

A) Acetaminophen or ibuprofen

B) Asking the provider to order a complete blood count (CBC)

C) Coming to the clinic for evaluation for leukoencephalopathy

D) Discontinuing the drug immediately

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Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse counsels a patient who is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for epilepsy. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should brush and floss my teeth regularly."

B) "Once therapeutic blood levels are reached, they are easy to maintain."

C) "I can consume alcohol in moderation while taking this drug."

D) "Rashes are a common side effect but are not serious."

Q2) A patient with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial convulsive episode shortly after arriving on the unit. The patient has been taking phenytoin [Dilantin] 100 mg three times daily and oxcarbazepine [Trileptal] 300 mg twice daily for several years. The patient's phenytoin level is 8.6 mcg/mL,and the oxcarbazepine level is 22 mcg/mL. The nurse contacts the provider to report these levels and the seizure. What will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) A decreased dose of oxcarbazepine

B) Extended-release phenytoin

C) An increased dose of phenytoin

D) Once-daily dosing of oxcarbazepine

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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity? (Select all that apply.)

A) Baclofen [Lioresal]

B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]

C) Diazepam [Valium]

D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]

E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]

Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen [Lioresal] but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects?

A) Weakness and dizziness

B) Fatigue and drowsiness

C) Seizures and hallucinations

D) Respiratory depression and coma

Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?

A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury

B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia

C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis

D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy

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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are important considerations when spinal anesthesia is being administered? (Select all that apply.)

A) Encouraging the patient to remain supine after the procedure

B) Having epinephrine available in case of adverse effects

C) Injecting a local anesthetic into the sacral region

D) Placing the agent into the spinal column outside the dura mater

E) Using an anesthetic solution from a single-dose vial

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?

A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."

B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."

C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."

D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."

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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in the postanesthesia recovery unit received ketamine [Ketalar] for right open reduction internal fixation surgery. What drug would be beneficial as a premedication to help minimize adverse reactions?

A) Methohexital [Brevital]

B) Sevoflurane [Ultane]

C) Atropine [Sal-Tropine]

D) Diazepam [Valium]

Q2) A preoperative patient receives atropine before induction of anesthesia. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this agent is used to prevent:

A) anxiety.

B) bradycardia.

C) dry mouth.

D) hypertension.

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Chapter

28: Opioid Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine [Talwin]. The nurse will monitor the patient for:

A) euphoria.

B) hypotension.

C) respiratory depression.

D) yawning and sweating.

Q2) Which side effects of opioid analgesics can have therapeutic benefits? (Select all that apply.)

A) Biliary colic

B) Cough suppression

C) Suppression of bowel motility

D) Urinary retention

E) Vasodilation

Q3) A patient who has developed opioid tolerance will experience which effect?

A) Decreased analgesic effect

B) Decreased constipation

C) Increased euphoria

D) Increased respiratory depression

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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will ____ ibuprofen.

A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of

Q2) A patient who has had cancer for 1 year uses a fentanyl transdermal patch for pain relief. The patient reports having three or four episodes of pain (which she rates as 8 or 9 on a scale of 1 to 10)each day,and each episode lasts 15 to 30 minutes. The nurse will contact the provider to:

A) discuss the use of an adjuvant analgesic.

B) request an order for an NSAID.

C) request a strong, short-acting opioid PRN.

D) suggest increasing the dose of fentanyl.

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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan [Imitrex] 5 mg unit-dose nasal spray. The patient has administered two sprays at 1400,1600,and 1800 and calls to report little relief from headache pain. What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?

A) Administer 2 sprays at 2000 and call the provider if no relief.

B) Continue using 2 sprays every 2 hours as needed to relieve discomfort.

C) Contact the provider to ask about using an ergot alkaloid medication.

D) Use 3 sprays at the next dose to increase the dose.

Q2) A patient who has occasional migraine headaches tells a nurse that the abortive medication works well,but she would like to do more to prevent the occurrence of these headaches. The nurse will suggest that the patient:

A) ask the provider about an adjunct medication, such as prochlorperazine.

B) discuss the use of prophylactic medications with the provider.

C) keep a headache diary to help determine possible triggers.

D) take the abortive medication regularly instead of PRN.

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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with schizophrenia and the provider orders thioridazine. The patient asks the nurse why the provider hasn't ordered olanzapine [Zyprexa],which the patient has seen advertised on television. Which response by the nurse is the most important reason that this patient is not receiving olanzapine?

A) "Olanzapine is more expensive than thioridazine."

B) "Olanzapine causes more metabolic side effects than thioridazine."

C) "Thioridazine has fewer side effects than olanzapine."

D) "Thioridazine has a faster onset of action than olanzapine."

Q2) A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an oral FGA for 1 week. The patient has been taking the drug daily in two divided doses. The individual complains of daytime drowsiness. The patient's family reports a decrease in the person's hostility and anxiety but states that the patient remains antisocial with disordered thinking. What will the nurse tell the patient and the family?

A) An increased dose of the drug may be needed.

B) Intramuscular dosing may be needed.

C) Some symptoms take months to improve.

D) The entire dose may be taken at bedtime.

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Chapter 32: Antidepressants

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18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "TCAs block receptors for histamine, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine."

B) "TCAs block the uptake of norepinephrine and 5-HT."

C) "TCAs have many side effects, but none of them are serious."

D) "TCAs have other uses than for depression."

Q2) A patient who has fibromyalgia is diagnosed with major depression. The provider orders a TCA. The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) avoid foods containing tyrosine.

B) consume alcohol in moderation.

C) sit or lie down when feeling lightheaded.

D) take the medication in the morning.

Q3) A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient?

A) Whether any antihypertensive medications are used

B) Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice

C) To list all foods eaten that day

D) Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI

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34

Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years and has not been evaluated by a provider for over a year. Besides obtaining a lithium level,the nurse caring for this patient will anticipate orders for which laboratory tests? (Select all that apply.)

A) Calcium level

B) Complete blood count with differential

C) Liver function tests

D) Renal function tests

E) Serum potassium

F) Thyroid function tests

Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years. The patient has developed a goiter,and serum tests reveal hypothyroidism. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Administration of levothyroxine

B) Increasing the lithium dose

C) Iodine supplements

D) Referral to an endocrinologist

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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be:

A) alternative medications.

B) improved sleep hygiene.

C) short-term barbiturates.

D) triazolam [Halcion].

Q2) A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the nurse that job demands require staying up late and then getting up early for meetings. The nurse expects that the provider will prescribe which medication for this patient?

A) Flurazepam

B) Trazodone [Desyrel]

C) Zaleplon [Sonata]

D) Zolpidem [Ambien]

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36

Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension,poor concentration,and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]

C) Buspirone [Buspar]

D) Paroxetine [Paxil]

Q2) A patient who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)has been undergoing behavioral therapy but continues to exhibit symptoms that interfere with daily life. Which intervention will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Alprazolam [Xanax]

B) Buspirone [Buspar]

C) Deep brain stimulation

D) Fluoxetine [Paxil]

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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and

Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder about methylphenidate [Concerta]. Which statement by the child's parents indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "The effects of this drug will wear off in 4 to 6 hours."

