Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course that focuses on the care of adult patients with a wide range of medical and surgical conditions. Emphasizing the nursing process, critical thinking, and evidence-based practice, this course covers patient assessment, planning and implementation of care, and evaluation of outcomes across diverse clinical settings. Students learn about pathophysiology, pharmacology, and psychosocial aspects relevant to commonly encountered health problems, while developing skills in prioritizing care, patient education, and collaboration within the healthcare team to promote optimal patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 9th Edition by Burchum
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1446 Verified Questions
1446 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient,the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how a medication works to treat an illness. To do this,the nurse will rely on knowledge of which topic?
A) Clinical pharmacology
B) Drug efficacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse consults a drug manual before giving a medication to an 80-year-old patient. The manual states that older-adult patients are at increased risk for hepatic side effects. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Contact the provider to discuss an order for pretreatment laboratory work.
B) Ensure that the drug is given in the correct dose at the correct time to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
C) Notify the provider that this drug is contraindicated for this patient.
D) Request an order to give the medication intravenously so that the drug does not pass through the liver.
Answer: A
Q2) A postoperative patient is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone [Lortab] for pain. The patient asks the nurse about using Tylenol for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medications."
B) "Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity."
C) "There are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe."
D) "Tylenol and Lortab are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose."
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA Amendments Act (FDAAA)was passed in 2007 to address which aspect of drug safety?
A) Allowing pharmaceutical companies to identify off-label uses of medications approved for other uses
B) Evaluating drug safety information that emerges after a drug has been approved and is in use
C) Expediting the approval process of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) so that needed drugs can get to market more quickly
D) Requiring manufacturers to notify patients before removing a drug from the market
Answer: B
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:
A) excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.
B) reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.
C) recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.
D) transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.
Q2) A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?
A) "This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug."
B) "This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient."
C) "This route is the best way to control serum drug levels."
D) "This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes."
Q3) A patient is taking a drug that does not bind to albumin. Which aspect of renal drug excretion is affected by this characteristic?
A) Active tubular secretion
B) Glomerular filtration
C) Passive tubular reabsorption
D) pH-dependent ionization
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6
Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.
B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
Q2) A patient who is taking morphine for pain asks the nurse how a pain medication can also cause constipation. What does the nurse know about morphine?
A) It binds to different types of receptors in the body.
B) It can cause constipation in toxic doses.
C) It causes only one type of response, and the constipation is coincidental.
D) It is selective to receptors that regulate more than one body process.
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a discussion of drug-drug interactions,which would be the best example of a beneficial inhibitory interaction?
A) Naloxone [Narcan] blocking morphine sulfate's actions
B) Antacids blocking the action of tetracycline [Sumycin]
C) Propanolol [Inderal] blocking the effects of albuterol
D) Cholestyramine blocking the actions of antihypertensive drugs
Q2) A patient is taking drug X and receives a new prescription for drug Y,which is listed as an inducing agent. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this patient may require ____ doses of drug ____.
A) lower; X
B) lower; Y
C) higher; X
D) higher; Y
Q3) Which statement about food and drug interactions is true?
A) Foods alter drug absorption and metabolism but not drug action.
B) Medications are best absorbed on an empty stomach.
C) Patient discomfort is the food and drug interaction of most concern.
D) Some foods can inhibit CYP isoenzymes and alter drug metabolism.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is given a drug for the first time and develops shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 76 beats per minute,the respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute,and the blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. The nurse checks a drug administration manual to make sure the correct dose was given and learns that some patients taking the drug experience shortness of breath. The nurse will contact the provider to report what?
A) An allergic reaction
B) An idiosyncratic effect
C) An iatrogenic response
D) A side effect
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who will begin taking a drug with a known risk of hepatotoxicity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should avoid taking acetaminophen while taking this drug."
B) "I will need periodic evaluation of aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels."
C) "If I experience nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, I should call my provider."
D) "Routine testing and early detection of problems will prevent liver failure."
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Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a woman with breast cancer who is receiving tamoxifen. A review of this patient's chart reveals a deficiency of the CYP2D6 gene. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:
A) a different medication.
B) an increased dose.
C) a reduced dose.
D) serum drug levels.
Q2) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Older adults
B) Caucasians
C) Infants
D) Minorities
E) Women
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Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse about the safe use of medications during the third trimester. What will the nurse tell her about drugs taken at this stage?
A) They may need to be given in higher doses if they undergo renal clearance.
B) They require lower doses if they are metabolized by the liver.
C) They are less likely to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
D) They are more likely to cause anatomical defects if they are teratogenic.
Q3) A patient has just given birth to a baby boy with a cleft palate. The nurse will review the patient's medication history with special emphasis on drugs taken during which period?
A) Before she became pregnant
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research?
A) Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children.
B) Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing.
C) Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children.
D) There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.
Q2) An infant is receiving a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse reviews the medication information and learns that the drug is excreted by the kidneys. When giving the medication,the nurse will assess the infant for:
A) decreased effectiveness of the drug.
B) shorter period of the drug's effects.
C) signs of drug toxicity.
D) unusual CNS effects.
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Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about administering medications to older adult patients. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Alteration in hepatic function requires more frequent drug dosing."
B) "Changes in GI function in older adult patients lead to lower serum drug levels."
C) "Most adverse drug reactions in older adult patients are related to altered renal function."
D) "Most nonadherence among older adult patients is intentional."
Q2) A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Sodium levels
C) Potassium levels
D) Serum creatinine
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13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving botulinum toxin injections to control muscle spasticity asks how the drug works. The nurse knows that this drug affects the transmitter acetylcholine by:
A) inhibiting its release.
B) interfering with its storage.
C) preventing its reuptake.
D) promoting its synthesis.
Q2) A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites?
A) Blocking transmitter reuptake
B) Inhibiting transmitter release
C) Interfering with transmitter storage
D) Preventing activation of receptors
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is in premature labor. Which class of drug will she be given?
A) Alpha<sub>1</sub> agonist
B) Anticholinergic
C) Beta<sub>2</sub> agonist
D) Beta<sub>2</sub> antagonist
Q2) A nurse is explaining activation of beta<sub>2</sub> receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in bronchodilation."
B) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in contraction of uterine muscle."
C) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in glycogenolysis."
D) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."
Q3) A nurse is administering an agonist drug that acts on postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system. Which response will the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased sweating
B) Bronchodilation
C) Increased cardiac output
D) Pinpoint pupils
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15
Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bethanechol [Urecholine] is used to treat urinary retention but is being investigated for use in which other condition?
A) Gastric ulcers
B) Gastroesophageal reflux
C) Hypotension
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q2) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV
B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]
C) An acetylcholinesterase activator
D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]
Q3) A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would expect the drug to have which action?
A) Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient
B) Lowering of intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
C) Inhibition of muscular activity in the bladder
D) Prevention of hypertensive crisis
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses are discussing the major differences between physostigmine [Antilirium] and neostigmine [Prostigmin]. One nurse correctly makes which statement about physostigmine [Antilirium]?
A) "It is not effective for treating poisoning by muscarinic blocking drugs."
B) "It can readily cross the blood-brain barrier."
C) "It does not cause any side effects."
D) "It can be given by all routes."
Q2) A nurse working in the emergency department is assigned to a child who is arriving by ambulance after being involved in a spill of organophosphate insecticides. What will the nurse expect to be the initial priority for treating this child?
A) Administering diphenhydramine to control secretions
B) Giving diazepam to control seizures
C) Providing mechanical ventilation and oxygen
D) Reporting the spill to the Environmental Protection Agency
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17
Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which areas of the body show the effects of neuromuscular blockers last?
A) Levator muscle of the eyelids and the muscles of mastication
B) Muscles in the lower extremities
C) Muscles controlling the glottis
D) Muscles of respiration and the diaphragm
Q2) While preparing a patient for a second esophageal dilation procedure,the nurse explains that succinylcholine [Anectine] will be used for muscle relaxation. The patient is anxious and reports not being able to swallow for several hours after the previous procedure. What will the nurse do?
A) Be prepared to provide mechanical ventilation after the procedure.
B) Have dantrolene available, because this patient is at increased risk for side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that this is expected after neuromuscular blockade.
D) Request an order for a pseudocholinesterase level.
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18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering intravenous dopamine [Intropin] to a patient in the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding would cause the most concern?
A) Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg
B) Increased urine output
C) Edema at the IV insertion site
D) Headache
Q2) A nursing student asks why albuterol,which is selective for beta<sub>2</sub> receptors,causes an increased heart rate in some patients. How should the nurse respond?
A) "Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."
B) "Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia."
