Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Review
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a foundational course that prepares students to provide comprehensive nursing care to adult patients experiencing a variety of medical and surgical conditions. The course emphasizes the application of the nursing process in assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating care for individuals with acute and chronic illnesses across multiple body systems. Students learn to recognize signs and symptoms, collaborate with interdisciplinary teams, administer medications, manage complex care plans, and educate patients and families about health maintenance and recovery. Critical thinking, evidence-based practice, and patient safety are integral components, preparing graduates for effective practice in diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primitive medical interventions were based on the belief that illness was caused by the presence of _______________ _________________.
Answer: evil spirits
Illness was thought to be caused by the inhabitation of the body by evil spirits. Medical interventions were designed to drive out the evil spirits by introducing good spirits.
Q2) What is a nursing program considered when certified by a state agency?
A) Accredited
B) Approved
C) Provisional
D) Exemplified
Answer: B
Q3) What must the nurse realize when assessing physical and social environmental factors affecting health and illness?
A) They affect one another.
B) They cause illness.
C) They cause patients to react similarly.
D) They can be separated.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An LPN/LVN is asked by the RN to administer an IV chemotherapeutic agent to a patient in the acute care setting. What law should this nurse refer to before initiating this intervention?
A) Standards of care
B) Regulation of practice
C) American Nurses' Association Code
D) Nurse practice act
Answer: D
Q2) When a nurse protects the information in a patient's record what ethical responsibility is the nurse fulfilling?
A) Privacy
B) Disclosure
C) Confidentiality
D) Absolute secrecy
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is documentation especially significant in managed care?
A) The hospital needs to show that employees care for patients.
B) Institutions are reimbursed only for patient care that is documented.
C) Patients might bring lawsuits if care was not given.
D) Documents may become part of a lawsuit.
Answer: B
Q2) Who is the legal owner of the patient's medical record?
A) Patient
B) Physician
C) Institution
D) State
Answer: C
Q3) The nurse charts only additional treatments done, changes in patient condition, and new concerns. What is this system of documentation?
A) SOAP
B) Block
C) CBE
D) Focus
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse examines whether patient interventions have been appropriate and expected outcomes have been met. The nurse is demonstrating which step in the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Q2) A nurse is assessing a patient with a nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication. What is the lowest number of defining characteristics for this diagnosis?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) If in response to the patient statement, "I am upset about all this lab work" the nurse responds, "You're upset?" What is this is an example of?
A) An open-ended question
B) Reflecting
C) Restating
D) Paraphrasing
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is confined to bed rest, which contributes to immobility. What is bed rest considered in this situation?
A) Contributing to the patient's recovery
B) A risk factor
C) Difficult to maintain
D) A nursing responsibility
Q2) What is an important consideration when developing the care plan?
A) Ensure the number of interventions is limited
B) Ensure the patient is involved in the process
C) Ensure interventions will be easy to implement
D) Ensure evaluation of the nursing diagnoses is possible
Q3) A patient with a urinary tract infection is assessed using a clinical pathway. When a projected outcome is not met by a predetermined date, it is determined that what has occurred?
A) Omission
B) Variance
C) Failure
D) Error
Q4) The standards that name and measure patient outcomes are referred to as
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a Muslim patient. What dietary selection should the nurse serve to this patient?
A) Bacon, eggs, and toast
B) Pork fried rice
C) Ham and cheese sandwich
D) Chicken and rice
Q2) What is a set of learned values, beliefs, customs, and practices shared by a group?
A) Race
B) Ethnicity
C) Culture
D) Religion
Q3) Which statement about the biomedical health belief system is true?
A) Life processes can be manipulated by human beings by mechanical interventions.
B) Life processes cannot be manipulated by human beings by mechanical interventions.
C) Disease has a nonspecific cause, onset, course, and treatment.
D) Disease is only caused by failure of body parts and chemical imbalances.
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is concerned when a patient admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia suddenly develops a urinary tract infection (UTI). What type of infection is this UTI considered?
A) Viral infection
B) Bacterial infection
C) Health care-associated infection
D) Spore infection
Q2) The nurse observes a patient demonstrating wound cleaning. What action indicates the need for further instruction?
A) Using sterile gloves to perform the cleaning
B) Applying an antiseptic to the area
C) Cleaning the area from the outside in
D) Washing hands with soap
Q3) What contribution did Joseph Lister introduce to medical practice?
A) Isolation of infected patients
B) Iodine and alcohol use as disinfectants
C) The autoclave
D) Aseptic technique
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) _________________________________machines flex and extend joints to mobilize them passively without the strain of active exercises.
Q2) The nurse counsels the immobilized patient in regard to prevention of muscle atrophy and contractures. What will the nurse be sure to include when counseling this patient?