B) "The tablet needs to be swallowed whole, not crushed or chewed."

C) "This medication has fewer side effects than amphetamines."

D) "We should call the provider if we see parts of the medicine in our child's stools."

Q2) A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin],10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600,for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta].

B) Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication.

C) Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed.

D) Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.

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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about management of controlled substances in medication administration. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the federal law takes precedence."

B) "Prescriptions for drugs in Schedules III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills."

C) "Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients."

D) "To reduce the possibility of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy."

Q2) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:

A) abstinence from the drug.

B) decreasing episodes of relapse.

C) minimizing drug cravings.

D) reduction of drug use.

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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient tells a nurse that she drinks wine for its cardioprotective effects. She wants to know how much is safe. The nurse is correct in telling her that:

A) "A couple of glasses of wine 1 or 2 days a week will help prevent heart disease."

B) "Abstaining from alcohol completely is the best way to prevent heart disease."

C) "If you drink only on weekends, you will minimize your risk of developing heart disease."

D) "Cardioprotective effects are greatest in people who live an unhealthy lifestyle."

Q2) A nurse is providing education to a group of college students about the long-term effects of alcohol. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Chronic alcohol use contributes to the development of osteoporosis."

B) "Chronic use of alcohol can actually decrease the risk of cardiomyopathy."

C) "Even small amounts of alcohol are related to the development of certain cancers."

D) "Pancreatitis is not a common problem among chronic users of alcohol."

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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."

B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."

C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."

D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."

Q2) A patient who has just found out she is pregnant tells the nurse she wants to quit smoking. She asks about pharmacologic aids to help her quit. The nurse is correct to tell her what?

A) "Nicotine replacement therapy is harmful, but it is safer than smoking, so it can be used."

B) "Psychosocial support is the only recommended treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy."

C) "Varenicline [Chantix] is safe to use during pregnancy."

D) "You should try to taper off your smoking gradually, because none of the drugs are safe."

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other

Than Alcohol and Nicotine

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has a long-term addiction to opioids takes an overdose of barbiturates. The nurse preparing to care for this patient will anticipate:

A) a severe abstinence syndrome when the effects of the barbiturates are reversed. B) minimal respiratory depression, because the patient has developed a tolerance to opioids.

C) observing pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and possibly coma in this patient. D) using naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the barbiturates, because cross-tolerance is likely.

Q2) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."

B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."

C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."

D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."

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Chapter 41: Diuretics

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient with congestive heart failure develops crackles in both lungs and pitting edema of all extremities. The physician orders hydrochlorothiazide [HydroDIURIL]. Before administering this medication,the nurse reviews the patient's chart. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?

A) Elevated creatinine clearance

B) Elevated serum potassium level

C) Normal blood glucose level

D) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

Q2) A patient is taking gentamicin [Garamycin] and furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom?

A) Frequent nocturia

B) Headaches

C) Ringing in the ears

D) Urinary retention

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43

Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a child whose respirations are shallow and marked by a prolonged expiratory phase. The nurse auscultates wheezes and poor air movement bilaterally. The child's respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute,and the oxygen saturation is 89%. What does the nurse suspect?

A) Metabolic acidosis

B) Metabolic alkalosis

C) Respiratory acidosis

D) Respiratory alkalosis

Q2) A patient who was injured at home is brought to the emergency department. The nurse caring for this patient notes a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. The injuries are minor,but the patient is inconsolable and hysterical. The nurse expects that initial management will include:

A) administering a gas mixture of 5% carbon dioxide (CO₂).

B) providing 100% oxygen via nasal cannula.

C) giving sodium bicarbonate IV.

D) providing sedatives to calm the patient.

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Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath,and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of:

A) decreased force of ventricular contraction.

B) increased force of ventricular contraction.

C) decreased ventricular filling.

D) increased ventricular filling.

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?

A) Decreased stroke volume

B) Increased stroke volume

C) Decreased myocardial contractility

D) Increased myocardial contractility

Q3) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:

A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.

B) expect bradycardia for a few days.

C) notify the provider if headache occurs.

D) report shortness of breath.

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Page 45

Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone

System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking an antihypertensive medication for several years is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The prescriber changes the patient's medication to an ACE inhibitor. The patient asks the nurse why a new drug is necessary. What is the nurse's response?

A) "ACE inhibitors can prevent or reverse pathologic changes in the heart's structure."

B) "ACE inhibitors help lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol."

C) "ACE inhibitors increase venous return to the heart, improving cardiac output."

D) "ACE inhibitors regulate electrolytes that affect the cardiac rhythm."

Q2) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medications before administration. Which drug-to-drug interactions will most concern the nurse in a patient with a history of heart failure and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L?

A) Furosemide [Lasix] and enalapril [Vasotec]

B) Amlodipine [Norvasc] and spironolactone [Aldactone]

C) Captopril [Capoten] and spironolactone [Aldactone]

D) Metoprolol [Lopressor] and furosemide [Lasix]

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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for:

A) AV blockade.

B) gingival hyperplasia.

C) migraine headaches.

D) reflex tachycardia.

Q2) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)

A) Angina of effort

B) Cardiac dysrhythmias

C) Essential hypertension

D) Sick sinus syndrome

E) Suppression of preterm labor

Q3) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia],along with metoprolol,to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:

A) reduce flushing.

B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.

C) prevent constipation.

D) prevent reflex tachycardia.

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Chapter 46: Vasodilators

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscles in veins. To help minimize drug side effects,the nurse caring for this patient will:

A) caution the patient not to get up abruptly.

B) encourage the patient to increase fluid intake.

C) tell the patient to report shortness of breath.

D) warn the patient about the possibility of bradycardia.

Q2) A patient is admitted with severe hypertensive crisis. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication?

A) Captopril PO

B) Hydralazine [Apresoline] 25 mg PO

C) Minoxidil 20 mg PO

D) Sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] IV

Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a vasodilator that dilates capacitance vessels. The nurse will expect which effect in this patient?

A) Decrease in cardiac work

B) Increase in cardiac output

C) Increase in tissue perfusion

D) Increase in venous return

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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms."

B) "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted."

C) "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis."

D) "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."

Q2) A patient with hypertension will begin taking an alpha₁ blocker. What will the nurse teach this patient?

A) A persistent cough is a known side effect of this drug.

B) Eat foods rich in potassium while taking this drug.

C) Move slowly from sitting to standing when taking this drug.

D) Report shortness of breath while taking this drug.

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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic for hypertension and quinidine to treat a dysrhythmia. The prescriber orders digoxin 0.125 mg to improve this patient's cardiac output. The nurse should contact the provider to request:

A) adding spironolactone [Aldactone].