C) "Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects."
D) "Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."
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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 day after delivery. The infant's mother used betaxolol during pregnancy. The nurse will expect to monitor this infant for which condition?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Respiratory distress
D) Tachycardia
Q2) A patient taking a beta blocker complains of shortness of breath. The patient has respirations of 28 breaths per minute,a blood pressure of 162/90 mm Hg,and a pulse of 88 beats per minute. The nurse auscultates crackles in all lung fields. The nurse understands that these assessments are consistent with:
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) left-sided heart failure.
C) rebound cardiac excitation.
D) sinus bradycardia.
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."
B) "I should not drive as long as I am taking this drug."
C) "I should stand up slowly when taking this medication."
D) "I should stop taking this drug if I feel anxious or depressed."
Q2) A patient complains to the nurse that the clonidine [Catapres] recently prescribed for hypertension is causing drowsiness. Which response by the nurse to this concern is appropriate?
A) "Drowsiness is a common side effect initially, but it will lessen with time."
B) "You may also experience orthostatic hypotension along with the drowsiness."
C) "You may be at risk for addiction if you have central nervous system side effects."
D) "You should discontinue the medication and contact your prescriber."
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
E) Epinephrine
F) Histamine
Q2) An infant who receives a drug that does not produce CNS side effects in adults exhibits drowsiness and sedation. The nurse understands that this is because of differences in which physiologic system in infants and adults?
A) Blood-brain barrier
B) First-pass effect
C) Gastrointestinal absorption
D) Renal filtration
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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has begun taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy,especially when standing up from a sitting position. What will the nurse recommend?
A) An alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication
B) Discussing amantadine with the prescriber
C) Increasing salt and water intake
D) Taking a drug holiday
Q2) A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet] and reports occasional periods of loss of drug effect lasting from minutes to several hours. The nurse questions the patient further and discovers that these episodes occur at different times related to the medication administration. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
A) administering a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor, such as entacapone.
B) adding the DA-releasing agent amantadine to the regimen.
C) giving a direct-acting dopamine agonist.
D) shortening the dosing interval of levodopa/carbidopa.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."
B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."
C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."
D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine [Namenda] for Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease."
B) "Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."
C) "Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves their function."
D) "Memantine and donepezil combined may stop progression of Alzheimer's disease."
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24
Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient administers interferon beta-1a SQ [Rebif] 22 mcg/0.5 mL three times each week. The patient calls the nurse to report unrelieved itching and erythema at the injection site,despite the use of topical hydrocortisone for several weeks. What will the nurse tell this patient to do?
A) Apply ice to the injection site before and after the injection.
B) Ask the provider to reduce the dose of interferon beta to 8.8 mcg/0.2 mL.
C) Discuss using a prescription-strength hydrocortisone product with the provider.
D) Take oral diphenhydramine [Benadryl].
Q2) A patient is being treated with interferon beta-1a [Avonex] for relapsing-remitting MS. The patient calls the clinic to report headache,fever,chills,and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse recommend?
A) Acetaminophen or ibuprofen
B) Asking the provider to order a complete blood count (CBC)
C) Coming to the clinic for evaluation for leukoencephalopathy
D) Discontinuing the drug immediately
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25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Epilepsy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a patient who becomes motionless and seems to stare at the wall and then experiences about 60 seconds of lip smacking and hand wringing. What should the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient about a history of absence seizures.
B) Contact the provider to report symptoms of a complex partial seizure.
C) Notify the provider that the patient has had a grand mal seizure.
D) Request an order for intravenous diazepam [Valium] to treat status epilepticus.
Q2) A nurse is discussing partial versus generalized seizures with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Febrile seizures are a type of generalized tonic-clonic seizure."
B) "Generalized seizures are characterized by convulsive activity."
C) "Partial seizures do not last as long as generalized seizures."
D) "Patients having partial seizures do not lose consciousness."
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Q1) A nurse is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication."
B) "I should not notice any change in my child's muscle strength."
C) "I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate."
D) "If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately."
Q2) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]
Q3) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assisting a physician who is performing a circumcision on a newborn. The physician asks the nurse to prepare lidocaine and epinephrine for injection to provide anesthesia. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider why an injectable anesthetic is being used for this procedure.
B) Draw up the medication as ordered and prepare the infant for the procedure.
C) Make sure that seizure precautions are in place.
D) Question the use of the epinephrine for this procedure.
Q2) A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic. Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?
A) Difficulty moving the fingers of the affected hand
B) Inability to feel pressure at the suture site
C) Nervousness and tachycardia
D) Sensation of pain returning to the wound
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?
A) Bethanechol
B) Droperidol
C) Promethazine
D) Ondansetron
Q2) A patient receives a neuromuscular blocking agent as an adjunct to inhalation anesthesia. When caring for this patient,it is important for the nurse to remember that neuromuscular blocking agents:
A) cause vagal slowing of the heart.
B) increase the required dose of inhalation anesthetics.
C) increase the depth of unconsciousness.
D) prevent contraction of the diaphragm.
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29
Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a pediatric patient for surgery and is teaching the patient and the child's parents about the use of the patient-controlled analgesia pump. The parents voice concern about their child receiving an overdose of morphine. What will the nurse do?
A) Instruct the parents not to activate the device when their child is sleeping.
B) Reassure the parents that drug overdose is not possible with PCA.
C) Suggest that the child use the PCA sparingly.
D) Tell the patient that the pump can be programmed for PRN dosing only.
Q2) A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic four times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective.
B) The risk of respiratory depression increases over time.
C) The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider.
D) The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients with Cancer
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8422
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking hydrocodone and ibuprofen for cancer pain and is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will ____ ibuprofen.
A) reduce the dose of B) discontinue the C) increase the dose of D) order aspirin (ASA) instead of
Q2) A patient with cancer is admitted to the hospital. The nurse obtains an admission history and learns that the patient has been taking oxycodone and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)for a year. The patient reports a recent increase in the intensity of pain,along with a new pain described as "burning" and "shooting." The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will order:
A) a combination opioid/NSAID and an adjunctive analgesic.
B) a fentanyl transdermal patch, acetaminophen, and an adjunctive analgesic.
C) an increase in the oxycodone and NSAID doses.
D) intramuscular morphine sulfate and acetaminophen.
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8423
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has migraine headaches has been using sumatriptan [Imitrex] with good results,but reports frequent migraine recurrence 24 hours later. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Ergotamine [Ergomar]
C) Naratriptan [Amerge]
D) Zolmitriptan [Zomig]
Q2) Which medications are used to treat menstrually associated migraine (MAM)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
B) Estrogen
C) Ergotamine [Ergomar]
D) Frovatriptan [Frova]
E) Naproxyn
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8424
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse in a mental health hospital finds a patient with schizophrenia who takes haloperidol [Haldol] lying rigid in bed with a temperature of 41.3°C. A cardiac monitor shows cardiac dysrhythmias. What will be included in the treatment of this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Anticholinergic medications
B) Beta blockers
C) Dantrolene
D) Intravenous fluids
E) Withdrawal of haloperidol
Q2) A nurse provides teaching for a patient about to begin taking an FGA drug for schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about side effects of these drugs?
A) "Dry mouth and constipation are uncommon with this medication."
B) "I may experience gynecomastia and galactorrhea."
C) "I may feel lightheaded or dizzy and should sit or lie down if this occurs."
D) "Sedation may occur initially, but will subside in 1 to 2 weeks."
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Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8425
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been taking an SSRI antidepressant for major depression and reports having headaches and jaw pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) This represents an irreversible extrapyramidal side effect.
B) Discuss discontinuing the antidepressant with the provider.
C) Discuss these symptoms with a dentist.
D) Try stress-relieving methods and relaxation techniques.
Q2) An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to:
A) divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart.
B) take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects.
C) take the medication once daily in the late afternoon.
D) take the medication once daily in the morning.
Q3) A patient taking an MAOI is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What will the nurse ask this patient?
A) Whether any antihypertensive medications are used
B) Whether the patient drinks grapefruit juice
C) To list all foods eaten that day
D) Whether SSRIs are taken in addition to the MAOI
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34
Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine [Lamictal]. Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment?
A) "I get a little dizzy sometimes."
B) "I had a headache last week that lasted for about an hour."
C) "I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back."
D) "Last night I woke up twice with a bad dream."
Q2) A patient with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium [Lithobid] for several years. The patient has developed a goiter,and serum tests reveal hypothyroidism. What will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Administration of levothyroxine
B) Increasing the lithium dose
C) Iodine supplements
D) Referral to an endocrinologist
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of chronic insomnia and reports being tired of being tired all the time. The patient is reluctant to try pharmacologic remedies and asks the nurse what to do. What will the nurse suggest?
