Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a core course that explores the foundational principles and practices involved in caring for adult patients experiencing a wide range of medical and surgical conditions. The course emphasizes the development of clinical reasoning, critical thinking, and decision-making skills necessary for safe and effective patient care. Topics include pathophysiology, pharmacology, assessment, and nursing interventions for common and complex health problems affecting different body systems. Attention is also given to patient education, communication, interdisciplinary collaboration, and evidence-based practice. Students gain practical experience through simulation and clinical placements, preparing them to provide holistic, patient-centered care in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by Anne
Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2003 Page 2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39771
Sample Questions
Q1) When evidence-based practice is used, patient care will be:
A)standardized for all.
B)unhampered by patient culture.
C)variable according to the situation.
D)safe from the hazards of critical thinking.
Answer: C
Q2) ____________________ is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Answer: Scientific rigor
Scientific rigor is the extent to which a study's findings are valid, reliable, and relevant to your patient population of interest.
Q3) _________________ is a guide for making accurate, timely, and appropriate clinical decisions.
Answer: Evidence-based practice
Evidence-based practice is a guide for making accurate, timely, and appropriate clinical decisions.
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Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39772
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is being admitted to the intensive care department with multiple fractures and internal bleeding.Which of the following are considered roles of the nurse in this situation? (Select all that apply.)
A)Anticipate physical and social deficits to resuming normal activities.
B)Involve the family and significant others in the plan of care.
C)Assist in making health care resources available to the patient.
D)Identify the psychological needs of the patient.
E)None of above
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) The patient is admitted to the ICU after having been in a motor vehicle accident.He was intubated in the emergency department and needs to receive two units of packed red blood cells.He is conscious but is indicating that he is in pain by guarding his abdomen.To admit this patient, the nurse first will focus on:
A)examining the patient and treating the pain.
B)orienting the family to the ICU visitation policy.
C)making sure that the consent forms are signed.
D)informing the patient of his HIPAA rights.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39773
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient tells the nurse that his mother left him when he was 5 years old.The nurse responds by saying, "You say that your mother left you when you were 5 years old?" This is an example of _______________.
Answer: restating
Restating is a technique whereby the nurse repeats the main thought that the patient has expressed.It indicates that the nurse is listening, and validates, reinforces, or calls attention to something important that has been said.
Q2) The patient has been agitated for the entire morning but refuses to say why he is angry.Instead, whenever the nurse speaks to him, he smiles at her while clenching his fist at the same time.The nurse states, "I can see that you're smiling, but I sense that you are really very angry." This is an example of ___________________.
Answer: sharing perceptions
Sharing perceptions is asking the patient to verify the nurse's understanding of what the patient is thinking or feeling.It conveys to the patient the nurse's understanding and has the potential for clearing up confusing communication.
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Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39774
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients on the unit have their vital signs taken routinely at 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000.At 1000, a patient complains of feeling "light-headed." The nurse takes the patient's vital signs and finds blood pressure to be lower than usual.Within 15 minutes, the patient says that he feels better.The nurse rechecks the blood pressure and finds that it is now back to normal.How should the nurse handle documentation for this episode?
A)Document the 1000 vital signs in the graphic record only.
B)Not report the incident because it was a transient episode.
C)Document the vital signs in the graphic and progress record.
D)Document the vital signs as 12 o'clock signs.
Q2) The patient was in bed with all side rails up.During the night, the patient tried to get up to go to the bathroom and fell while trying to climb over the side rails.After meeting the patient's needs and assessing that the patient was not harmed, what step should the nurse take (if any)?
A)Complete an incident report and put it in the medical record.
B)Chart what happened and state that an incident report has been filled out.
C)Do nothing because the patient was not harmed.
D)Document what happened in the patient record without mentioning the incident report.
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6
Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39775
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has an order to be off the floor for 15 minutes every 2 hours to smoke a cigarette.The patient has just returned from his "cigarette break." The nurse is about to take the patient's radial pulse and should:
A)wait about 15 minutes before taking his pulse.
B)use her thumb to detect the pulse and get an accurate count.
C)press hard to detect the pulse and get an accurate count.
D)take his pulse for 15 seconds and multiply by 4.
Q2) The nurse is about to teach the patient about risk factors for hypertension.Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A)Obesity
B)Cigarette smoking
C)High blood cholesterol
D)Renal disease
E)None of above
Q3) The percent to which hemoglobin is filled with oxygen is known as
Q4) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production, ____________ is the result.