B) reducing the dose of digoxin.

C) discontinuing the quinidine.

D) giving potassium supplements.

Q2) A patient with heart failure who has been taking an ACE inhibitor,a thiazide diuretic,and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient,the nurse will expect the provider to evaluate:

A) complete blood count.

B) ejection fraction.

C) maximal exercise capacity.

D) serum electrolyte levels.

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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A prescriber orders verapamil [Covera-HS] for a patient who is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and warfarin. The nurse will expect the prescriber to ____ the dose of ____.

A) lower; digoxin

B) increase; digoxin

C) lower; warfarin

D) increase; warfarin

Q2) A patient is taking digoxin [Lanoxin] and develops a dysrhythmia. The nurse reports this finding to the prescriber,who will most likely order what? (Select all that apply.)

A) Amiodarone

B) Diltiazem

C) Phenytoin [Dilantin]

D) Quinidine

E) Serum electrolytes

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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular

Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a history of elevated triglycerides and LDL cholesterol begins taking nicotinic acid [Niacin]. The patient reports uncomfortable flushing of the face,neck,and ears when taking the drug. What will the nurse advise the patient?

A) "Ask your provider about taking an immediate-release form of the medication."

B) "Ask your provider about assessing your serum uric acid levels which may be elevated."

C) "You should stop taking the Niacin immediately since this is a serious adverse effect."

D) "You should take 325 mg of aspirin a half hour before each dose of Niacin to prevent this effect."

Q2) A nurse is instructing a patient receiving a cholesterol-lowering agent. Which information should the nurse include in the patient education?

A) "This medication will replace other interventions you have been trying."

B) "It is important for you to double your dose if you miss one to maintain therapeutic blood levels."

C) "Stop taking the medication if you experience constipation."

D) "You should continue your exercise program to increase your HDL serum levels."

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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks a nurse how nitroglycerin works to relieve anginal pain. The nurse correctly states,"Nitroglycerin:

A) dilates coronary arteries to increase blood flow to the heart."

B) increases the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle."

C) increases ventricular filling to improve cardiac output."

D) promotes vasodilation, which reduces preload and oxygen demand."

Q2) A patient with asthma and depression develops stable angina. In addition to organic nitrites,which other medications will be used to treat this condition? (Select all that apply.)

A) ACE inhibitors

B) Antiplatelet drugs

C) Beta blockers

D) Calcium channel blockers

E) Cholesterol-lowering drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving the next dose of warfarin,the nurse will notify the provider and:

A) administer the dose as ordered.

B) request an order to decrease the dose.

C) request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione).

D) request an order to increase the dose.

Q2) A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day,the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%,pleuritic chest pain,shortness of breath,and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____.

A) congestive heart failure; furosemide [Lasix]

B) hemorrhage; vitamin K (phytonadione)

C) myocardial infarction; tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

D) pulmonary embolism; heparin

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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of chest pain that has lasted longer than 1 hour and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin. The patient's electrocardiogram reveals elevation of the ST segment. Initial cardiac troponin levels are negative. The patient is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula. Which drug should be given immediately?

A) Aspirin 325 mg chewable

B) Beta blocker given IV

C) Ibuprofen 400 mg orally

D) Morphine intravenously

Q2) A patient who is recovering from a STEMI 3 months prior is in the clinic for a follow-up evaluation. The patient is taking 81 mg of aspirin,a beta blocker,and an ACE inhibitor daily and uses nitroglycerine as needed for angina. The patient's BMI is 24.5 kg/m²,and serum LDL is 150 mg/dL. The patient has a blood pressure of 135/80 mm Hg. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) An antihypertensive medication

B) Counseling about a weight loss diet

C) Discontinuing the ACE inhibitor

D) High-dose statin therapy

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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with hemophilia A is undergoing a tooth extraction at the dentist's office. As an adjunct to factor VIII,what other drug should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this patient?

A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]

B) Acetaminophen [Tylenol]

C) Desmopressin [Stimate]

D) Vitamin K

Q2) A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives,a low-grade temperature elevation,and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to:

A) administer subcutaneous epinephrine.

B) give an antipyretic medication.

C) give oral diphenhydramine.

D) provide respiratory support.

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56

Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448

Sample Questions

Q1) A 12-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital before sinus surgery. The nurse preparing to care for this patient notes that the admission hemoglobin is 10.2 gm/dL,and the hematocrit is 32%. The nurse will ask the child's parents which question about their daughter?

A) "Does she eat green, leafy vegetables?"

B) "Has she begun menstruating?"

C) "Is she a vegetarian?"

D) "Is there a chance she might be pregnant?"

Q2) What are the indications for administration of a parenteral iron preparation? (Select all that apply.)

A) Blood loss of 750 mL/week

B) Celiac disease with anemia

C) History of alcoholism

D) Intestinal disease impairing absorption

E) Megaloblastic anemia

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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL,up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:

A) adding an antihypertensive drug.

B) discontinuing the ESA.

C) giving heparin.

D) increasing the dose of the ESA.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who begins to complain of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses the patient and notes 3+ pitting edema bilaterally in the lower extremities. Which medication taken by the patient causes the most concern?

A) Epoetin alfa

B) Filgrastim (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)

C) Oprelvekin (interleukin-11)

D) Sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58

Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450

Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent patient recently attended a health fair and had a serum glucose test. The patient telephones the nurse and says,"My level was 125 mg/dL. Does that mean I have diabetes?" What is the nurse's most accurate response?

A) "Unless you were fasting for longer than 8 hours, this does not necessarily mean you have diabetes."

B) "At this level, you probably have diabetes. You will need an oral glucose tolerance test this week."

C) "This level is conclusive evidence that you have diabetes."

D) "This level is conclusive evidence that you do not have diabetes."

Q2) A patient who has type 2 diabetes will begin taking glipizide [Glucotrol]. Which statement by the patient is concerning to the nurse?

A) "I will begin by taking this once daily with breakfast."

B) "It is safe to drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug."

C) "I may continue to have a glass of wine with dinner."

D) "I will need to check my blood sugar once daily or more."

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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been taking levothyroxine for several years and reports that "for the past 2 weeks,the drug doesn't seem to work as well as before." What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient when the prescription was last refilled.

B) Expect the patient to have an elevated temperature and tachycardia.

C) Suggest that the patient begin taking calcium supplements.

D) Tell the patient to try taking the medication with food.

Q2) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.

B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal.

C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.

D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.

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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function

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13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which are indications for discontinuing growth hormone (GH)therapy in children with documented growth hormone deficiency? (Select all that apply.)

A) Epiphyseal closure has begun.

B) A satisfactory adult height has been achieved.

C) Serum GH levels have been normal for 12 consecutive months.

D) Normal serum growth hormone levels occur.

E) The child no longer responds to the hormone.