A) "Eat a large meal in the evening to induce drowsiness."
B) "Get out of bed for a while if you can't fall asleep."
C) "Have a glass of wine at bedtime to relax."
D) "Take a short nap early in the afternoon every day."
Q2) A patient has been taking high doses of clorazepate [Tranxene] for several months for an anxiety disorder. The nurse assessing the patient observes that the patient is agitated,euphoric,and anxious. What will the nurse do?
A) Double-check the chart to make sure the last dose was given.
B) Request an order for a longer-acting benzodiazepine.
C) Suspect a possible paradoxical reaction to the clorazepate.
D) Withhold the next dose until a drug level can be drawn.
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Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8428
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension,poor concentration,and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Buspirone [Buspar]
D) Paroxetine [Paxil]
Q2) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are known to be effective for which disorders? (Select all that apply.)
A) Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
E) Social anxiety disorder
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been taking SD methylphenidate [Ritalin],10 mg at 0800 and 1200 and 5 mg at 1600,for 2 months. The parents tell the nurse that the child sometimes misses the noon dose while at school. The child's appetite is normal. The teacher has reported a slight improvement in hyperactivity and impulsivity. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the prescriber whether this child could be given methylphenidate [Concerta].
B) Contact the prescriber to suggest using a nonstimulant medication.
C) Reinforce the need to take all doses as prescribed.
D) Suggest drug holidays for the child on weekends.
Q2) A young adult begins taking clonidine [Kapvay] to treat ADHD symptoms after suffering anorexia with methylphenidate [Ritalin]. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about taking clonidine?
A) "Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "Insomnia may still occur while taking this drug."
C) "You will need to pick up a written prescription every 30 days."
D) "You may crush the tablets and put them in food."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for four patients. The nurse would be concerned about which patient developing a substance use disorder?
A) A college student who reports having experimented with marijuana in the past year
B) An older adult patient with terminal cancer who requires twice the normal dose of morphine for pain relief
C) A patient in moderate to severe pain after a total hip replacement who asks for pain medication an hour before the next dose is due
D) A patient whose history indicates the use of prescription narcotic analgesics for back and headache pain
Q2) A nursing student is caring for a patient who is addicted to several drugs. The student tells the nurse that the patient "got this way on purpose." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Peer pressure and social factors determine individual choices."
B) "Physical dependence is necessary for addiction to occur."
C) "Preexisting psychopathology underlies most drug abuse."
D) "Some individuals are more vulnerable to drug abuse than others."
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing alcohol abuse with a group of nursing students. One student asks whether alcohol consumption has any beneficial effects. The nurse replies that,in moderate amounts,alcohol:
A) helps people to sleep well.
B) improves sexual responsiveness.
C) may protect against dementia.
D) prevents hypothermia.
Q2) A college student who is unresponsive is brought to the emergency department by friends,who say that their friend drank more than half of a large bottle of whiskey 3 hours ago. Assessment reveals a blood alcohol level of 0.32%. The vital signs are BP,88/32 mm Hg; R,6/min; T,96.8°F; and P,76/min and weak and thready. The nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention?
A) IV fluids and stimulants
B) Charcoal administration
C) Gastric lavage and dialysis
D) Naloxone [Narcan] administration
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber has ordered nicotine nasal spray for a patient to assist with smoking cessation. Which statement will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the medication?
A) "This will produce a steady level of nicotine to reduce your cravings."
B) "You should gradually reduce the dose after 3 months of use."
C) "You should use 1 spray in each nostril per dose up to 5 times per hour."
D) "You will not develop dependence on the nicotine in the nasal spray."
Q2) A patient with a desire to stop smoking asks a nurse about nicotine chewing gum [Nicorette]. The patient currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Stop using the gum 6 months after you stop using cigarettes."
B) "Use the 4-mg strength gum and chew one piece every 2 to 3 hours."
C) "Use the gum whenever you feel a craving for a cigarette."
D) "You should start with 30 pieces of the 2-mg strength gum per day."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8433
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?
A) Ease of access
B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm
C) Peer pressure
D) Prolonged sense of euphoria
Q2) A patient who is an opioid addict has undergone detoxification with buprenorphine [Subutex] and has been given a prescription for buprenorphine with naloxone [Suboxone]. The patient asks the nurse why the drug was changed. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Suboxone has a lower risk of abuse."
B) "Suboxone has a longer half-life."
C) "Subutex causes more respiratory depression."
D) "Subutex has more buprenorphine."
Q3) A provider orders clonidine [Catapres] for a patient withdrawing from opioids. When explaining the rationale for this drug choice,the nurse will tell this patient that clonidine [Catapres] is used to:
A) prevent opioid craving.
B) reduce somnolence and drowsiness.
C) relieve symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
D) stimulate autonomic activity.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking digoxin is admitted to the hospital for treatment of congestive heart failure. The prescriber has ordered furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse notes an irregular heart rate of 86 beats per minute,a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 130/82 mm Hg. The nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. Which laboratory value causes the nurse the most concern?
A) Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
B) Oxygen saturation of 90%
C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
D) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
Q2) A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident sustained a severe head injury and is brought into the emergency department. The provider orders intravenous mannitol [Osmitrol]. The nurse knows that this is given to:
A) reduce intracranial pressure.
B) reduce renal perfusion.
C) reduce peripheral edema.
D) restore extracellular fluid.
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43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient collapses after running a marathon on a hot day and is brought to the emergency department to be treated for dehydration. The nurse will expect to provide which therapy?
A) Intravenous hypertonic fluids given slowly over several hours
B) Intravenous hypotonic fluids administered in stages
C) Intravenous isotonic fluids given as a rapid bolus
D) Oral electrolyte replacement fluids with potassium
Q2) A patient who is a chronic alcoholic is admitted to the hospital. Admission laboratory work reveals a magnesium level of 1.2 mEq/L. The prescriber orders intravenous magnesium sulfate in a 10% solution at a rate of 10 mL/min. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the IV dose as ordered and have calcium gluconate on hand.
B) Administer the IV dose and make preparations for mechanical ventilation.
C) Hold the IV dose until the infusion rate has been clarified with the provider.
D) Request an order for renal function tests before administering the IV dose.
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44
Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient's arterial pressure decreases,which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased heart rate
C) Decreased blood pressure
D) Syncope
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a drug that causes constriction of arterioles. The nurse expects to observe which effect from this drug?
A) Decreased stroke volume
B) Increased stroke volume
C) Decreased myocardial contractility
D) Increased myocardial contractility
Q3) A patient is taking a drug that interferes with venous constriction. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) ask for assistance when getting out of bed.
B) expect bradycardia for a few days.
C) notify the provider if headache occurs.
D) report shortness of breath.
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Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient taking an ACE inhibitor learns that she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) The fetus most likely will have serious congenital defects.
B) The fetus must be monitored closely while the patient is taking this drug.
C) The patient's prescriber probably will change her medication to an ARB.
D) The patient should stop taking the medication and contact her provider immediately.
Q2) A patient with hypertension is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitor. The nurse reviewing this patient's chart before administering the medication will be most concerned about which other disease process?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Coronary artery disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Renal artery stenosis
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are therapeutic uses for verapamil? (Select all that apply.)
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
Q2) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia],along with metoprolol,to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a patient who will begin taking verapamil [Calan] for hypertension about the drug's side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may become constipated, so I should increase fluids and fiber."
B) "I may experience a rapid heart rate as a result of taking this drug."
C) "I may have swelling of my hands and feet, but this will subside."
D) "I may need to increase my digoxin dose while taking this drug."
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications are most likely to cause postural hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Minoxidil
B) Diltiazem [Cardizem]
C) Prazosin [Minipress]
D) Captopril [Capoten]
E) Losartan [Cozaar]
Q2) A nurse is caring for a patient who will begin taking hydralazine to treat hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching about this drug?
A) "I will need to ask for assistance when getting up out of a chair."
B) "I will also take a beta blocker medication with this drug to prevent rapid heart rate."
C) "I may develop joint pain, but this side effect will decrease over time."
D) "This drug may cause excessive hair growth on my face, arms, and back."
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old African American patient has a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg and reports a family history of hypertension. The patient has a body mass index of 22.3. The patient reports consuming alcohol occasionally. Which therapeutic lifestyle change will the nurse expect to teach this patient?
A) Alcohol cessation
B) Potassium supplementation
C) Sodium restriction
D) Weight loss
Q2) A patient is taking clonidine for hypertension and reports having dry mouth and drowsiness. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Beta blockers can reverse these side effects.
B) Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the provider.
C) Drink extra fluids and avoid driving when drowsy.
D) Notify the provider if symptoms persist after several weeks.
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications are included in first-line therapy for heart failure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Agents that inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Beta blockers
D) Cardiac glycosides
E) Diuretics
Q2) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Decreased force of contraction
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems
E) Positive inotropic effects
Q3) A patient newly diagnosed with heart failure is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes a pulse of 90 beats per minute. The nurse will observe this patient closely for:
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased blood pressure.
C) jugular vein distension.
D) shortness of breath.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is in the intensive care unit after a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the QT interval on this patient's electrocardiogram has been elongating. The nurse is concerned that which cardiac dysrhythmia may occur?
A) AV block
B) Bradycardia
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Torsades de pointes
Q2) The nurse educator is providing patient education about the Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial (CAST). The nurse correctly explains that the trial demonstrated what effect from the pharmacologic suppression of dysrhythmias?
A) It reduced mortality by 50% but increased morbidity.
B) It significantly reduced the risk of a second myocardial infarction (MI).
C) It doubled the risk of a second MI.
D) It should be used in all patients who have had an MI, regardless of rhythm.
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Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease: Drugs That Help
Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking simvastatin [Zocor] develops an infection and the provider orders azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat the infection. The nurse should be concerned if the patient complains of:
A) nausea.
B) tiredness.
C) muscle pain.
D) headache.
Q2) A patient taking gemfibrozil [Lopid] and rosuvastatin [Crestor] concurrently begins to complain of muscle aches,fatigue,and weakness. What should the nurse monitor?
A) For tendon tenderness
B) For a lupus-like syndrome
C) The patient's liver function test results
D) The patient's creatinine kinase levels
Q3) Which is a possible benefit of taking fish-oil supplements?
A) A decrease in low-density lipoprotein and triglyceride levels
B) Decreased risk of thrombotic stroke
C) Prevention of heart disease in high-risk patients
D) Reduced risk of dysrhythmia in patients after myocardial infarction
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with angina who is taking ranolazine [Ranexa] has developed a respiratory infection and a dysrhythmia. The provider has ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] for the infection and amlodipine for the dysrhythmia. A nursing student caring for this patient tells the nurse that the patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 128/80 mm Hg. The nurse asks the student to discuss the plan for this patient's care. Which action is correct?
A) Observe the patient closely for signs of respiratory toxicity.
B) Question the order for azithromycin [Zithromax].
C) Report the patient's increase in blood pressure to the provider.
D) Request an order for a different calcium channel blocker.
Q2) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with stable angina who will begin taking nitroglycerin. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not participate in aerobic exercise while taking this drug."
B) "I should take aspirin daily to reduce my need for nitroglycerin."
C) "If I take nitroglycerin before exertion, I can reduce the chance of an anginal attack."
D) "I take nitroglycerin to increase the amount of oxygen to my heart."
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day,the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%,pleuritic chest pain,shortness of breath,and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____.
A) congestive heart failure; furosemide [Lasix]
B) hemorrhage; vitamin K (phytonadione)
C) myocardial infarction; tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
D) pulmonary embolism; heparin
Q2) A patient who takes warfarin [Coumadin] is brought to the emergency department after accidentally taking too much warfarin. The patient's heart rate is 78 beats per minute and the blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. A dipstick urinalysis is normal. The patient does not have any obvious hematoma or petechiae and does not complain of pain. The nurse will anticipate an order for:
A) vitamin K (phytonadione).
B) protamine sulfate.
C) a PTT.
D) a PT and an INR.
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Chapter 53: Management of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has undergone a primary percutaneous coronary intervention with a stent placement. The provider has ordered a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin and clopidogrel. The patient asks the nurse how long the medications must be taken. What will the nurse tell this patient about the medication regimen?
A) This drug regimen will continue indefinitely.
B) The clopidogrel will be discontinued in one year and the aspirin will be given indefinitely.
C) The aspirin will be discontinued in one year and the clopidogrel will be given indefinitely.
D) Both drugs will be discontinued in one year.
Q2) A patient in the emergency department has severe chest pain. The nurse administers morphine intravenously. The patient asks the nurse why morphine is given. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Morphine helps by reducing anxiety and relieving pain."
B) "Morphine helps by reducing pain and dissolving clots."
C) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and lowering blood pressure."
D) "Morphine helps by relieving pain and reducing the cardiac oxygen demand."
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is receiving a factor VIII concentrate to treat hemophilia A develops hives,a low-grade temperature elevation,and a stuffy nose. The nurse will prepare to:
A) administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
B) give an antipyretic medication.
C) give oral diphenhydramine.
D) provide respiratory support.
Q2) A nurse is caring for an African American patient with severe hemophilia A who has been admitted for bleeding into the knee joint. The prescriber has ordered intravenous factor VIIa [NovoSeven RT]. A nursing student wants to know why this patient is not receiving factor VIII. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Factor VIIa is stronger than factor VIII and will work faster."
B) "Factor VIII is used for prophylaxis, and factor VIIa is used for acute episodes."
C) "Factor VIIa is used when patients develop antibodies against factor VIII."
D) "Factor VIIa provides immune tolerance therapy so that factor VIII will be more effective."
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56
Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8448
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving oral iron for iron deficiency anemia. Which antibiotic drug,taken concurrently with iron,would most concern the nurse?
A) Tetracycline
B) Cephalosporin
C) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
D) Penicillin
Q2) A patient tells a nurse that she is thinking about getting pregnant and asks about nutritional supplements. What will the nurse recommend?
A) A balanced diet high in green vegetables and grains
B) 400 to 800 mg of folic acid per day
C) A multivitamin with iron
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> supplements
Q3) What are the indications for administration of a parenteral iron preparation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood loss of 750 mL/week
B) Celiac disease with anemia
C) History of alcoholism
D) Intestinal disease impairing absorption
E) Megaloblastic anemia
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8449
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA)is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats per minute,and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion.
B) Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication.
C) Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly.
D) Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.
Q2) A patient is about to undergo a procedure to harvest hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow. Which medication will the nurse anticipate giving before this procedure?
A) Filgrastim [Neupogen]
B) Pegfilgrastim [Neulasta]
C) Oprelvekin [Neumega]
D) Sargramostim [Leukine]
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8450
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working on a high-acuity medical-surgical unit is prioritizing care for four patients who were just admitted. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
A) The NPO patient with a blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL who just received 20 units of 70/30 Novolin insulin
B) The patient with a pulse of 58 beats per minute who is about to receive digoxin [Lanoxin]
C) The patient with a blood pressure of 136/92 mm Hg who complains of having a headache
D) The patient with an allergy to penicillin who is receiving an infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]
Q2) An elderly patient who has type 2 diabetes has a history of severe hypoglycemia. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the optimum A1c level is for the patient. Which is correct?
A) Between 6.5 and 7.0
B) Below 7.0
C) Below 8.0
D) Between 7.0 and 8.5
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8451
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The initial free T<sub>4</sub> level is 0.5 mg/dL,and the TSH level is 8 microunits/mL. The prescriber orders levothyroxine [Levothroid] 100 mcg/day PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss giving the levothyroxine IV.
C) Request an order to give desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid).
D) Suggest that the provider lower the dose.
Q2) A 1-year-old child with cretinism has been receiving 8 mcg/kg/day of levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The child comes to the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) change the dose of levothyroxine to 6 mcg/kg/day.
B) discontinue the drug if the child's physical and mental development are normal.
C) increase the dose to accommodate the child's increased growth.
D) stop the drug for 4 weeks and check the child's TSH level.
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8452
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a nondiabetic adult who develops growth hormone deficiency and who will begin treatment with somatropin [Humatrope]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Intramuscular dosing is more effective than subcutaneous dosing."
B) "I will have increased muscle mass and strength as well as increased height."
C) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure frequently while taking this drug."
D) "I will need to take insulin while using this, because it causes hyperglycemia."
Q2) What are the effects of prolactin secretion in males? (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast development
B) Decreased libido
C) Delayed puberty
D) Galactorrhea
E) Infertility
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is explaining congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)to a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "CAH is caused by a deficiency of ACTH production."
B) "CAH is the result of an inability to synthesize glucocorticoids."
C) "Newborn screening provides a definitive diagnosis for CAH"
D) "The enzyme 21-alpha-hydroxylase increases the production of androgens."
Q2) A patient with arthritis is admitted to the hospital. The patient's serum glucose level is 350 gm/dL,and the blood pressure is 182/98 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient's face appears rounded and puffy. The patient complains of feeling weak. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask which drugs the patient takes for arthritis.