A) The need for additional calcium
B) The need for additional protein
C) The need for some type of exercise
D) The need for a special protective bed
Q3) What is considered to be the minimum number of hours of daily activity necessary to prevent the negative consequences of immobility?
A) 2 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
Q4) To maintain a wide base of support, the nurse should stand with the feet separated by the distance of _______ times the length of the nurse's shoe.
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of its effect on epithelization, the LPN/LVN should confirm the order to use ____________ or _____________ on a stage III pressure ulcer.
Q2) The nurse must follow the principles of medical asepsis while making a patient's bed, including procedures for handling linens. How should the nurse handle soiled linens?
A) Place on the floor
B) Fan in the air
C) Hold away from the uniform
D) Place at the end of the bed
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing presbycusis. What intervention should the nursing personnel be instructed to implement?
A) Speak quickly to the patient
B) Speak in loud tones to the patient
C) Speak slowly and clearly to the patient
D) Tell the patient they must purchase a hearing aid
Q4) The nurse avoids dragging the patient across the bed linen to decrease the potential risk of skin injury by _________.
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse instructs a nursing assistant about the proper use of a gait belt and is observing a return demonstration. What action by the nursing assistant should cause the nurse to intervene?
A) Nursing assistant is walking on the patient's strong side
B) Nursing assistant is walking to the side of the patient
C) Nursing assistant is securing the gait belt securely around the patient's waist
D) Nursing assistant is grasping the handles of the gait belt while the patient ambulates
Q2) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A) Vacuum the spill
B) Open interior doors
C) Close all outside windows
D) Open any outside windows
Q3) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
Q4) ___________ is a violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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30 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well?
A) Constant
B) Intermittent
C) Remittent
D) Elevated
Q2) A nurse assesses a patient's dorsalis pedis pulse. The pulse is easily felt but not palpable when moderate pressure is applied. How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Weak pulse
B) Normal pulse
C) Thready pulse
D) Bounding pulse
Q3) The patient's pulse is below 60. The nurse is aware that the patient is not receiving digoxin. What does the nurse suspect is causing the bradycardia?
A) Low exercise tolerance
B) Unrelieved severe pain
C) Excessive bed rest
D) A prone position
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition in which there is a temporary loss of consciousness associated with an increased rate of respiration, tachycardia, pallor, perspiration, and coolness of the skin is known as _________________.
Q2) The signs and symptoms of both infection and inflammation include erythema, edema, and pain. What is considered the major difference between infection and inflammation?
A) Inflammation is a result of bacteria.
B) Inflammation is a protective response.
C) Inflammation is a disease process.
D) Inflammation produces tissue damage.
Q3) What is the suggested sequence for a systematic approach to begin auscultating the thorax?
A) Anterior thorax
B) Apices
C) Left lateral thorax
D) Right lateral thorax
Q4) The nurse observes that an older adult patient has no hair on the lower legs. The nurse should assess further for the sufficiency of _________ ________.
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital. When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry. What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
A) Withdrawal
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Regression
Q2) Upon admission, the nurse notes that a patient without family members present has a billfold filled with cash. Where can the nurse suggest the money be placed?
A) In a sealed envelope in the bedside table
B) In the care of hospital security
C) Locked in the narcotic cupboard
D) In the hospital safe
Q3) The nurse completes thorough documentation before, during, and after a transfer to ensure _______ of _______.
Q4) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
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15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a postoperative patient discovers that the pulse is rapid, blood pressure has decreased, urinary output has decreased, and the dressing is dry. What can the nurse determine is indicated by these findings?
A) Pain shock
B) Dehydration
C) Internal hemorrhage
D) Acute infection
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes a clear watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q3) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes bright red drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the cleanest part of a voided urine specimen that is collected after voiding is initiated and before it is finished?
A) Sterile specimen
B) "Caught" specimen
C) Midstream specimen
D) Patient-collected specimen
Q2) What intervention should the nurse implement when preparing the patient for a glucose tolerance test (GTT)?
A) Restrict water intake before the test
B) Encourage water intake before the test
C) Keep patient NPO 4 hours before the test
D) Instruct patient to have a full bladder for the test
Q3) What should the nurse encourage the patient to consume when preparing for an electroencephalogram (EEG)?
A) Tea
B) Food
C) Cola
D) Coffee
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been stung by a bee and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse observes the sting site and identifies that the stinger is still in the skin. What action should the nurse take?
A) Remove it with sterile tweezers
B) Soak the area with a cold compress
C) Scrape the stinger with the side of a knife
D) Squeeze the surrounding tissue to expel the stinger
Q2) A machinist visits the industrial nurse's clinic with a deep laceration of the thigh. What should be the nurse's first action?