Q2) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)

A) Breast development

B) Decreased libido

C) Delayed puberty

D) Galactorrhea

E) Infertility

Q3) A patient with antidiuretic hormone deficiency is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP). The nurse will teach this patient to:

A) avoid grapefruit juice.

B) increase sodium intake.

C) monitor blood pressure.

D) reduce fluid intake.

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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is admitted with nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and abdominal pain. The patient appears emaciated and complains of feeling weak. The nurse notes a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg. The nurse reviews the chart and notes an increased serum potassium level and a decreased serum sodium level. The nurse expects the provider to order which medication initially?

A) Cosyntropin [Cortrosyn]

B) Dexamethasone

C) Fludrocortisone [Florinef]

D) Hydrocortisone

Q2) A patient with arthritis is admitted to the hospital. The patient's serum glucose level is 350 gm/dL,and the blood pressure is 182/98 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient's face appears rounded and puffy. The patient complains of feeling weak. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask which drugs the patient takes for arthritis.

B) Contact the provider to discuss whether the patient has a pituitary carcinoma.

C) Request an order for ketoconazole [Nizoral].

D) Suspect that this patient has Addison's disease.

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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and

Noncontraceptive Applications

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8454

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who will begin combination estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT)for menopause asks the nurse why she can't take an estrogen-only preparation. The patient has not had a hysterectomy,has a slightly increased risk of cardiovascular disease,and has mild osteopenia. The nurse will tell her that the progestin is necessary to:

A) decrease her risk of endometrial cancer.

B) increase bone resorption to prevent fractures.

C) lower her risk of myocardial infarction (MI).

D) prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Q2) The nurse is providing patient education for a postmenopausal patient who is considering EPT. Which risks associated with EPT should the nurse discuss with the patient? (Select all that apply.)

A) Increased colon cancer

B) Stroke

C) Deep vein thrombosis

D) Ovarian cancer

E) Decreased bone density

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63

Chapter 62: Birth Control

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17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman has been taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive and will begin using a vaginal ring. The nurse will teach the patient to insert the ring:

A) the day the last pill is taken and use backup contraception for 7 days.

B) 1 week before taking the last pill.

C) 1 to 5 days after taking the last pill and use backup contraception for 2 days.

D) within 7 days after taking the last pill.

Q2) A nurse is teaching an adolescent female patient about 28-day monophasic combination oral contraceptives. The provider has instructed the patient to begin taking the pills on the first Sunday after the onset of her next period. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "If breakthrough spotting occurs, you should begin taking a new pack of pills."

B) "Protection from pregnancy will begin immediately."

C) "Use another form of contraception for the next month."

D) "You may take the pills at different times of day."

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64

Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility

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11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with endometriosis is being treated with the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)agonist leuprolide [Lupron Depot]. A nurse is teaching the patient about the drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I can continue to take the medication if I get pregnant."

B) "I can expect the medication to cure my symptoms."

C) "I may have menopausal-like symptoms when taking this medication."

D) "I will need to take the medication for several years."

Q2) A patient is being treated for infertility. An examination reveals cervical mucus that is scant,thick,and sticky. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking which medication?

A) Clomiphene [Clomid]

B) Estrogen

C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

D) Progesterone

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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drugs are useful for preventing preterm labor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antibiotics

B) Hydroxyprogesterone

C) Indomethacin

D) Magnesium sulfate

E) Terbutaline

Q2) A patient who is having her sixth child has gone beyond term,and her labor is being induced with oxytocin [Pitocin]. The patient is having increased frequency,duration,and intensity of contractions. The nurse will interrupt the oxytocin infusion if what occurs?

A) Contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes.

B) Individual contractions last 2 minutes.

C) Mild to moderate pain occurs with uterine contractions.

D) Resting intrauterine pressure is greater than 10 to 15 mm Hg.

Q3) Which are indications for early induction of labor? (Select all that apply.)

A) Abruptio placentae

B) Active genital herpes infection

C) Gestational hypertension

D) Premature rupture of the membranes

E) Umbilical cord prolapse

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Page 66

Chapter 65: Androgens

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12 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment regimen?

A) "I will need to have x-rays of my hands and feet every 6 months."

B) "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication."

C) "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer."

D) "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child."

Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of parents about the role of testosterone in puberty for boys. To evaluate the group's understanding,the nurse asks,"What physiologic effects related to testosterone can you expect to see in your sons?" Which responses indicate an understanding of the role of testosterone in male puberty? (Select all that apply.)

A) "It promotes skeletal muscle growth."

B) "It increases height and weight."

C) "It delays epiphyseal closure."

D) "It causes a high-pitched voice."

E) "It causes acne."

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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign

Prostatic Hyperplasia

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8459

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks a nurse whether sildenafil [Viagra] would be a good medication for him to take. Which aspect of this patient's history would be of most concern?

A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

B) Mild hypertension

C) Occasional use of nitroglycerin

D) Taking finasteride

Q2) A patient who has erectile dysfunction asks about medications to treat this disorder,but tells the nurse he doesn't want to have to plan sexual activity several hours in advance. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

A) Avanafil [Stendra]

B) Sildenafil [Viagra]

C) Tadalafil [Cialis]

D) Vardenafil [Levitra]

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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about a specific acquired immunity system. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "Cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity are both types of specific acquired immune responses."

B) "Each exposure to an antigen causes a faster, more intense response."

C) "Immune responses occur only after exposure to a foreign substance."

D) "The skin is a factor in specific acquired immunity."

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which finding would most concern the nurse?

A) High level of macrophages

B) Low neutrophil count

C) Low red blood cell (RBC) count

D) Very low helper T lymphocyte count

Q3) Which statement is true about helper T cells?

A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.

B) They do not play a role in antibody production.

C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.

D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.

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Page 69

Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization

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16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461

Sample Questions

Q1) A clinic nurse receives a phone call from a parent who states that a 2-month-old infant has a severe cough,a low-grade fever,and a runny nose that have lasted over a week. What will the nurse ask the parent?

A) Whether the infant has had the first set of vaccines

B) Whether the infant received a hepatitis B vaccine as a newborn

C) Whether the infant attends day care

D) Whether there is a family history of respiratory disorders

Q2) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration? (Select all that apply.)

A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.

B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.

C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.

D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.

E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.

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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants

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14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking azathioprine [Imuran] to prevent rejection of a renal transplant develops gout and the provider orders allopurinol. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:

A) decreasing the allopurinol dose.

B) decreasing the azathioprine dose.

C) increasing the allopurinol dose.

D) increasing the azathioprine dose.

Q2) A patient has undergone liver transplantation. The provider orders cyclosporine [Sandimmune],prednisone,and sirolimus [Rapamune]. What will the nurse do?

A) Question the order for sirolimus.

B) Request an order for a serum glucose level.

C) Request an order for a macrolide antibiotic.