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39776
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may a nursing assistant be responsible for determining?
A)Vital signs
B)Cranial nerve function
C)Neck vein distention
D)Auscultation of bowel sounds
Q2) The nurse is visiting the patient for the first time this shift.She introduces herself and asks the patient several questions related to his condition.While doing so, and without being obvious, she is looking at the color of his eyes and is assessing his ears and nose for discharge and the symmetry of his mouth.Which assessment technique is the nurse using?
A)Palpation
B)Percussion
C)Inspection
D)Auscultation
Q3) The patient is noted to have difficulty swallowing.The nurse realizes that the most probable cause of this difficulty is damage to cranial nerve ______.
Q4) Increased visibility of oxyhemoglobin caused by dilation or increased blood flow is known as ________________.
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8
Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39777
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:
A)put the patient in a private room.
B)place the patient on standard precautions.
C)wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient.
D)place the patient on contact precautions.
Q2) _______________, also known as sterile technique, includes procedures used to eliminate all microorganisms from an area.
Q3) Before entering the room of a patient on isolation where all protective barriers are required, the nurse first puts on the:
A)gown.
B)gloves.
C)eyewear.
D)mask/respirator.
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the patient on isolation precautions is to:
A)double-bag all disposable items and linens.
B)put another gown over the one worn if it has become wet.
C)place specimen containers in plastic bags for transport.
D)hand items to be reused directly to a nurse standing outside the room.
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Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39778
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has just had a tracheostomy tube placed and is expectorating copious amounts of sputum that he coughs forcefully from his tracheostomy tube.The patient also is suspected of having methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus ( MRSA ) in his sputum.The nurse is preparing to suction the patient to clear his airway.Which of the following will the nurse need to wear if following standard precautions? (Select all that apply.)
A)Mask
B)Goggles
C)Gown
D)Sterile gloves
E)None of above
Q2) Which is the appropriate sequence to use when applying sterile attire?
A)Apply sterile gloves.
B)Secure hair.
C)Don protective eyewear.
D)Apply hair cover.
E)Wash hands.
F)Apply mask.
Q3) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39779
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is immobile and has been repositioned in bed using a drawsheet.When finished, the patient is in a supported Fowler's position with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.Also important for positioning this patient is to:
A)support his calves with pillows.
B)place a large pillow behind his head to prevent extension.
C)place a pillow behind his upper back.
D)avoid using pillows if the patient does not have use of the hands and arms.
Q2) A nurse should be aware of safety measures to prevent personal injury when lifting or moving patients.An appropriate principle to follow is:
A)bend at the waist for lifting.
B)tighten the stomach muscles and pelvis.
C)keep the weight to be lifted away from the body.
D)carry or hold the weight 1 to 2 feet above the waist.
Q3) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Q4) To position a patient with hemiplegia in Fowler's position, the nurse should:
A)elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees.
B)place the patient in the prone position.
C)position a spastic hand with the fingers extended using hand rolls.
D)position the patient's head with slight hyperextension of the neck.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39780
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is performing ROM exercises independently.These are known as __________ exercises.
Q2) ____________ refers to an ability to move about freely.
Q3) Virchow's triad (hypercoagulability of blood, venous wall damage, and stasis of blood flow) has been found to contribute to ________________.
Q4) A nurse should be concerned when observing a patient performing isometric exercises if the patient is:
A)holding his or her breath while exerting.
B)performing the exercises four times per day.
C)tightening each muscle group for 8 seconds, then relaxing.
D)repeating each exercise 8 to 10 times for each muscle group.
Q5) _________________ increase muscle tension but do not change the length of muscle fibers.
Q6) Factors that contribute to the development of DVT are: (Select all that apply.)
A)elevated sodium (Na+) levels.
B)hypercoagulability of the blood.
C)venous wall damage.
D)stasis of blood flow.
Q7) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39781
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of traction does the nurse anticipate will be used for an adult patient with a fractured humerus?
A)Bryant's traction
B)Dunlop's traction
C)Gallows traction
D)Buck's extension
Q2) The patient has a broken leg and needs to have a cast applied.When plaster of Paris is compared and contrasted versus the newer synthetic casts, which of the following statements is true?
A)Plaster of Paris can tolerate earlier weight bearing than synthetic casts.
B)Plaster of Paris is more expensive than synthetic casts.
C)Synthetic casts can withstand contact with water better than plaster of Paris.
D)Synthetic casts are lighter but take longer to set than plaster of Paris.