A) Splint the thigh and apply tape to approximate the edges
B) Apply ice and a pressure dressing to the thigh
C) Give a tetanus booster injection
D) Wash the laceration with an antiseptic
Q3) When two nurses perform two-person CPR, there should be _____ slow breaths for every _____ compressions.
Q4) When treating an infant choking on a foreign body, the nurse should use a combination of ______ _________ and chest thrusts.
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
Q2) The nurse is obtaining health history information on a new patient at a physician's office and he or she records a barbiturate medication on the current list. What herb should the nurse ask if the patient is taking?
A) St. John's wort
B) Aloe vera
C) Valerian
D) Ginkgo
Q3) ___________________is a noninvasive method an individual can employ to learn control of the body to manage certain conditions. Monitoring equipment is used to measure vital signs and muscle tension. The messages are sent back to the individual.
Q4) What is the goal of herbal therapy?
A) Treat symptoms
B) Restore balance
C) Treat disease
D) Improve nutrition
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse he is reluctant to report his pain because he does not want to be a bother. What problems is the nurse aware that unrelieved pain can cause? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased oxygen demand
B) Depression
C) Respiratory dysfunction
D) Decreased GI motility
E) Irritability
Q2) A patient reports to the nurse that he is experiencing a moderate amount of back pain rated 6 out of 10 on the pain scale. What should the nurse recognize about this assessment?
A) Pain is objective for the nurse.
B) Pain is easy to recognize.
C) Pain is subjective for the patient.
D) Pain is easily relieved if found early.
Q3) The nurse clarifies that the term peripheral analgesics describes the group of drugs also referred to as ___________.
Q4) The pain relief intervention that stimulates large cutaneous nerve fibers to "close the gate" is the _________ unit.
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) At approximately 4 to 6 months of age, solid food is introduced to a baby. What foods with high iron content should be recommended by the nurse?
A) Pureed fruit
B) Fortified cereals
C) Fruit juice
D) Rice
Q2) A nurse caring for a patient who is prescribed a full-liquid diet recognizes that this diet lacks some nutrients. What nutrients are lacking?
A) Fat-soluble vitamins
B) Potassium
C) Iron and fiber
D) Water-soluble vitamins
Q3) A fit, young woman was at zero nitrogen balance. The nurse discovers that this patient is now pregnant with her first child. For what is this patient at risk?
A) Embolism
B) Anabolism
C) Catabolism
D) Metabolism
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
Q2) What is the method by which inhaled oxygen is moved into the intravascular compartment called?
A) Active transport
B) Oxygenation
C) Passive transport
D) Mass movement
Q3) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
Q4) A patient admitted in a state of extreme anxiety has vital signs of: T 98.6° F, P 81, BP 130/86, R 32. What will result if this hyperventilation continues?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
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22
Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fractions is the smallest?
A) 3/12
B) 2/3
C) 5/6
D) 3/4
Q2) When the patient complains about his IV lines and asks if he can have the medication by mouth, what is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Pills are difficult for many patients to swallow."
B) "Medication by mouth is absorbed more slowly than by any other route."
C) "It takes more time for the nurse to prepare and administer oral medications."
D) "It leads to more errors to give pills, because the pills all look alike."
Q3) Which of the following fractions is the largest?
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 1/5
Q4) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hot moist compresses have which positive effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement of circulation
B) Relief of edema
C) Consolidation of exudates
D) Enhancement of scabbing
E) Relief of pain
Q2) The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream.
Q3) During insertion of a Foley catheter, the patient grimaces as the balloon is inflated. What is the immediate reaction of the nurse?
A) Withdraw the catheter
B) Ask the patient to bear down
C) Continue to inflate the balloon
D) Advance the catheter into the bladder
Q4) What would be the correct explanation of catheter care?
A) Cleansing the first 2 inches of the catheter with soap and water every shift
B) Disinfecting the entire catheter with alcohol every shift
C) Lubricating the catheter with antiseptic lotion every 24 hours
D) Cleansing the meatal-catheter junction every 24 hours
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What stage of family development involves the grown children departing from home?
A) Expectant stage
B) Senescence stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Disengagement stage
Q2) Which theory of aging suggests that previously developed coping abilities and the ability to maintain previous roles and activities are critical to adjustment to old age?
A) Continuity theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Disengagement theory
Q3) How can a family best assist a toddler who is attempting to feed himself?
A) Encourage the child to use a fork
B) Feed the child themselves using a fork
C) Encourage large portions for easier handling
D) Offer the child finger foods
Q4) Growth and development that moves from the center toward the outside is known as ____________________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is a durable power of attorney helpful to an incapacitated patient?