D) Suggest changing the cyclosporine to tacrolimus.

Q3) The nurse knows that which immunosuppressants are among the most effective?

A) Azathioprine [Imuran] and everolimus [Zortress]

B) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and tacrolimus [Prograf]

C) Methotrexate [Rheumatrex] and muromonab-CD3 [Orthoclone OKT3]

D) Sirolimus [Rapamune] and methylprednisolone

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Chapter 70: Antihistamines

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.

C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.

D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.

Q2) A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. The child is uncoordinated and agitated. The nurse observes that the child's face is flushed,the temperature is 37.1°C,and the heart rate is 110 beats per minute. The nurse will expect to:

A) administer atropine to reverse the adverse effects.

B) apply ice packs to stop the flushing.

C) give activated charcoal to absorb the drug.

D) prepare to provide mechanical ventilation.

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72

Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal

Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?

A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]

B) Activated charcoal

C) Hemodialysis

D) Respiratory support

Q2) A patient who is taking acetaminophen for pain wants to know why it does not cause gastrointestinal upset,as do other over-the-counter pain medications. The nurse will explain that this is most likely because of which property of acetaminophen?

A) It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase.

B) It has minimal effects at peripheral sites.

C) It is more similar to opioids than to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). D) It is selective for cyclooxygenase-2.

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73

Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has arthritis has been taking ibuprofen [Motrin] and a glucocorticoid medication. The patient reports having tarry stools but denies gastric pain. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Contact the provider to discuss ordering an antiulcer medication.

B) Counsel the patient to use over-the-counter antacids.

C) Reassure the patient not to worry unless there is gastric pain.

D) Tell the patient to stop taking the glucocorticoid immediately.

Q2) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?

A) 8:00 AM

B) 12:00 PM

C) 4:00 PM

D) 9:00 PM

Q3) Which disorders may be treated with glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)

A) Allergic rhinitis

B) Anaphylaxis

C) Bronchiolitis

D) Gout

E) Ulcerative colitis

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Page 74

Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking leflunomide [Arava] and an oral contraceptive. She tells the nurse she would like to get pregnant. What will the nurse tell her?

A) That leflunomide is not dangerous during the first trimester of pregnancy

B) That plasma levels of leflunomide will drop rapidly when she stops taking it

C) To ask her provider about an 11-day course of cholestyramine

D) To stop taking leflunomide when she stops using contraception

Q2) A patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of:

A) having routine renal and hepatic function tests.

B) limiting folic acid consumption.

C) reporting alopecia and rash.

D) taking the medication on a daily basis.

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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who will begin taking colchicine for gout reports taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs,simvastatin,amoxicillin,and digoxin. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic while this patient is taking colchicine.

B) Notify the provider about the potential risk of muscle injury when simvastatin is taken with colchicine.

C) Request an order for cardiorespiratory monitoring, because the patient is taking digoxin.

D) Suggest that the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) be withdrawn during colchicine therapy.

Q2) A patient who has gout will begin taking febuxostat [Uloric] and colchicine. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this drug regimen?

A) "You are taking both drugs in order to prevent hepatic side effects."

B) "You may stop taking the febuxostat after your uric acid levels decrease."

C) "You will have to take both drugs indefinitely to treat your symptoms."

D) "You will stop taking the colchicine within 6 months after starting therapy."

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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone

Mineralization

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding ____ daily and ____ IU of vitamin D₃ each day.

A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000

B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000

C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000

D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000

Q2) Which drugs are approved for treating osteoporosis in men? (Select all that apply.)

A) Alendronate [Fosamax]

B) Calcitonin

C) Raloxifene [Evista]

D) Teriparatide [Forteo]

E) Zoledronate [Reclast]

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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the different formulations of beta₂-adrenergic agonist medications. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Beta₂-adrenergic agonists provide quick relief via any formulation."

B) "Long-acting beta₂ agonists may be used alone to prevent attacks."

C) "Short-acting beta₂ agonists are usually given by nebulizer."

D) "Oral beta₂ agonists are not useful for short-term treatment."

Q2) A patient who uses an inhaled glucocorticoid for chronic asthma calls the nurse to report hoarseness. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask whether the patient is rinsing the mouth after each dose.

B) Request an order for an antifungal medication.

C) Suggest that the patient be tested for a bronchial infection.

D) Tell the patient to discontinue use of the glucocorticoid.

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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds

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Sample Questions

Q1) A parent asks a nurse about giving diphenhydramine [Benadryl] to a child to relieve cold symptoms. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Benadryl must be given in higher doses to provide relief for cold symptoms."

B) "Intranasal glucocorticoids are more effective for treating cold symptoms."

C) "Nasal antihistamines are more effective for treating cold symptoms."

D) "Because histamine doesn't cause cold symptoms, Benadryl would not be effective."

Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "If the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, I should use it every other day."

B) "I should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid."

C) "I should use the glucocorticoid whenever I have symptoms."

D) "I will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid."

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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)receives a prescription for a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)medication. What will the nurse include when teaching the patient about this drug?

A) "The FDA has determined that there is a gastric cancer risk with this drug."

B) "This drug will be given on a short-term basis only."

C) "You may experience hypermagnesemia when taking this drug."

D) "You should report any fever and cough to your provider."

Q2) A patient newly diagnosed with PUD reports taking low-dose aspirin (ASA)for prevention of cardiovascular disease. The nurse learns that the patient drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee each day and has a glass of wine with dinner 3 or 4 nights per week. The patient eats three meals a day. The nurse will counsel this patient to:

A) change the meal pattern to five or six smaller meals per day.

B) discontinue taking aspirin, because it can irritate the stomach.

C) stop drinking wine or any other alcoholic beverage.

D) switch to a decaffeinated coffee and reduce the number of servings.

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Chapter 79: Laxatives

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse receives an order to administer castor oil to a patient. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A) Administer the medication at bedtime.

B) Chill the medication and mix it with fruit juice.

C) Provide teaching about home use of this medication.

D) Teach the patient that the effects will occur slowly.

Q2) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.

B) Give another dose of the psyllium.

C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.

D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.

Q3) A patient has been taking senna [Senokot] for several days,and the nurse notes that the urine is yellowish-brown. What does the nurse know about this symptom?

A) It indicates that renal failure has occurred.

B) It is caused by dehydration, which is a laxative side effect.

C) It is a sign of toxicity, indicating immediate withdrawal of the drug.

D) It is an expected, harmless effect of senna.

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Page 81

Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking bismuth subsalicylate [Pepto-Bismol] to prevent diarrhea. The nurse performing an assessment notes that the patient's tongue is black. What will the nurse do?

A) Assess further for signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding.

B) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect of this drug.

C) Request an order for liver function tests to evaluate for hepatotoxicity.

D) Withhold the drug, because this is a sign of bismuth overdose.

Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital who reports having recurrent,crampy abdominal pain followed by diarrhea. The patient tells the nurse that the diarrhea usually relieves the pain and that these symptoms have occurred daily for the past 6 months. The patient undergoes a colonoscopy,for which the findings are normal. The nurse will plan to teach this patient to:

A) use antispasmodic medications.

B) avoid food containing lactose and gluten.

C) keep a food, stress, and symptom diary.

D) use antidiarrheal drugs to manage symptoms.

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Chapter 81: Vitamins

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16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking iron supplements to treat anemia. The nurse will recommend that the patient take the iron with which food to facilitate absorption?

A) Cereal

B) Dairy products

C) Orange juice

D) Red meats

Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who recently immigrated from a Third World country. The patient is thin and appears malnourished. The nurse notes that the patient has loose and missing teeth,gingivitis,and bleeding gums. The patient has multiple sores and ecchymoses. The nurse will expect the provider to order:

A) cyanocobalamin (vitamin B₁₂).

B) high-dose nicotinic acid.

C) intramuscular thiamine for 1 to 2 weeks.

D) intravenous ascorbic acid.

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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?

A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."

B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."

C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."

D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."

Q2) A nurse performing an admission history on a patient learns that the patient is taking orlistat [Xenical],warfarin [Coumadin],and levothyroxine [Synthroid]. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to discuss increasing the warfarin dose.

B) Give the levothyroxine at least 4 hours before giving the orlistat.

C) Suggest that the patient avoid fatty foods while taking these medications.

D) Tell the patient to take the orlistat on an empty stomach.

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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A parent asks a nurse if the provider will prescribe an antibiotic for a child who attends school with several children who have strep throat. The child is complaining of a sore throat and has a fever. What will be the nurse's response?

A) "Because strep throat is likely, your child should be treated empirically."

B) "With good hand washing, your child should not get strep throat."

C) "Your child probably has strep throat, so your provider will order an antibiotic."

D) "Your child should come to the clinic to have a throat culture done today."

Q2) A patient has a viral sinus infection,and the provider tells the patient that antibiotics will not be prescribed. The patient wants to take an antibiotic and asks the nurse what possible harm could occur by taking an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "Antibiotics are mutagenic and can produce changes that cause resistance."

B) "Even normal flora can develop resistance and transfer this to pathogens."

C) "Host cells become resistant to antibiotics with repeated use."

D) "Patients who overuse antibiotics are more likely to have nosocomial infections."

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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I: Penicillins

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is discussing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student correctly identifies the basis for MRSA resistance?

A) "MRSA bacteria have developed PBPs with a low affinity for penicillins."

B) "MRSA bacteria produce penicillinases that render penicillin ineffective."

C) "MRSA occurs because of host resistance to penicillins."

D) "MRSA strains replicate faster than other Staphylococcus aureus strains."

Q2) The parent of an infant with otitis media asks the nurse why the prescriber has ordered amoxicillin [Amoxil] and not ampicillin [Unasyn]. What will the nurse tell the parent?

A) Amoxicillin is a broader spectrum antibiotic than ampicillin.

B) Amoxicillin is not inactivated by beta-lactamases.

C) Ampicillin is associated with more allergic reactions.

D) Ampicillin is not as acid stable as amoxicillin.

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Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:

Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin

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13 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs)and is going out of town in 2 days. To treat the infection quickly,the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order:

A) aztreonam [Azactam].

B) fosfomycin [Monurol].

C) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim].

D) vancomycin [Vancocin].

Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student what is meant by "generations" of cephalosporins. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "Cephalosporins are assigned to generations based on their relative costs to administer."

B) "Cephalosporins have increased activity against gram-negative bacteria with each generation."

C) "First-generation cephalosporins have better penetration of the cerebrospinal fluid."

D) "Later generations of cephalosporins have lower resistance to destruction by beta-lactamases."

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Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient recently began receiving clindamycin [Cleocin] to treat an infection. After 8 days of treatment,the patient reports having 10 to 15 watery stools per day. What will the nurse tell this patient?

A) The provider may increase the clindamycin dose to treat this infection.

B) This is a known side effect of clindamycin, and the patient should consume extra fluids.

C) The patient should stop taking the clindamycin now and contact the provider immediately.

D) The patient should try taking Lomotil or a bulk laxative to minimize the diarrheal symptoms.

Q2) A nurse is providing education about tetracycline [Sumycin]. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the administration of this medication?

A) "I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products."

B) "I should not worry if I experience an acnelike rash with this medication."

C) "I should take an antacid, such as Tums, if I experience gastrointestinal distress."

D) "I should take this antibiotic with a calcium supplement to improve absorption."

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Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient receiving an aminoglycoside. The report reveals an anaerobic organism as the cause of infection. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to discuss an increased risk of aminoglycoside toxicity.

B) Continue giving the aminoglycoside as ordered.

C) Request an order for a different class of antibiotic.

D) Suggest adding a penicillin to the patient's drug regimen.

Q2) A patient has a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection that is sensitive to aminoglycosides,and the prescriber orders gentamicin. The patient tells the nurse that a friend received amikacin [Amikin] for a similar infection and wonders why amikacin was not ordered. What will the nurse tell the patient?

A) "Amikacin is given when infectious agents are resistant to other aminoglycosides."

B) "Amikacin is more vulnerable to inactivation by bacterial enzymes."

C) "Amikacin is a narrow-spectrum drug and will probably not work for this infection."

D) "Gentamicin is less toxic to the ears and the kidneys."

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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a urinary tract infection is given a prescription for TMP/SMZ. When reviewing the drug with the patient,the nurse learns that the patient has type 1 diabetes mellitus and consumes alcohol heavily. What will the nurse do?

A) Contact the provider to request a different antibiotic for this patient.

B) Obtain frequent blood glucose determinations while giving TMP/SMZ.

C) Suggest that the patient take a potassium supplement while taking TMP/SMZ.

D) Tell the patient to avoid excessive fluid intake while taking TMP/SMZ.

Q2) A nurse is obtaining a drug history from a patient about to receive sulfadiazine. The nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin,glipizide,and a thiazide diuretic. Based on this assessment,the nurse will expect the provider to:

A) change the antibiotic to TMP/SMZ.

B) increase the dose of the glipizide.

C) monitor the patient's electrolytes closely.

D) monitor the patient's coagulation levels.

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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is discussing upper and lower UTIs. Which of these conditions can be treated at home? (Select all that apply.)

A) Acute cystitis

B) Acute urethritis

C) Recurrent UTI

D) Severe pyelonephritis

E) Acute bacterial prostatitis

Q2) A 30-year-old male patient reports having two to four urinary tract infections a year. What will the nurse expect to teach this patient?

A) "Make sure you void after intercourse and drink extra fluids to stay well hydrated."

B) "We will treat each infection as a separate infection and treat with short-course therapy."

C) "You will need to take a low dose of medication for 6 months to prevent infections."

D) "You will need to take antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks each time you have an infection."