B) Contact the provider to discuss whether the patient has a pituitary carcinoma.
C) Request an order for ketoconazole [Nizoral].
D) Suspect that this patient has Addison's disease.
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62
Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postmenopausal patient who has had a hysterectomy and who has a family history of coronary heart disease reports experiencing vaginal dryness and pain with intercourse but tells the nurse that she doesn't want to take hormones because she is afraid of adverse effects. The nurse will suggest that the woman ask her provider about:
A) Depo Provera.
B) Estraderm.
C) low-dose estrogens.
D) Premarin vaginal.
Q2) According to studies of estrogen/progestin therapy (EPT),what are its known benefits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular protection in older patients
B) Decreased osteoporosis risk
C) Glycemic control
D) Improved wound healing
E) Prevention of colorectal cancer
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Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8455
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient calls the nurse to report that she forgot to take a combination OC pill during the third week of her cycle. She tells the nurse that she missed another pill earlier that week. The nurse will tell her to:
A) continue the pack, skip the inert pills, and use an additional form of contraception for 7 days.
B) not to worry, because up to 7 days can be missed without an increased risk of pregnancy.
C) take a pill immediately, continue the pack, and use an additional form of contraception for 1 month.
D) take a pill now, continue the pack, skip the placebo pills, and start a new pack on week 4.
Q2) A woman has been taking a progestin-only oral contraceptive and will begin using a vaginal ring. The nurse will teach the patient to insert the ring:
A) the day the last pill is taken and use backup contraception for 7 days.
B) 1 week before taking the last pill.
C) 1 to 5 days after taking the last pill and use backup contraception for 2 days.
D) within 7 days after taking the last pill.
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse counseling a couple who cannot conceive learns that female infertility problems have been ruled out. What will the nurse expect to tell this couple?
A) "If medication is necessary for male infertility, treatment will last a few months."
B) "Male infertility is usually treatable with a combination of medications."
C) "Most male infertility is not linked to known endocrine disorders."
D) "Treatment with sildenafil [Viagra] will be necessary to improve fertility."
Q2) A patient receiving menotropins [Repronex] for infertility comes to the clinic for evaluation on the ninth day of treatment. Her serum estrogen level is 200 pg/mL per maturing follicle. An ultrasound reveals that follicles have enlarged to 22 mm. The patient complains of left lower abdominal pain. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer human chorionic gonadotropin, because the ovary has ripened.
B) Assess for abdominal fullness and distension and auscultate lung sounds.
C) Inform the patient that the pain is associated with ovulation.
D) Recommend ibuprofen for pain and administer the next dose of menotropins.
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Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the obstetric unit in preterm labor at 36 weeks' gestation. The prescriber orders a tocolytic agent. When teaching the patient about this medication,the nurse will tell her that tocolytics:
A) are given until term to reduce fetal mortality.
B) are used to help the fetal lungs mature.
C) help delay delivery while glucocorticoids are given.
D) help treat the infections that cause preterm labor.
Q2) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cervical ripening
B) Fetal monitoring
C) Renal function
D) Respiratory function
E) Uterine activity
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Chapter 65: Androgens
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse provides teaching for a female patient with anemia who has had cancer chemotherapy and who will begin treatment with testosterone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Facial hair may develop with this drug but will go away over time."
B) "I may experience an increase in breast size while taking this drug."
C) "Testosterone may increase my high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol and reduce my low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol."
D) "Testosterone treats anemia by stimulating the synthesis of a renal hormone."
Q2) A nurse is providing education to a patient who is beginning therapy with AndroGel testosterone gel. What statement made by the patient demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should not shower or swim for at least 5 to 6 hours after application."
B) "I should avoid direct skin-to-skin contact with my spouse where the medication was applied."
C) "I should have my blood drawn for laboratory tests in 14 days."
D) "I should apply the medication to my genitals for best results."
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of sildenafil [Viagra] for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If my erection lasts longer than 4 hours, I should contact my provider."
B) "I should not use nitroglycerin within 12 hours of using sildenafil."
C) "I should take this drug about 15 minutes before sexual activity."
D) "This drug may cause me to have an erection when I don't want one."
Q2) A male patient tells the nurse he awakens once or twice each night to void and has difficulty starting his stream of urine. He describes these symptoms as "annoying." The patient's provider examines him and notes that the prostate is moderately enlarged. The patient is sexually active and tells the nurse that he does not want to take any medication that will interfere with sexual function. The nurse anticipates the provider will order:
A) doxazosin [Cardura].
B) finasteride [Proscar].
C) silodosin [Rapaflo].
D) a transurethral prostatectomy.
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8460
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which finding would most concern the nurse?
A) High level of macrophages
B) Low neutrophil count
C) Low red blood cell (RBC) count
D) Very low helper T lymphocyte count
Q2) Which statement is true about helper T cells?
A) They are useful but are not essential to immune responses.
B) They do not play a role in antibody production.
C) They have highly specific receptors to antigens on their surface.
D) They prevent CD4 molecules from attaching to antigens.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about immunoglobulins. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "IgD provides a first line of defense against microbes entering the body through the lungs."
B) "IgE plays a role in hypersensitivity reactions and responses to parasites."
C) "IgG and IgM participate in the complement response to promote target cell lysis."
D) "Neonatal immunity is the result of IgG crossing the placenta."
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69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8461
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to administer vaccines to a 1-year-old child. The parents ask the nurse to give the child acetaminophen before administering the vaccine to reduce the pain. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Children don't remember pain, so it isn't necessary to give acetaminophen."
B) "The small needles used to inject the vaccines cause hardly any discomfort."
C) "You can apply a topical anesthetic when you get home to reduce pain from the injection."
D) "Your child's immune response may not be as effective if I give acetaminophen before the vaccine."
Q2) A clinic nurse receives a phone call from a parent who states that a 2-month-old infant has a severe cough,a low-grade fever,and a runny nose that have lasted over a week. What will the nurse ask the parent?
A) Whether the infant has had the first set of vaccines
B) Whether the infant received a hepatitis B vaccine as a newborn
C) Whether the infant attends day care
D) Whether there is a family history of respiratory disorders
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8462
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old patient who has undergone a liver transplant. Which provider order will the nurse question?
A) Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] and ketoconazole [Nizoral]
B) Everolimus [Zortress] 1 mg twice daily
C) Prednisone 60 mg daily
D) Tacrolimus [Prograf] 50 mcg/kg twice daily the day after surgery
Q2) A patient with a history of lung transplantation is admitted for treatment for a respiratory infection. The patient has been taking cyclosporine [Sandimmune],prednisone,and azathioprine [Imuran] for 8 months. The provider has ordered azithromycin [Zithromax] to treat the infection and acetaminophen [Tylenol] as needed for fever. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) ask whether a different antibiotic can be used.
B) ask that the prednisone be discontinued until the infection clears.
C) suggest increasing the dose of cyclosporine.
D) suggest using ibuprofen instead of acetaminophen.
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71
Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders hydroxyzine [Vistaril] for a patient with acute urticaria. The nurse will include which information when teaching the patient about this drug?
A) The drug will reduce redness and itching but not edema.
B) This antihistamine is not likely to cause sedation.
C) The patient should avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.
D) The patient should report shortness of breath while taking the drug.
Q2) A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
B) Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.
C) Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.
D) The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.
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Chapter
71:
Cyclooxygenase
Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient in her third trimester asks the nurse whether she can take aspirin for headaches. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Aspirin is safe during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy."
B) "Aspirin may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in your baby."
C) "Aspirin may induce premature labor and should be avoided in the third trimester."
D) "You should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication."
Q2) A patient has been receiving intravenous ketorolac 30 mg every 6 hours for postoperative pain for 4 days. The patient will begin taking oral ketorolac 10 mg every 4 to 6 hours to prepare for discharge in 1 or 2 days. The patient asks the nurse whether this drug will be prescribed for management of pain after discharge. The nurse will respond by telling the patient that the provider will prescribe a(n):
A) different nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for home management of pain.
B) fixed-dose opioid analgesic/nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
C) lower dose of the oral ketorolac for long-term pain management.
D) intranasal preparation of ketorolac for pain management at home.
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinic patient who has been taking a glucocorticoid for arthritis for several months remarks to the nurse,"It's a good thing my symptoms are better,because my mother has been quite ill,and I have to take care of her." The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. The nurse will report this to the provider and ask about:
A) reducing the patient's dose.
B) using every other day dosing.
C) increasing the patient's dose.
D) tapering the dose.