A) It directs treatment in accordance with the patient's wishes.
B) It directs an agent to make health care decisions.
C) It gives power to an agent to make decisions regarding health, property, and other assets.
D) It can only be executed by an attorney.
Q2) When the nurse is developing a care plan for a terminally ill patient, what might be a realistic goal?
A) The patient will remain pain-free.
B) The patient will function optimally.
C) The patient will spend time out of bed.
D) The patient will demonstrate improved nutritional status.
Q3) What should the nurse do before approaching a grieving family member?
A) Offer sympathy
B) Assess level of resolution
C) Give assurance that the pain will pass
D) Encourage the family member to return to normal activities
Q4) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman asks the nurse about the safety of sexual intercourse during her pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is the most correct?
A) "Sexual activity should be avoided after the first trimester."
B) "Sexual activity should be ceased in the case of vaginal bleeding."
C) "Sexual activity should be avoided in the second trimester."
D) "Sexual activity should be limited to activity that does not include intercourse."
Q2) The physician decides to send the mother for a test to determine the fetal lung maturity. What is the name of this fetal well-being test?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Alpha-fetoprotein
C) Amniocentesis
D) Ultrasound
Q3) How long does the embryonic stage of pregnancy typically last?
A) 3 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 8 weeks
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. During initial assessment, the baby is found to be engaged. Which statement is true?
A) The narrowest diameter of the presenting part has reached the pelvic outlet.
B) The descending part is being initiated through the midpelvis.
C) The widest diameter of the presenting part crosses the pelvic inlet.
D) The narrowest diameter of the presenting part is at the ischial spines.
Q2) A woman is admitted in active labor, and the nurse assesses the fetal heart rate (FHR) at 124 bpm. What action should the nurse take based on the assessment?
A) Position patient on her left side
B) Start oxygen per nasal cannula
C) Reassure the mother the rate is normal
D) Notify the physician at once
Q3) Which assessment findings suggest probable fetal distress? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 120
B) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
C) Decreased FHR during contractions
D) Strong contractions 10 seconds apart
E) Slow return of FHR to baseline
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be included in a teaching plan regarding breast engorgement?
A) It typically occurs on the first postpartum day
B) It is usually first observed in the axillary region
C) It occurs only in women who are not breastfeeding
D) It occurs near the nipple on the third postpartum day
Q2) A mother delivered her baby at midnight and it is now 9 AM. She wants to sleep and asks the nurse to take care of the baby. What is this considered?
A) Fatigue from labor
B) Normal "taking in" response
C) Abnormal "taking in" response
D) Risk for altered maternal-infant bonding
Q3) Following delivery of the newborn, which nursing intervention should be carried out immediately?
A) Weigh the infant
B) Warm the infant
C) Bathe the infant
D) Inoculate the infant
Q4) The nurse describes the return of the postpartum patient's uterus to a pregravid state as ________________.
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The newborn infant has oxygenation problems and a lack of subcutaneous fat. What should the nurse determine as the gestational age of this infant?
A) 20 to 37 completed weeks of pregnancy
B) 38 to 41 completed weeks of pregnancy
C) 14 to 36 completed weeks of pregnancy
D) 42 or more completed weeks of pregnancy
Q2) The nurse is assessing the newborn and discovers a yellowing of the skin. What is true for jaundice that appears at birth?
A) Within normal limits
B) Pathologic
C) A result of iron deficiency
D) Indicating possible hepatitis
Q3) The nurse is assessing a "kick count" for a patient with gestational hypertension. What result should be a cause for concern?
A) Less than three kicks per hour
B) Less than five kicks per hour
C) Less than seven kicks per hour
D) Less than nine kicks per hour
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the leading cause of fatal injury in children younger than 1 year old?
A) Burns
B) Poisons
C) Asphyxiation
D) Motor vehicle accidents
Q2) A major dental problem among very young children is bottle mouth caries. What is a preventative measure the nurse should suggest?
A) Juice at bedtime
B) Milk at bedtime
C) A sugar-coated pacifier
D) Water at bedtime
Q3) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
Q4) What is the third leading cause of accidental death in children 1 to 4 years of age?
A) Falls
B) Asphyxiation
C) Poisons
D) Burns
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pediatric nurse, along with the primary caregiver(s), has a special duty to ________ the child and the family.
Q2) What is the purpose of a mist tent?
A) To provide a constant oxygen supply
B) To liquefy respiratory secretions
C) To aid in lowering temperature
D) To improve the infant's hydration
Q3) When a safety reminder device (SRD) is used to protect a child, what is a responsibility of the nurse?