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Chapter

Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex

Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient comes to a clinic for tuberculosis medications 2 weeks after beginning treatment with a four-drug induction phase. The patient's sputum culture remains positive,and no drug resistance is noted. At this point,the nurse will expect the provider to:

A) change the regimen to a two-drug continuation phase.

B) continue the four-drug regimen and recheck the sputum in 2 weeks.

C) obtain a chest radiograph and consider adding another drug to the regimen.

D) question the patient about adherence to the drug regimen.

Q2) A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin [Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding?

A) Crystalluria

B) Myopathy

C) Peripheral neuropathy

D) Red-orange-tinged urine

Q3) Which patient(s)should be tested for latent TB? (Select all that apply.)

A) A day care employee

B) A worker in a mycobacteriology laboratory

C) A patient with cardiovascular disease

D) A patient with diabetes mellitus

E) An immigrant from a country where TB is prevalent Page 92

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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:

Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.)

A) Bacitracin

B) Daptomycin

C) Ofloxacin

D) Polymyxin B

E) Rifampin

Q2) A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to:

A) add metronidazole [Flagyl].

B) increase the dose of ciprofloxacin.

C) restrict dairy products.

D) switch to gemifloxacin.

Q3) A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order which antibiotic?

A) Daptomycin [Cubicin]

B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]

C) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]

D) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]

94

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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a systemic candidal infection,and the provider has ordered oral fluconazole [Diflucan] 400 mg on day 1 and 200 mg once daily thereafter. What will the nurse do?

A) Administer the drug as ordered.

B) Contact the provider to discuss cutting the dosing in half.

C) Contact the provider to discuss giving 400 mg on all days.

D) Contact the provider to discuss giving the drug intravenously.

Q2) Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for which systemic mycosis? (Select all that apply.)

A) Aspergillosis

B) Candidiasis

C) Dermatophytosis

D) Histoplasmosis

E) Mucormycosis

Q3) A patient has an invasive aspergillosis infection. Which antifungal agent is the drug of choice for this infection?

A) Amphotericin B

B) Fluconazole [Diflucan]

C) Posaconazole [Noxafil]

D) Voriconazole [Vfend]

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Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why pegylated interferon alfa is used instead of regular interferon for a patient with hepatitis C. The nurse will tell the student that pegylated interferon:

A) decreases the need for additional medications.

B) has fewer adverse effects than interferon.

C) is administered less frequently than interferon.

D) may be given orally to increase ease of use.

Q2) A patient with HIV and mucocutaneous HSV is being treated with foscarnet after failing treatment with acyclovir. After 2 weeks,the patient's dose is increased to 90 mg/kg over 2 hours from 40 mg/kg over 1 hour. The patient reports numbness in the extremities and perioral tingling. What will the nurse do?

A) Notify the provider and request an order for a serum calcium level.

B) Notify the provider of potential foscarnet overdose.

C) Request an order for a creatinine clearance level.

D) Request an order of IV saline to be given before the next dose.

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse asks a graduate nurse,"When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed,which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) Respiratory distress

B) Fever

C) Myalgia

D) Lymphadenopathy

E) Insomnia

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)positive and is taking high doses of zidovudine [Retrovir]. The nurse is providing patient education about the adverse effects of the medication. Which statement by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?

A) "I may experience fatigue from anemia."

B) "I may be more susceptible to infection from neutropenia."

C) "I may have a deficiency of vitamin B₆."

D) "I may have a deficiency of folic acid."

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98

Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent patient with mild cervicitis is diagnosed with gonorrhea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug(s)?

A) Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 7 days

B) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, and azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once

C) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 125 mg IM once

D) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily for 12 days

Q2) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?

A) Gonorrhea

B) Herpes simplex

C) Nongonococcal urethritis

D) Syphilis

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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which compound can be used to treat localized skin infections and to irrigate wounds?

A) Benzalkonium chloride (BAC)

B) Hexachlorophene (pHisoHex)

C) Oxychlorosene sodium (Clorpactin WCS90)

D) Sodium hypochlorite

Q2) A patient arrives in the emergency department after a bicycle-automobile accident with multiple dirty abrasions. Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?

A) Hydrogen peroxide

B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)

C) Povidone iodine [Betadine]

D) Soap and water

Q3) A patient has an abrasion,and the nurse is preparing to cleanse the area with iodine. Which preparation will the nurse use?

A) Free elemental iodine

B) Iodine solution

C) Iodine tincture

D) Povidone iodine

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Page 100

Chapter 97: Anthelmintics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being treated with albendazole [Albenza] for neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of the pork tapeworm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the drug regimen?

A) "I may need to take this medication for a month before the infestation is cleared."

B) "I should take this drug with a fatty meal to improve absorption."

C) "I will need to have liver function tests before and during treatment."

D) "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free days."

Q2) A young female patient is seen in a rural clinic after complaining of abdominal pain. The patient is wearing dirty clothing and is barefoot. The provider orders a complete blood count,which shows that the patient is anemic. The nurse may suspect that this patient has which of the following infestations?

A) Ancylostomiasis (hookworm)

B) Ascariasis (giant roundworm)

C) Enterobiasis (pinworm)

D) Trichuriasis (whipworm)

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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. For relapse prevention,the nurse expects the provider to order which medication?

A) Chloroquine [Aralen Phosphate]

B) Doxycycline [Vibramax]

C) Primaquine phosphate

D) Quinine [Qualaquin]

Q2) A patient who takes imipramine has a moderate infection with P. vivax that is chloroquine resistant. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order?

A) Artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem]

B) Atovaquone/proguanil [Malarone]

C) Artesunate

D) Quinine

Q3) Which are adverse effects of quinine [Qualaquin]? (Select all that apply.)

A) Cinchonism

B) Hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

C) Increased ventricular rate

D) Nightmares

E) Prolonged QT interval

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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving an inhalation treatment with pentamidine [NebuPent]. The patient begins to cough and states that he is having trouble breathing. What is the best action by the nurse?

A) Administer a PRN dose of a bronchodilator.

B) Discontinue the inhalation treatment.

C) Nothing, because these are expected adverse effects of pentamidine.

D) Reduce the rate of the inhalation treatment.

Q2) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."

B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."

C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."

D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."

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103

Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child is seen in a clinic with a chief complaint of itching,especially at night. The nurse observes small ridges and dotted lines of erythema on the child's neck and buttocks. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication initially?

A) Benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]

B) Ivermectin [Stromectol]

C) Malathion [Ovide]

D) Permethrin [Elimite]

Q2) A parent has been instructed to apply a combination product of pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide [RID] to treat head lice in a child. The parent asks the nurse why it is necessary to repeat the application in 9 days. The nurse will respond by telling the parent that:

A) a second treatment helps combat medication resistance.

B) the dose needed to kill lice is too toxic to use all at once.

C) the combination is active only against adult lice and not ova.