Q3) After application of the cast, the nurse ensures that plaster crumbs are removed and rough edges are _________ to prevent skin breakdown.
Q4) __________________ involves monitoring for the five Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis).
Q5) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39782
Sample Questions
Q1) After comparing the following support surfaces, the nurse realizes that an extremely obese patient should benefit from the use of a(n):
A)bariatric bed.
B)foam mattress.
C)water mattress.
D)air-fluidized bed.
Q2) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q3) The patient is admitted with a large stage IV pressure ulcer on his coccyx.After comparing the benefits of the following support surfaces, the nurse would choose which of the following as most appropriate for this patient?
A)Water mattress
B)Gel overlay
C)Foam overlay
D)Air-fluidized bed
Q4) A full or double-wide_____________ can accommodate a patient up to 1000 lb.
Q5) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.
Q6) The major cause of pressure ulcers is ________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39783
Sample Questions
Q1) When working with a patient who has a new seizure disorder, the nurse is alerted to the need for further instruction when the patient tells the nurse: (Select all that apply.)
A)"I will avoid over-the-counter medications that contain alcohol."
B)"I have the medications that I take listed on this card that I carry with me."
C)"I will be sure to take my medications as prescribed by my provider."
D)"I will visit my physician right after I return home from my next trucking job."
Q2) Effective fall prevention programs include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Risk assessment
B)Medication reviews
C)Use of assistive devices
D)Exercise and strength training
E)None of above
Q3) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
Q4) More than ____________ patients are injured in falls in inpatient settings annually in the United States.
Q5) Continuous seizure activity that lasts longer than 10 minutes is known as
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39784
Sample Questions
Q1) The terrorist act of releasing a biological agent into a specified environment is known as _____________________.
Q2) An _________________ provides a standard approach to managing emergencies in which multiple agencies are involved.
Q3) __________ is the sorting of individuals by the seriousness of their condition and the likelihood of their survival.
Q4) Which of the following biological agent requires the use of an antitoxin if exposure occurs?
A)Anthrax
B)Plague
C)Botulism
D)Typhoid
Q5) Releasing nuclear energy in an explosive manner as the result of a nuclear chain reaction is known as a ________________.
Q6) In the event of a mass casualty incident, part of the CDC's disaster preparedness program involves backup plans for maintaining public and intraagency/interagency
Q7) It is recommended that every household prepare a ____________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39785
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has morphine sulfate ordered for pain every 4 hours "prn." The patient complains of severe pain and usually requests more morphine an hour before it is due.The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A)Request a "placebo order" from the physician.
B)Offer the patient medication "around the clock" instead of "prn".
C)Offer the patient massage between medication doses.
D)Offer the patient a nonopioid medication between morphine doses if ordered.
Q2) While reviewing a patient's medication history, the nurse determines that intraspinal analgesia is contraindicated as a result of:
A)previous spinal anesthesia.
B)recent administration of anticoagulants.
C)a history of cardiac problems.
D)a diagnosis of advanced cancer.
Q3) ________________ draws on internal experiences of memories, dreams, fantasies, and visions; explores the inner world of experience; protects the privacy of the patient; and fosters the imagination.
Q4) __________________ is an interactive method of pain management that permits patient control over pain through self-administration of analgesics.
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Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39786
Sample Questions
Q1) Hospice care can be provided in which of the following settings? (Select all that apply.)
A)Home
B)Free-standing hospice facilities
C)Extended care facilities
D)Acute care facilities
E)None of above
Q2) The patient is being admitted to the hospital for injuries received when a hurricane destroyed her home.She is upset from the loss of her home and possessions.What type of loss is this considered?
A)Necessary loss
B)Maturational loss
C)Situational loss
D)Perceived loss
Q3) For a patient in the final stages of dying, a nurse expects to:
A)keep the patient's room cool.
B)avoid catheterizing the patient.
C)elevate the head of the bed as tolerated.
D)encourage the patient to eat and drink more.
Q4) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39787
Sample Questions
Q1) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
Q2) While washing the patient's face, the nurse should:
A)wash the eyes using soap and warm water.
B)wash the eyes from outer canthus to inner canthus.
C)wash the eyes with plain warm water.
D)use the same portion of the washcloth.
Q3) Critically ill patients on a ventilator are at risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP).Sources of VAP include: (Select all that apply.)
A)bacteria in the oral pharynx.
B)dental plaque.
C)chlorhexidine rinses.