A) Apply it loosely
B) Remove it every 2 hours
C) Place it over clothing
D) Apply only one type
Q4) When communicating with parents suspected of child abuse, what should the nurse be sure to do?
A) Tell them the law requires reporting of the incident
B) Be sympathetic to their needs
C) Interact with them in a nonjudgmental manner
D) Suggest psychiatric counseling
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
A) Clubbing of the digits
B) Upper extremity hypertension
C) Pedal edema and portal congestion
D) Loud systolic ejection murmur
Q2) A child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy rises from the floor by walking up the thighs with the hands. How should the nurse record this observation?
A) Hand assistance
B) Leg crawling
C) Gowers sign
D) Bright sign
Q3) Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?
A) Apricots and peaches
B) Chocolate milk
C) Applesauce and milk
D) Bananas and rice
Q4) The nurse anticipates that the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) taken from a child with bacterial meningitis would have a low __________ level.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse initiates the application of a draw sheet on every bedfast patient on her unit to facilitate lifting and to prevent _________ forces.
Q2) What should be suggested to a patient to aid with the pain of claudication?
A) Rest
B) Exercise
C) Cross legs
D) Stand
Q3) The patient complains to the nurse about a newly developed intolerance to milk. What should the nurse suggest to fulfill calcium needs?
A) Rye bread
B) Yogurt
C) Apples
D) Raisins
Q4) When should family members of a stroke victim expect to see some of the neurologic involvement disappear?
A) Within 2 to 3 weeks
B) Within 1 to 2 months
C) Within 3 to 6 months
D) Within 6 to 9 months
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a young woman who is a teacher, happily married, raising two children, taking care of her disabled mother, and going to school to get a master's degree. How should the behavior of the young woman be classified?
A) Ego-centered
B) Role integrated
C) High-level wellness
D) Unbounded energy
Q2) The situation in which a parent must choose between attending a daughter's ballet recital or a son's baseball game is an example of a __________.
Q3) What action by a student before taking a test should indicate to a nursing instructor that the student is demonstrating signs of moderate anxiety?
A) Studies for 6 hours
B) Sleeps 6 hours because of fatigue
C) Vomits
D) Argues about the scheduling of the test
Q4) In the movie Gone with the Wind, Scarlett O'Hara says, "I'll think about that tomorrow. Tomorrow is another day." The nurse recognizes the defense mechanism of
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When all five axes of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Psychiatric Disorders, V, are used, it provides what type of assessment approach to comprehensive care?
A) Personalized
B) Individualized
C) Holistic
D) Organic
Q2) The nurse is told that a patient believes he was born into the wrong body. What is the correct terminology for the desire to have the body of the opposite sex?
A) Homosexuality
B) Transsexualism
C) Heterosexuality
D) Bisexuality
Q3) The patient complains of recurrent, multiple physical ailments for which there is no organic cause. How should the nurse assess this?
A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) Phobia anxiety disorder
C) Somatoform disorder
D) Delusional disorder
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) consists of abstinent alcoholics who help other alcoholics become and stay sober. What is the foundation of AA?
A) Psychotherapy
B) A 12-step program
C) Treatment center
D) Individual counseling
Q2) When a patient denies any problems related to addiction, what is the nurse's most therapeutic response?
A) "What do you call this hospitalization?"
B) "How can anybody help you if you don't see a problem?"
C) "Would your family agree that you have no problems?"
D) "Can you think of any time your behavior created an unpleasant situation in your life?"
Q3) What should the nurse do to decrease the damage of bruxism seen in a patient who has been abusing the drug ecstasy?
A) Turn the patient to his right side
B) Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees
C) Provide the patient with a pacifier
D) Administer a muscle relaxant
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What has been influenced by the increase in home health providers supporting healthy living and illness prevention, and a movement toward deinstitutionalization of technology-dependent children and adults?
A) Criteria for admission
B) Age of eligibility
C) Reimbursement criteria
D) Length of financial support
Q2) What is the fastest-growing group in the U.S. population today?
A) 30- to 40-year-olds
B) 40- to 50-year-olds
C) 50- to 65-year-olds
D) Those 85 and older
Q3) The nurse should provide the patient and family with accurate health information concerning diagnoses and progress. What will accurate information help the family to become?
A) Active participants
B) Effective caregivers
C) Encouraged supporters
D) Active providers
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suggests to a family caring for a member with early Alzheimer disease in their home that they investigate the services of an adult day care center. What is a major benefit of adult day care centers?
A) It takes the patient out on recreational outings.
B) It can provide daily hygiene.
C) It expands social interaction.
D) It is free to the public.
Q2) A 48-year-old long-term care facility resident expresses concern that the cost of his care has used up his assets. For what program should the nurse suggest that the resident apply to cover the continued cost of living in a long-term facility?