D) the second dose helps rid the hair of nits and ova.

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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cancer treatment. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the characteristics of cancer cells?

A) "Cancer cells are characterized by unrestrained growth and division."

B) "Division of cancer cells is characteristically rapid."

C) "Malignant cells of solid tumors do not invade other tissues."

D) "Telomerase is an enzyme produced by cancer cells that promotes metastases."

Q2) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?

A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums

B) The patient with nausea and vomiting

C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F

D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis

Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about how cytotoxic anticancer drugs affect normal cells. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of this teaching?

A) "Cytotoxic drugs lack tissue specificity."

B) "Cytotoxic drugs have a high degree of selective toxicity."

C) "Differences between cancer cells and normal cells are qualitative."

D) "Neoplastic cells and normal tissue cells are very different."

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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is about to begin chemotherapy with a massive dose of methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse will expect to administer which medication concurrently with this drug?

A) Dexamethasone

B) Folic acid

C) Leucovorin

D) Vitamin B₁₂

Q2) A nursing student asks about the differences between cell-cycle phase-specific chemotherapeutic agents and those that are cell-cycle phase nonspecific. What will the nurse explain?

A) Cell-cycle phase-nonspecific drugs are less toxic.

B) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs do not harm "resting" cells.

C) Cell-cycle phase-specific drugs should be given at specific intervals.

D) Neither type is toxic to cells in the "resting" G₀ phase.

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106

Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,

Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] to treat breast cancer. The nurse performs a medication history and learns that the patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression. The nurse will tell the patient to contact her provider to ask about:

A) increasing her dose of sertraline.

B) changing from sertraline to escitalopram [Lexapro].

C) switching from sertraline to fluoxetine [Prozac].

D) decreasing her dose of tamoxifen.

Q2) A nursing student asks the nurse what differentiates antiestrogen drugs from aromatase inhibitors in the treatment of breast cancer. What is the correct response by the nurse?

A) Antiestrogen drugs decrease the risk for thromboembolic events.

B) Antiestrogen drugs increase the risk for endometrial cancer.

C) Aromatase inhibitors block the production of estrogen by the ovaries.

D) Aromatase inhibitors can be used for tumor cells that lack estrogen receptors.

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107

Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient comes to an ophthalmology clinic complaining of increased difficulty reading in dim light. The provider examines the patient and notes three large yellow deposits under the patient's cornea. The nurse will expect the provider to order which treatment for this patient?

A) High doses of vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc

B) Laser therapy

C) Pegaptanib [Macugen]

D) Photodynamic therapy

Q2) A patient with ocular hypertension will begin using brimonidine [Alphagan] for long-term reduction of increased ocular pressure (IOP). The nurse teaches the patient about this medication. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

A) "After using the drops, I should wait 15 minutes before putting in contacts."

B) "Because this is a topical medication, drowsiness will not occur."

C) "I will not have cardiovascular side effects when using this medication."

D) "If my eyes begin to itch or turn red, it means I am allergic to this drug."

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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin

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Sample Questions

Q1) An adolescent patient with moderate acne has begun a regimen consisting of combination clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication regimen?

A) "I should apply the Retin-A immediately after bathing."

B) "I should apply the Retin-A twice daily."

C) "I should augment this therapy with an abrasive soap."

D) "I should use sunscreen every day."

Q2) A child with eczema has been treated unsuccessfully with a topical glucocorticoid for a year and has skin atrophy and hypopigmentation. The nurse will suggest discussing which drugs with the provider?

A) Higher potency topical glucocorticoids

B) Topical keratolytic agents

C) Topical immunosuppressants

D) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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109

Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?

A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen

B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals

C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear

Q2) Which are components of otitis externa management? (Select all that apply.)

A) Ciprofloxacin and hydrocortisone otic drops

B) Cleaning the ear canals with a cotton-tipped applicator

C) Keeping the external ear canal dry after swimming

D) Taking systemic antibiotics, such as amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]

E) Using a solution of alcohol and acetic acid to dry and acidify the ear

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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs

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10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500

Sample Questions

Q1) An adult patient with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a severe acute crisis with an opioid analgesic,a glucocorticoid,and hydroxyurea. The patient's complete blood count reveals neutrophils 2000/mm³,platelets 85,000/mm³,reticulocytes 85,000/mm³,and a hemoglobin of 4.2 gm/dL. What will the nurse anticipate doing?

A) Decreasing the glucocorticoid dose

B) Increasing the glucocorticoid dose

C) Increasing the hydroxyurea dose

D) Stopping the hydroxyurea

Q2) A patient with cancer is taking rasburicase [Elitek] to treat hyperuricemia and develops neutropenia with fever and respiratory distress on the fourth day of treatment. The nurse caring for this patient will expect to:

A) administer allopurinol instead of rasburicase.

B) continue giving the drug and monitor the patient's symptoms closely.

C) tell the patient that this drug should never be used again.

D) tell the patient that these symptoms indicate severe sepsis.

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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501

Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse is performing a preoperative drug history on a patient who is admitted to the hospital for surgery. To evaluate the risk of hemorrhage,the nurse will ask the patient about antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications as well as which dietary supplement?

A) Coenzyme Q-10

B) Ginkgo biloba

C) Ma Huang (ephedra)

D) St. John's wort

Q2) The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John's wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which effect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?

A) It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.

B) It enhances the effects of digoxin.

C) It counteracts the effects of CNS depressants.

D) It increases the risk of bleeding.

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112

Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will begin taking dimercaprol [BAL in Oil] for arsenic poisoning. The nurse performs a medical history on this patient. Which aspect of the patient's history would cause the most concern?

A) Anemia

B) Lead exposure

C) Peanut allergy

D) Peptic ulcer disease

Q2) A prescriber has ordered deferasirox [Exjade] to treat iron overload associated with chronic blood transfusions. The nurse learns that the patient takes cholestyramine to reduce cholesterol. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order to:

A) increase the cholestyramine dose.

B) increase the deferasirox dose.

C) monitor cholesterol levels.

D) monitor liver function tests.

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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503

Sample Questions

Q1) Terrorists have detonated a "dirty bomb" in a shopping center. Nurses are called to the site to assist with triage of victims. Besides treating injuries incurred from the blast itself,the priorities for treatment for most of the victims will include:

A) administering potassium iodide as soon as possible.

B) giving Prussian blue and monitoring electrolytes.

C) monitoring urine and stool samples for radioactivity. D) removing clothing and bathing victims.

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an infusion of botulinum antitoxin after consuming botulinum toxin in contaminated food. The patient has developed double vision,slurred speech,and upper body muscle weakness. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the antitoxin will do. Which response is correct?

A) "The antitoxin is an antidote to the botulinum toxin."

B) "This medication helps restore strength in weakened muscles."

C) "This infusion will help prevent further nerve damage."

D) "The antitoxin will reverse the symptoms within a couple of days."

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