Q2) The prescriber orders 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally once each day. The nurse will make sure the drug is scheduled to be administered at what time?
A) 8:00 AM
B) 12:00 PM
C) 4:00 PM
D) 9:00 PM
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.
B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.
C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.
D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.
Q2) A patient about to begin therapy with etanercept has a positive tuberculin skin test. A chest radiograph is negative. The nurse will expect this patient to:
A) begin taking antituberculosis drugs at the beginning of treatment with etanercept.
B) have periodic chest radiographs during treatment with etanercept.
C) have regular monitoring of symptoms to detect active tuberculosis.
D) undergo tuberculosis treatment prior to beginning etanercept treatment.
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia,and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.
A) increasing; allopurinol
B) increasing; warfarin
C) reducing; allopurinol
D) reducing; warfarin
Q2) A patient with chronic gout has an acute gouty episode and is admitted to the hospital. The patient has been taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for several months. The prescriber plans to begin therapy with probenecid. What will the nurse do?
A) Give the medication as ordered and observe the patient closely for gastrointestinal side effects.
B) Request an order to lower the dose of the nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug.
C) Restrict the patient's fluid intake to minimize the risk of renal injury.
D) Suggest delaying the probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided.
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postmenopausal patient is at high risk for developing osteoporosis. The patient's prescriber orders raloxifene [Evista],and the nurse provides teaching about this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may experience breast tenderness while taking this drug."
B) "I may experience fewer hot flashes while taking this drug."
C) "I should discontinue this drug several weeks before any surgery."
D) "I should walk as much as possible during long airline flights."
Q2) A 55-year-old female patient asks a nurse about calcium supplements. The nurse learns that the patient consumes two servings of dairy products each day. The patient's serum calcium level is 9.5 mg/dL. The serum vitamin D level is 18 ng/mL. The nurse will recommend adding ____ daily and ____ IU of vitamin D<sub>3</sub> each day.
A) 1200 mg of calcium once; 10,000
B) 1500 mg of calcium twice; 1000
C) 600 mg of calcium once; 10,000
D) 600 mg of calcium twice; 2000
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Page 77
Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with asthma comes to a clinic for treatment of an asthma exacerbation. The patient's medication history lists an inhaled glucocorticoid,montelukast [Singulair],and a SABA as needed via MDI. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute,a heart rate of 96 beats per minute,and an oxygen saturation of 95%. The nurse auscultates mild expiratory wheezes and equal breath sounds bilaterally. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to request a systemic glucocorticoid.
B) Contact the provider to suggest using a long-acting beta<sub>2 </sub>agonist.
C) Evaluate the need for teaching about MDI use.
D) Question the patient about how much albuterol has been used.
Q2) A 7-year-old child with asthma uses a daily inhaled glucocorticoid and an albuterol MDI as needed. The provider has added montelukast [Singulair] to the child's regimen. Which statement by the child's parent indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "I may notice mood changes in my child."
B) "I should give this medication twice daily."
C) "I will give my child one 4-mg chewable tablet daily."
D) "This drug can alleviate symptoms during an acute attack."
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child has a cough,runny nose,congestion,and fever,and the parents ask the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter product. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Any product will be effective when combined with vitamin C and zinc."
B) "It is best to use single-agent medications to treat individual symptoms."
C) "The fever indicates that your child may need an antibiotic; you should call your provider."
D) "You should ask your provider to prescribe a combination product that will treat multiple symptoms."
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient with allergic rhinitis who will begin using an intranasal glucocorticoid. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "If the glucocorticoid causes burning or itching, I should use it every other day."
B) "I should use a decongestant if necessary before using the glucocorticoid."
C) "I should use the glucocorticoid whenever I have symptoms."
D) "I will probably develop systemic effects from the topical glucocorticoid."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. The patient is otherwise healthy. The nurse learns that the patient does not smoke and that he drinks 1 or 2 glasses of wine with meals each week. The nurse anticipates that the provider will prescribe which drugs?
A) Amoxicillin [Amoxil], clarithromycin, and omeprazole [Prilosec]
B) Amoxicillin [Amoxil], metronidazole [Flagyl], and cimetidine [Tagamet]
C) Clarithromycin, metronidazole [Flagyl], and omeprazole [Prilosec]
D) Tetracycline, cimetidine [Tagamet], and lansoprazole [Prevacid]
Q2) An older adult patient with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease ( GERD )has had only minimal relief using a histamine<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonist ( H<sub>2</sub>RA ). The patient is to begin taking omeprazole [Prilosec]. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) A complete cure is expected with this medication.
B) Lifestyle changes can be as effective as medication therapy.
C) Long-term therapy may be needed.
D) The medication will be used until surgery can be performed.
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8472
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition would cause the nurse to withhold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Cirrhosis
C) Hemorrhoids
D) Prostatitis
Q2) The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has pebble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider?
A) Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories
B) Magnesium citrate
C) Methylcellulose [Citrucel]
D) Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]
Q3) A patient with renal disease is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Before the procedure,the nurse will anticipate administering:
A) glycerin suppository.
B) magnesium hydroxide (MOM).
C) polyethylene glycol and electrolytes.
D) sodium phosphate.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Q1) A pregnant patient who is taking ondansetron [Zofran] for morning sickness tells the nurse she is experiencing headache and dizziness. What will the nurse tell her?
A) It is not safe to take this drug during pregnancy.
B) These are common side effects of ondansetron.
C) She should stop taking the ondansetron immediately.
D) She should report these adverse effects to her provider.
Q2) A patient with Crohn's disease will begin receiving an initial infusion of infliximab [Remicade]. The nurse explains how this drug works to treat this disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may have an increased risk of infections, such as tuberculosis, when taking infliximab."
B) "I should report chills, fever, itching, and shortness of breath while receiving the infusion."
C) "This drug sometimes provides a complete cure of inflammatory bowel disease."
D) "I will take the second dose in 2 weeks, the third dose in 6 weeks, and then a dose every 8 weeks thereafter."
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about the recommendations for vitamin supplements to prevent cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Foods rich in antioxidant vitamins may confer protection by other means."
B) "Observational studies provide clear proof that some antioxidants reduce the risk of cancer."
C) "Randomized controlled studies have not demonstrated cancer prevention benefits."
D) "Some vitamins have an increased cancer risk associated with too low and too high amounts."
Q2) Which B vitamin deficiency is associated with cheilosis,glossitis,vascularization of the cornea,and itchy dermatitis of the scrotum and vulva?
A) Niacin (nicotinic acid)
B) Pyridoxine (vitamin B<sub>6</sub>)
C) Riboflavin (vitamin B<sub>2</sub>)
D) Thiamine (vitamin B<sub>1</sub>)
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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Q1) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."
B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."
C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."
D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who is about to begin drug therapy with orlistat [Xenical]. The patient,whose BMI is 28,has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Dark urine and light-colored stools are expected side effects with this drug."
B) "I should stop taking this drug once my blood pressure and serum glucose have stabilized."
C) "I will need to take a multivitamin containing fat-soluble vitamins every day."
D) "If I have fatty or oily stools or fecal incontinence I should stop taking this drug."
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84
Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) A child has received amoxicillin [Amoxil] for three previous ear infections,but a current otitis media episode is not responding to treatment. The nurse caring for this child suspects that resistance to the bacterial agent has occurred by which microbial mechanism?
A) Alteration of drug target molecules
B) Antagonist production
C) Drug inactivation
D) Reduction of drug concentration at the site of action
Q2) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall."
B) "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid."
C) "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells."
D) "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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Q1) A patient is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the patient's medication history,the nurse learns that the patient experienced a rash when given amoxicillin [Amoxil] as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin.
B) Reassure the patient that allergic responses diminish over time.
C) Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk.
D) Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug.
Q2) A nurse assisting a nursing student with medications asks the student to describe how penicillins (PCNs)work to treat bacterial infections. The student is correct in responding that penicillins:
A) disinhibit transpeptidases.
B) disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis.
C) inhibit autolysins.
D) inhibit host cell wall function.
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86
Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall II:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, and Fosfomycin
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Q1) A patient is to undergo orthopedic surgery,and the prescriber will order a cephalosporin to be given preoperatively as prophylaxis against infection. The nurse expects the provider to order which cephalosporin?
A) First-generation cephalosporin
B) Second-generation cephalosporin
C) Third-generation cephalosporin
D) Fourth-generation cephalosporin
Q2) A woman complains of burning on urination and increased frequency. The patient has a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs)and is going out of town in 2 days.
To treat the infection quickly,the nurse would expect the healthcare provider to order:
A) aztreonam [Azactam].
B) fosfomycin [Monurol].
C) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim].
D) vancomycin [Vancocin].
Q3) Which cephalosporin may be used to treat meningitis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cefazolin
C) Cefoxitin
D) Cefotaxime
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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Q1) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about dalfopristin/quinupristin [Synercid].
Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Patients should stop taking the drug if they experience joint and muscle pain."
B) "Patients taking this drug should have blood tests performed frequently."
C) "Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not take this drug."
D) "This drug will be administered intravenously over a 30- to 60-minute period."
Q2) A patient is to begin taking doxycycline to treat a rickettsial infection. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for teaching about this drug?
A) "I should consult my provider before using laxatives or antacids while taking this drug."
B) "I should not take a calcium supplement or consume dairy products with this drug."
C) "I should take this drug with food to ensure more complete absorption."
D) "If I get diarrhea, I should stop taking the drug and let my provider know immediately."
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88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus,and the prescriber orders intravenous gentamicin and penicillin (PCN). Both drugs will be given twice daily. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer gentamicin, flush the line, and then give the penicillin.
B) Give the gentamicin intravenously and the penicillin intramuscularly.
C) Infuse the gentamicin and the penicillin together to prevent fluid overload.
D) Request an order to change the penicillin to vancomycin.
Q2) A patient is receiving an intraperitoneal aminoglycoside during surgery. To reverse a serious side effect of this drug,the nurse may expect to administer which agent?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Calcium gluconate
C) Neuromuscular blocker
D) Vancomycin
Q3) Which patients may receive gentamicin safely? (Select all that apply.)
A) A 6-day-old newborn
B) A 5-year-old child
C) A pregnant woman
D) A woman breast-feeding an infant
E) An elderly patient with renal disease
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Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) A patient with second-degree burns is treated with silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]. A nursing student asks the nurse about the differences between silver sulfadiazine and mafenide [Sulfamylon],because the two are similar products,and both contain sulfonamides. What does the nurse tell the student about silver sulfadiazine?
A) It causes increased pain when the medication is applied.
B) It has a broader spectrum of antimicrobial sensitivity.
C) It has antibacterial effects related to release of free silver.
D) It suppresses renal excretion of acid, causing acidosis.
Q2) A pregnant patient is treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)[Bactrim] for a urinary tract infection at 32 weeks' gestation. A week later,the woman delivers her infant prematurely. The nurse will expect to monitor the infant for:
A) birth defects.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) rash.
D) kernicterus.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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Q1) A patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of chills,severe flank pain,dysuria,and urinary frequency. The patient has a temperature of 102.9°F,a pulse of 92 beats per minute,respirations of 24 breaths per minute,and a blood pressure of 119/58 mm Hg. The nurse would be correct to suspect that the patient shows signs and symptoms of:
A) acute cystitis.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) prostatitis.
Q2) Which patient with a urinary tract infection will require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics?
A) A 5-year-old child with a fever of 100.5°F, dysuria, and bacteriuria
B) A pregnant woman with bacteriuria, suprapubic pain, and fever
C) A young man with dysuria, flank pain, and a previous urinary tract infection
D) An older adult man with a low-grade fever, flank pain, and an indwelling catheter
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Chapter 90: Antimycobacterial Agents: Drugs for
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium avium Complex
Infection
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Q1) A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin [Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding?
A) Crystalluria
B) Myopathy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Red-orange-tinged urine
Q2) A patient is beginning treatment for active tuberculosis (TB)in a region with little drug-resistant TB. Which treatment regimen will be used initially?
A) Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
C) Rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
D) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
Q3) A patient with HIV who takes protease inhibitors develops tuberculosis and will begin treatment. Which drug regimen will be used for this patient?
A) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol + rifabutin
B) Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
C) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
D) Isoniazid + rifabutin
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Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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Q1) Which antibiotics may be administered topically? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bacitracin
B) Daptomycin
C) Ofloxacin
D) Polymyxin B
E) Rifampin
Q2) Which fluoroquinolone antibiotics may be administered to children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ciprofloxacin [Cipro]
B) Levofloxacin [Levaquin]
C) Moxifloxacin [Avelox]
D) Norfloxacin [Noroxin]
E) Ofloxacin
Q3) A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) add metronidazole [Flagyl].
B) increase the dose of ciprofloxacin.
C) restrict dairy products.
D) switch to gemifloxacin.
Page 93
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about flucytosine [Ancobon]. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Flucytosine has a broad antifungal spectrum."
B) "Irreversible neutropenia and thrombocytopenia may occur with this drug."
C) "Resistance is common with this medication."
D) "Severe hepatic injury is common and limits this drug's use."
Q2) A patient has an invasive aspergillosis infection. Which antifungal agent is the drug of choice for this infection?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Fluconazole [Diflucan]
C) Posaconazole [Noxafil]
D) Voriconazole [Vfend]
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a superficial fungal infection and notes that the provider has ordered 200 mg of ketoconazole [Nizoral] 200 mg PO once daily. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the drug as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss twice daily dosing.
C) Discuss a 400-mg daily drug regimen with the provider.
D) Request an order for a different antifungal medication.
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Page 95
Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-HIV Viral
Infections
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Q1) A patient has a positive test for influenza type A and tells the nurse that symptoms began 5 days before being tested. The prescriber has ordered oseltamivir [Tamiflu]. The nurse will tell the patient that oseltamivir:
A) may decrease symptom duration by 2 or 3 days.
B) may not be effective because of the delay in starting treatment.
C) may reduce the severity but not the duration of symptoms.
D) will alleviate symptoms within 24 hours of the start of therapy.
Q2) A male patient with hepatitis C will begin triple drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa 2a [Pegasys],ribavirin [Ribasphere],and boceprevir [Victrelis]. The patient tells the nurse that his wife is pregnant. What will the nurse tell him?
A) Boceprevir is contraindicated in males whose partners are pregnant.
B) He should use a barrier contraceptive when having sex.
C) He should use dual drug therapy with pegylated interferon alfa and ribavirin only.
D) This combination drug therapy is safe for him to use.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and has a previous history of drug and alcohol abuse. The patient is being treated with combination therapies,including didanosine [Videx]. Which laboratory findings would most concern the nurse?
A) Increased serum amylase and triglycerides and decreased serum calcium
B) Decreased serum amylase and serum triglycerides and increased serum calcium
C) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
D) Increased serum amylase, decreased triglycerides, and increased platelets
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV positive and is taking zidovudine [Retrovir]. Before administering the medication,the nurse should monitor which laboratory values?
A) Ketones in the urine and blood
B) Serum immunoglobulin levels
C) Serum lactate dehydrogenase
D) Complete blood count (CBC)
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex
C) Nongonococcal urethritis
D) Syphilis
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever,headache,malaise,joint pain,and enlarged lymph nodes. Blood cultures are positive for Treponema pallidum. The nurse recognizes this as which type of syphilis?
A) Congenital
B) Primary
C) Secondary
D) Tertiary
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98
Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) A patient has developed a local infection at an IV insertion site. Before the IV was inserted,the site was cleansed with a product with an ethanol concentration of 70%. The nurse will report the local infection to the provider and expect to receive an order to:
A) administer a systemic antimicrobial agent.
B) apply a topical antiseptic agent to the infected area.
C) culture the site to assess for C. difficile.
D) use a topical agent containing 95% ethanol.
Q2) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
Q3) A nursing student asks a nurse why systemic antibiotics and not topical antiseptic agents are used to treat localized skin infections. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Systemic agents are not affected by wound exudates."
B) "Systemic agents penetrate to the site of infection."
C) "Topical agents can damage inflamed or abraded tissues."
D) "Topical agents work only against established local infections."
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Page 99
Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Q1) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Rash with pruritus
D) Blurred vision
E) Bone and joint pain
Q2) A patient is taking diethylcarbamazine [Hetrazan] to treat a filarial infestation. The patient reports intense itching and a rash after several days of therapy. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) These symptoms are caused by death of the parasite.
B) This is a minor, direct adverse effect of the drug.
C) This is a sign the infestation is worsening.
D) This warrants discontinuation of the drug.
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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Q1) A patient who frequently travels to Africa has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The patient asks the nurse about medications to prevent relapse. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The form of malaria that you have does not relapse after a clinical cure has been achieved."
B) "Until you are no longer traveling to Africa, relapse drugs will be postponed."
C) "Using mosquito netting and DEET when you travel will prevent relapse."
D) "You will be given prophylactic medications when you travel to prevent relapse."
Q2) The nurse is caring for a newly admitted African American patient who has just returned from a mission trip to Africa. The patient contracted malaria and is being treated with primaquine. What will the nurse monitor?