A) Medicare
B) Hospitalization insurance
C) Medicaid
D) Public health funds
Q3) Two unique members of the caregiving team in a long-term care facility are the ___________ ___________ aide/technician and the ___________ _____________ assistant.
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning care for children, the nurse uses a concept that recognizes the pivotal role of the family in the lives of children with disabilities or other chronic conditions. What is this philosophy called?
A) Child-centered care
B) Systems-centered care
C) Family-centered care
D) Individual-centered care
Q2) A child who was struck by a car and suffered a closed head injury was unconscious for 24 hours before waking. The nurse recognizes this as a _______ brain injury.
Q3) The acquisition of adaptive skills and behaviors by an individual who has been disabled since birth refers to:
A) training.
B) education.
C) development.
D) habilitation.
Q4) The nurse who assesses for cultural influences, values cultural diversity, and incorporates cultural knowledge in practice is said to be ____________
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse explains that to qualify for admission to a hospice, the attending physician must certify that the patient has a life expectancy of fewer than how many months?
A) 2 months
B) 3 months
C) 4 months
D) 6 months
Q2) What is the most common problem of the terminally ill patient that is caused by narcotics?
A) Malnutrition
B) Constipation
C) Fluid retention
D) Dehydration
Q3) When a deficiency in nutritional status of a patient is assessed, what action should be taken by the hospice nurse?
A) Make a comprehensive grocery list for the caregiver
B) Alert the licensed medical nutritionist
C) Seek culturally appropriate methods to increase nutrition
D) Instruct the caregiver to give the patient multivitamins
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the transverse body plane divide?
A) The front and back (coronal) of the body
B) The body lengthwise (two equal halves)
C) The superior and inferior portions of the body
D) The body into axial and appendicular
Q2) When several organs and parts are grouped together for certain functions, they form:
A) tissues.
B) systems.
C) cells.
D) membranes.
Q3) In anatomic terminology, posterior means toward the: A) tail.
B) head.
C) back.
D) trunk.
Q4) The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane.
Q5) The nurse clarifies that the three functions of epithelial tissue are _____________,___________, and __________.
42
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a postsurgical patient is aware that the patient should void ____ to _____ hours postsurgery.
Q2) The nurse clarifies that serum potassium levels are determined before surgery to:
A) assess kidney function.
B) determine respiratory insufficiency.
C) prevent arrhythmias related to anesthesia.
D) measure functional liver capability.
Q3) What should the nurse do to minimize the potential for venous stasis?
A) Place pillows under the knee in a position of comfort
B) Assist patient to sit with feet flat on the floor
C) Assist with early ambulation
D) Perform gentle leg massage
Q4) ______________ therapy is performed to alleviate or decrease uncomfortable symptoms without curing the problem.
Q5) Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the ______________ period and continues through the _____________ period.
Q6) The nurse is aware that there is a loss of _________ during catabolism after severe tissue injury.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse examine in assessing a patient for tinea corporis?
A) Soles of the feet
B) Scalp
C) Armpits
D) Abdomen
Q2) Which of the following are nursing interventions and patient teaching for the treatment of head lice and scabies? (Select all that apply.)
A) Clothing, linens, and bath articles thoroughly cleaned in hot water
B) Stress nature and transmission of the disease
C) Special carbohydrate diet to promote healing
D) Complete isolation from the public
Q3) What is a common diagnostic criterion for identifying systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Butterfly rash over nose and cheeks
B) Photosensitivity
C) Severe abdominal pain
D) Skin ulcers
E) Polyarthralgias and polyarthritis
F) Immobility
44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instructions should the nurse include in a teaching plan for a person with gouty arthritis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid excessive alcohol.
B) Maintain rest and immobility while disease is symptomatic.
C) Check urine and urine output for possible kidney stones.
D) Include food high in purine in the diet.
E) Use bed cradle to support linens.
Q2) What should the nurse instruct the patient before the initiation of the antimalarial drug hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)?
A) Get a complete blood count to assess anemia.
B) Get a chest x-ray.
C) Get an eye examination.
D) Take prophylaxis for malaria.
Q3) The office nurse has noted the presence of an increase in lumbar curvature in a 20-year-old female patient. What is this condition known as?
A) Scoliosis
B) Lordosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Spondylitis
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is being evaluated for episodes of hematemesis and dyspepsia tells the nurse that pain occurs when he eats, but pain does not waken him. The nurse recognizes a diagnostic sign of which condition?
A) Duodenal ulcer
B) Gastritis
C) Achalasia
D) Peptic ulcer
Q2) What should a nurse do when obtaining a stool specimen to be examined for ova and parasites?