D)frequent oral hygiene.
Q4) When teaching parents how to provide oral care to their child, the nurse instructs them to:
A)give bottles with juice at bedtime.
B)begin dental visits after the child is 8 years old.
C)allow the preschool child to floss his teeth without parental supervision.
D)limit snacks to three or four per day.
Q5) The ____________ is the largest human organ.
Q6) ________________ is defined as excessive growth of body and facial hair.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39788
Sample Questions
Q1) In a long-term care facility, how often should the nurse reassess a patient for risk of a pressure ulcer?
A)Every 1 to 2 days
B)Every time the nurse sees the patient
C)Weekly for the first few weeks of stay
D)Monthly for the first 4 months of stay
Q2) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q3) The nurse is aware that pressure ulcers can occur: (Select all that apply.)
A)from any position that causes soft tissue compression.
B)because of lack of blood flow ( ischemia ).
C)only in bedbound patients.
D)in as little as 90 minutes.
Q4) Patients are at risk for developing pressure ulcers on which areas of the body? (Select all that apply.)
A)Coccyx
B)Nares
C)Ears
D)Genitalia
E)None of above
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39789
Sample Questions
Q1) How does the nurse assess that a hearing aid is operating correctly?
A)Speaking very softly behind the patient
B)Covering the patient's unaffected ear and speaking
C)Determining the patient's response to a normal tone of voice
D)Removing the hearing aid and sending it to be checked by an audiologist
Q2) The patient is brought to the emergency department after receiving a chemical burn to his eyes.The doctor orders immediate eye irrigations.Of the following solutions, which would be the most beneficial for this patient?
A)Lactated Ringer's solution
B)Normal saline
C)Tap water
D)Dextrose and water
Q3) When caring for the patient with an artificial eye, the nurse realizes that:
A)the prosthesis must be cleansed daily.
B)implants are always visible.
C)modern implants move as the companion eye moves.
D)the prosthesis always is made of glass.
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
Q5) A _____________ is a small, battery-powered, electronic device that amplifies sound.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39790
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is prescribed diltiazem tablets, which have an onset of 30 minutes, a peak of 2 to 3 hours, and a duration of 6 to 8 hours.The nurse anticipates that the medication will be prescribed ____________ per day.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient how to measure medication dosages at home.The prescription is written for 30 mL of the medication.Which household measurement will the nurse teach the patient to use?
A)Drops
B)Teaspoon
C)Tablespoon
D)Cup
Q3) The nurse is preparing a liquid medication.Which action is most appropriate?
A)Pour the liquid medication toward the label.
B)Draw the liquid quickly into a syringe.
C)Place the medication cup on a flat surface at eye level.
D)Measure the poured liquid to the top of the meniscus.
Q4) The nurse administers 100 mg of a drug at 0800.The drug's biological half-life is 4 hours.A serum drug level is drawn at 1600.The nurse should anticipate ___________ milligrams will be left in the body at 1600?
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is receiving vaginal suppositories for a vaginal infection.Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates a desired outcome of the treatment?
A)The patient reports pruritus and burning.
B)The vaginal walls are bright red in color.
C)White curdlike patches appear on the vaginal walls.
D)Vaginal discharge the same color of the medication is noted.
Q2) A nurse is preparing to administer eardrops to an adult patient.Which action should be taken by the nurse?
A)Warm the medication to room temperature using warm water.
B)Pull the pinna down and back to straighten the ear canal.
C)Apply gentle pressure or massage to the pinna of the ear.
D)Remove cerumen from the inner ear canal with a cotton-tipped applicator.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to give sublingual nitroglycerin to a patient complaining of chest pain.The nurse instructs the patient not to swallow the medication.Why is this instruction important?
A)The effects of the medication will be nullified if swallowed.
B)Sublingual drugs begin to dissolve when placed on the tongue.
C)The medication needs to be held against the cheek membranes until dissolved.
D)The patient may aspirate on the water used for these medications.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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40 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) After insertion of the needle into the patient's ventrogluteal muscle, the nurse aspirates and notices a very small amount of blood in the syringe.What action should the nurse take?
A)Inject the medication slowly but smoothly.
B)Withdraw the needle, expel the blood from the syringe, reinsert the needle, and inject the medication.
C)Withdraw the needle, change the needle, insert the needle, and inject the medication.
D)Withdraw the needle, dispose of the medication and syringe, and prepare another dose of medication.