A) The patient's blood for evidence of hyperlipidemia
B) The patient's eyes for evidence of icterus
C) The patient's skin for photosensitivity
D) The patient's urinary output for evidence of darkening urine
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a 26-year-old college student who is being treated for Trichomonas vaginalis with metronidazole [Flagyl]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should not consume alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "If I have dark urine, I should stop taking the drug."
C) "The drug is safe throughout pregnancy."
D) "Vertigo and headaches may occur and are signs of toxicity."
Q2) A family has just returned from a camping trip,and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures,the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?
A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
C) Miltefosine [Impavido]
D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Q1) A parent has used permethrin [Nix] twice to treat head lice in a child. Two weeks after the last treatment,head lice are again found in the child's hair. The parent asks the nurse what to do. The nurse will recommend asking the child's provider about which therapy?
A) Applying lindane 1% shampoo
B) Cutting the child's hair
C) Ordering permethrin 5% [Elimite]
D) Using benzyl alcohol [Ulesfia]
Q2) A patient who has scabies is treated with permethrin 5% cream. The patient calls the nurse 1 week after treatment to report continued intense itching. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "This is a hypersensitivity reaction to the permethrin."
B) "This is the body's normal response to the scabies mites."
C) "You will need a second treatment of the permethrin."
D) "You will need to take ivermectin to clear up the infestation."
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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Q1) A patient with cancer who is receiving chemotherapy develops a fever. The patient's chest radiograph is normal. The patient's neutrophil count is 750/mm³. The nurse expects the provider to:
A) begin empiric therapy with intravenous antibiotics.
B) obtain cultures and wait for results before prescribing antibiotics.
C) order colony-stimulating factor to minimize neutrophilia.
D) reassure the patient that serious infection is unlikely.
Q2) A patient who has undergone surgical removal of a solid tumor has just begun chemotherapy. The patient experiences severe nausea and vomiting as well as alopecia. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) continue the chemotherapeutic agent at the same dose.
B) decrease the dose of chemotherapy to minimize side effects.
C) order lab tests to evaluate for the presence of residual cancer cells.
D) stop the chemotherapy because the tumor has been removed.
Q3) These patients are receiving chemotherapy. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A) The patient with lightly bleeding gums
B) The patient with nausea and vomiting
C) The patient with a fever of 100.3°F
D) The patient with diarrhea and stomatitis
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Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient receiving cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan]. To protect against the side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis,the nurse would expect to administer which drug?
A) Decadron
B) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
C) Leucovorin
D) Mesna [Mesnex]
Q2) A patient who has urinary bladder cancer will begin receiving the chemotherapeutic agent valrubicin [Valstar]. What will the nurse do when administering this drug?
A) Administer the drug intravenously using a large bore needle and tubing.
B) Ensure that the tubing used to administer the drug does not contain polyvinyl chloride.
C) Monitor the patient closely for a variety of systemic drug adverse effects.
D) Use a normal saline or sterile water diluent to dilute the medication.
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Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Q1) A patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)begins treatment with imatinib [Gleevec]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
A) "Resistance to this drug may develop over time."
B) "The intensity of side effects is dose dependent."
C) "This drug does not have significant drug interactions."
D) "This drug must be given intravenously."
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a first dose of ado-trastuzumab emtansine [Kadcycla] to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which nursing action is correct?
A) Administer a test dose with an antihistamine.
B) Ensure that the patient has HER2-positive disease.
C) Infuse the initial dose over 30 to 45 minutes.
D) Review renal function tests.
Q3) The nurse would be correct to state that the purpose of angiogenesis inhibitors is to:
A) kill existing cancer cells directly.
B) suppress the formation of new blood vessels in tumors.
C) enhance the size of collateral vessels.
D) enhance red cell development in the bone marrow.
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Q1) A patient has had dilation of the eyes with an anticholinergic agent. What will the nurse say when preparing this patient to go home after the examination?
A) "Systemic side effects will not occur with this agent."
B) "You may experience an increased heart rate, but this is a harmless side effect."
C) "You may need to wear dark glasses until this medication wears off."
D) "You will be able to read as soon as the exam is completed."
Q2) A patient is about to undergo emergency surgery for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Before surgery,which agent(s)will the nurse expect to administer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acetazolamide
B) Brimonidine [Alphagan]
C) Mannitol
D) Phenylephrine
E) Timolol
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Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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Q1) A patient has severe acne that has been refractory to treatment. The patient is taking tetracycline and using topical tretinoin [Retin-A] and has been applying benzoyl peroxide twice daily. The provider asks the nurse to teach this patient about isotretinoin [Accutane],which the patient will begin taking in a few weeks. The nurse will include which statement when teaching this patient about this drug?
A) "Alcohol may be consumed in moderation when taking this drug."
B) "Skin rash, headache, and hair loss are common with this drug."
C) "Tetracycline must be discontinued before beginning the isotretinoin."
D) "Two pregnancy tests are required before each monthly refill of your prescription."
Q2) A teenaged female patient has begun to develop acne and asks a nurse how to minimize pimple formation. What will the nurse recommend?
A) Asking the provider about oral contraceptives
B) Cleansing the face gently 2 to 3 times daily
C) Eliminating greasy foods from the diet
D) Using an abrasive agent to scrub the face
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Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8499
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child has otitis media and is being treated with amoxicillin [Amoxil] and ibuprofen [Motrin]. The child's parent calls the nurse to report that the child's pain is not relieved with the ibuprofen. The child is afebrile and there is no drainage from either ear. The nurse will discuss which additional treatment with the child's provider?
A) Adding acetaminophen [Tylenol] to the pain medication regimen
B) Applying antipyrine and benzocaine [Aurodex] solution to the ear canals
C) Changing the antibiotic to amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]
D) Performing a tympanostomy to relieve pressure in the middle ear
Q2) An adolescent patient who is on the school swim team asks a nurse about ways to prevent swimmer's ear. The nurse will tell the patient to:
A) allow the ears to drain well after every swim and shower.
B) clean the ears with a cotton-tipped applicator after swimming.
C) keep the ear canals free of cerumen.
D) use antifungal ear drops before and after swimming.
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8500
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of heart disease develops pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH),and the provider is considering prescribing sildenafil [Revatio]. The nurse caring for this patient will perform a careful drug history and notify the provider if the patient is taking which medication?
A) A beta blocker
B) A calcium channel blocker
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Warfarin
Q2) A patient with cystic fibrosis uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI] 300 mg every 12 hours in repeating cycles of 4 weeks on and 4 weeks off. The patient reports hoarseness and tinnitus. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) an intravenous form may be used to avoid hoarseness.
B) hearing loss may occur with continued use of the drug.
C) the provider will need to monitor renal function closely.
D) these are common side effects of this medication.
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Chapter 108: Dietary Supplements
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8501
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse how to know whether dietary supplements are safe. The nurse will tell this patient that:
A) any standards addressing safety merely regulate labeling and manufacturing processes.
B) manufacturers must provide the FDA with efficacy claims prior to marketing their supplements.
C) the DSHEA requires labeling that prohibits claims of treatment of specific diseases or conditions.
D) the FDA must approve dietary supplements prior to marketing them in the United States.
Q2) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements? (Select all that apply.)
A) "Energizes and rejuvenates"
B) "Promotes pulmonary health"
C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis"
D) "Reduces stress"
E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause"
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8502
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient overdosed on aspirin several hours ago and is brought to the emergency department. The nurse assists with supportive care and then asks the provider about an order for which drug?
A) Activated charcoal
B) Ammonium chloride
C) Fomepizole [Antizol]
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who works with heavy metals and who is about to begin taking a chelating agent to treat heavy metal poisoning. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This drug will not affect any metals already bound to cells in my body."
B) "This drug will bind with the metals to form less toxic molecules."
C) "This type of drug can block the metal from binding with molecules in my body."
D) "When the drug forms a chelate with the metal, the chelate can be excreted safely."
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Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/8503
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse responds when a patient asks why the smallpox vaccine is no longer given. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "The smallpox vaccine can cause serious side effects."
B) "The smallpox vaccine can confer protection when given after exposure."
C) "The smallpox vaccine is too expensive to give routinely."
D) "The smallpox vaccine may cause live virus to spread to others."
Q2) Terrorists have detonated a "dirty bomb" in a shopping center. Nurses are called to the site to assist with triage of victims. Besides treating injuries incurred from the blast itself,the priorities for treatment for most of the victims will include:
A) administering potassium iodide as soon as possible.
B) giving Prussian blue and monitoring electrolytes.
C) monitoring urine and stool samples for radioactivity.
D) removing clothing and bathing victims.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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