A) Use an oil retention enema to facilitate collection
B) Refrigerate the specimen immediately
C) Obtain three different stool specimens on subsequent days
D) Check the specimen for the presence of occult blood
Q3) The nurse takes into consideration that a proton pump inhibitor drug, such as ______________, will completely eradicate gastric acid production.
A) omeprazole (Prilosec)
B) ranitidine (Zantac)
C) sucralfate (Carafate)
D) olsalazine (Dipentum)
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse avoid contamination from to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A?
A) Food or water
B) Blood transfusion
C) Needles
D) Sexual contact
Q2) Which assessment would indicate possible gallbladder disease in an older adult?
A) Dull pain in the right upper quadrant region
B) Changes in color of urine or stool
C) Distention of veins in upper part of body
D) Aching muscles and tenderness in the liver
Q3) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
Q4) The 100 lb patient who has been exposed to hepatitis A is to receive an injection of immune serum globulin. What should the dose (.02 mL/kg) be?
A) 0.9 mL
B) 1.4 mL
C) 1.6 mL
D) 1.8 mL
Page 47
Q5) ___________ is a condition characterized by yellowing of the sclera and the skin.
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse examines the complete blood count (CBC) to assess (select all that apply):
A) hematocrit.
B) red cell count.
C) differential white cell count.
D) plasma level.
E) blood type.
F) hemoglobin.
Q2) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Q3) The nurse clarifies that ____________ _______________ replaces iron stores needed for red blood cell production.
Q4) The nurse explains that the treatment of hemophilia A has been revolutionized with the advent of the use of:
A) corticosteroids.
B) large doses of testosterone.
C) recombinant factor VIII.
D) transfusion with packed red cells.
Q5) The Reed-Sternberg cell is the hallmark diagnostic indicator for
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Chapter
47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse points out which of the following as modifiable risks for coronary artery disease (CAD)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Heredity
C) Smoking
D) Hypertension
E) Hyperlipidemia
F) Age
Q2) The patient has been hospitalized for hypertensive episodes three times in the last months. While preparing the discharge teaching plan, the nurse assesses that he does not comply with his medication regimen. The nurse's immediate course of action would be to:
A) reteach him about his medications.
B) have a serious talk with him and his family about compliance.
C) arrange for home visits after discharge.
D) collect more information to identify his reasons for noncompliance.
Q3) The cardiac marker ___________ rises 3 hours after a myocardial infarct and measures myocardial contractile protein.
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Chapter
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5502
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient assessment indicates the most severe respiratory distress?
A) Nasal flaring, symmetrical chest wall expansion, SaO2 88%
B) Abdominal breathing, SaO2 97%
C) Substernal retraction, SaO2 84%
D) Substernal retraction, SaO2 90%
Q2) What is a major advantage of video assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)?
A) The surgeon can record entire surgical procedure on a video.
B) The surgeon can remove tumors of the lung through a small keyhole incision.
C) The surgeon can x-ray and excise tumor in the same procedure.
D) The surgeon can avoid the use of a closed chest drainage system after surgery.
Q3) Identify the purposes of chest drainage. (Select all that apply.)
A) Drains air, blood, and fluid from pleural space
B) Restores positive pressure in chest cavity
C) Restores negative intrapleural pressure
D) Allows lung to collapse and rest
E) Allows route for medication administration
Q4) The nurse explains that the diagnostic test that can scan the chest and the abdomen in less than 30 seconds is the _____________ _____.
Q5) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intravenous pyelogram confirms the presence of a 4-mm renal calculus in the proximal left ureter of a newly admitted patient. Physician orders include meperidine (Demerol) 100 mg IM q4h PRN, strain all urine, and encourage fluids to 4000 mL/day. What should be the nurse's highest priority when planning care for this patient?
A) Pain related to irritation of a stone
B) Anxiety related to unclear outcome of condition
C) Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of knowledge about prevention of stones
D) Risk for injury related to disorientation
Q2) A patient, age 69, is admitted to the hospital with gross hematuria and history of a 20-lb weight loss during the last 3 months. The physician suspects renal cancer. In obtaining a nursing history from this patient, the nurse recognizes which of the following as a significant risk factor for renal cancer?
A) High caffeine intake
B) Cigarette smoking
C) Use of artificial sweeteners
D) Chronic cystitis
Q3) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would a patient with hyperthyroidism be prescribed the drug methimazole (Tapa-zole)?
A) To limit the effect of the pituitary on the thyroid
B) To destroy part of the hyperactive thyroid tissue
C) To stimulate the pineal gland
D) To block the production of thyroid hormones
Q2) Which test will furnish immediate feedback for a newly diagnosed diabetic who is not yet under control?
A) Fasting blood sugar (FBS)
B) Glycosylated hemoglobin (HgbA1c)
C) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
D) Clinitest
Q3) A patient with a history of Graves disease is admitted to the unit with shortness of breath. The nurse notes the patient's vital signs: T 103° F, P 160, R 24, BP 160/80. The nurse also notes distended neck veins. What does the patient most likely have?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Thyroid storm
D) Cushing crisis
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Gram stain smear of the patient's discharge reveals the presence of N. gonorrhoeae. He tells the nurse that he had sexual contact with a new girlfriend but does not think he was exposed to gonorrhea because she did not appear to have any disease. Which information should the nurse include in response to his comment?
A) "Women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to males."
B) "When gonorrhea infections occur in women, the disease affects only the ovaries and not the other genital organs."
C) "Many women are not aware that they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms of infection."
D) "Women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or symptoms."
Q2) Why would the nurse encourage the patient who is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy to exercise the affected arm?
A) To reduce pain
B) To stimulate appetite
C) To reduce lymphedema
D) To increase muscle tension
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a tympanoplasty correct?
A) Conductive hearing loss
B) Sensorineural hearing loss
C) Congenital hearing loss
D) Functional hearing loss
Q2) What should the nurse do when assisting a blind person to walk in an unfamiliar hospital environment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Discourage the use of the cane
B) Advise the patient to walk quickly
C) Describe the surroundings
D) Encourage the patient to ask for verbal cues
E) Place patient hand on nurse's shoulder or elbow
Q3) Why is otitis media found more frequently in children 6 to 36 months?
A) Eustachian tubes in children are shorter and straighter.
B) Infection descends via the eustachian tube to the throat.
C) Children's eustachian tubes are more vertical and longer.
D) Otitis media is seen equally in both children and adults.
Q4) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
Q5) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a myelogram the nurse should include in the postprocedure care assessment for:
A) elevation of blood pressure.
B) urine retention.
C) sensation in lower extremities.
D) slurred speech.
Q2) How would the nurse instruct a patient with Parkinson disease to improve activity level?
A) To use a soft mattress to relax the spine
B) To walk with a shuffling gait to avoid tripping
C) To walk with hands clasped behind back to help balance
D) To sit in hard chair with arms for posture control
Q3) The nurse is aware that the drug t-PA (Activase), a tissue plasminogen activator, must be given in____hours of the onset of symptoms to have maximum benefit.
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 6 hours
D) 8 hours
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is B-cell proliferation dependent on?
A) Presence of NK (natural killer) cells
B) Complement system
C) Antigen stimulation
D) Lymphokines
Q2) If a nurse is sensitive to latex gloves, what potential food sensitivities might the nurse develop? (Select all that apply.)
A) Peanuts
B) Avocados
C) Milk
D) Bananas
E) Tomatoes
F) Potatoes
Q3) What should the nurse include to assess for in the plan of care for a patient undergoing plasmapheresis?
A) Hypotension
B) Hypersensitivity
C) Urticaria
D) Flank pain
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with the HIV virus.
Q2) What medication times should the nurse use in writing out a schedule for taking antiretroviral medication three times a day?
A) 8 AM - 2 PM - 8 PM
B) 8AM - 4PM - 12 AM
C) 8AM - 5PM - 1 AM
D) Be given with meals
Q3) Which of the following are early signs and symptoms of an HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dry mouth
B) Weight loss
C) Sore throat
D) Vaginal dryness
E) Nausea
F) Dyspnea
Q4) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
Q2) What happens during the process of immunosurveillance?
A) T cells recognizing and destroying the abnormal cell
B) White cells (WBC) destroying the abnormal cell
C) Excretion of histamine to interfere with the replication of the abnormal cell
D) B cells attaching to abnormal cell
Q3) Which of the following are risk factors for cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ethnicity
B) Environmental irritants
C) Alcoholism
D) Hereditary factors
E) Excessive exercise
F) Exposure to ultraviolet light
Q4) The American Cancer Society recommends a clinical breast examination by a health care professional for women between the age of 20 and 39 years every ________ years.
Q5) The term ____________ refers to the process by which a normal cell is transformed into a cancer cell.
Q6) Men over age 50 should consider an annual _________ test and rectal examination.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n) ________________.
Q2) What is the name of the licensing law that defines the title and regulations governing the practice of nursing and states the requirements for licensure?
A) State practice act
B) Nurse regulation act
C) Nurse practice act
D) Legislative act
Q3) Which setting provides greater nurse autonomy and continuity of care and is less costly for insurance companies?
A) Hospice
B) Hospitals
C) Home health
D) Long-term care
Q4) After transcribing each order in a list of orders, the nurse should ___________ __________ the order.
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