Q2) The nurse administers a tuberculin screening test to a patient who has no known risk factors for tuberculosis.When the test site is read 48 hours later, which result is considered positive?
A)Induration of 2 mm or more
B)Induration of 5 mm or more
C)Induration of 10 mm or more
D)Induration of 15 mm or more
Q3) The patient is receiving allergy testing.The nurse is using the inner forearm to inject the allergen into the ____________.
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Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39793
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is placed on mechanical ventilation.After the initial settings have been applied, the nurse should watch for which of the following complications? (Select all that apply.)
A)Signs of decreased cardiac output
B)Tension pneumothorax
C)Pneumonia
D)Failure to wean
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient for hypoxia and observes a bluish discoloration in the following areas.Which areas indicate hypoxia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Oral mucosa
B)Conjunctiva of the eye
C)Around the lips
D)On the nail beds
Q3) In noninvasive ventilation, ________________ keeps the terminal airways (alveoli) partially inflated, reducing the risk for atelectasis.
Q4) The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath while a patient is on mechanical ventilation is known as the ________________.
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is complaining of feeling congested.After assessing the patient, the nurse places the patient in the proper position and claps her cupped hands against the patient's thorax.She does this because she is aware that ______________ assists in loosening retained secretions from the airway.
Q2) The nurse receives orders on several patients for chest percussion, vibration, and shaking.The nurse is aware that chest physiotherapy maneuvers are indicated for which patient?
A)18-year-old who sustained thoracic trauma from a motor vehicle accident
B)75-year-old with osteoporosis who is underweight
C)15-year-old with cystic fibrosis
D)20-year-old with a fractured clavicle
Q3) The nurse receives orders for postural drainage using Trendelenburg's position.On which patients should the nurse question the order? (Select all that apply.)
A)Patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease ( GERD )
B)Postsurgical patient with a distended abdomen
C)Patient with blood pressure of 180/100
D)Patient with bronchiectasis on chest x-ray
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26
Chapter 25: Airway Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the risk for aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs resulting in airway obstruction.The nurse identifies patients with which conditions as having increased risk? (Select all that apply.)
A)Presence of a gastrostomy feeding tube
B)History of smoking 2 packs per day for 30 years
C)Head injury with a decreased level of consciousness
D)Stroke with dysphagia
Q2) A patient has extremely copious and thick oral secretions.The nurse provides oropharyngeal suctioning using a _________________ suction device.
Q3) When assessing a patient's tracheostomy site, the nurse notes redness and inflammation around the stoma.Which intervention can the nurse provide to address this problem?
A)Decrease the frequency of tracheostomy care.
B)Apply a dry gauze dressing just under the stoma.
C)Remove the ties at frequent intervals.
D)Apply a topical antibacterial solution and allow it to dry.
Q4) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the expected amount of drainage for an adult patient with a mediastinal chest tube?
A)Less than 100 mL/hr during the immediate postoperative period
B)Less than 10 mL/hr during the immediate postoperative period
C)1000 mL/hr during the first 24-hour period
D)200 mL/hr during the first 24-hour period
Q2) The nurse is preparing to assist the physician in removal of a chest tube.What should the nurse do to prepare the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)Assess the patient's need for pain medication.
B)Instruct the patient about the process.
C)Teach the patient to take a deep breath and hold it.
D)Clamp the chest tubes.
Q3) The nurse knows that _______________ is the proper term to describe that the patient's water seal is fluctuating up and down with each breath.
A)bubbling
B)tidaling
C)fluttering
D)alternating
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28
Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying an automated external defibrillator, the nurse would:
A)connect the cable to the machine, apply the pads, and turn on the power.
B)turn on the power, apply the pads, and connect the cable.
C)turn on the power, connect the cable, and apply the pads.
D)connect the cable, turn on the power, and apply the pads.
Q2) The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is the
Q3) Which sign or symptom of airway compromise may require insertion of an oral airway?
A)Ability of the patient to speak
B)Ability of the patient to cough forcefully
C)Presence of wheezing between coughs
D)Presence of gurgling with the respiratory cycle
Q4) What is the nurse's responsibility for the patient after he has been intubated during a code event? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ventilate using a bag-mask device at a rate of 22 breaths per minute.
B)Auscultate the epigastric area.
C)Auscultate both lungs.
D)Call for a chest radiograph.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assessing the patient's IV site, the nurse notes that the site is reddened and warm.The patient states that it is "sore." The nurse recognizes these as signs of
Q2) A pediatric patient has an IV with a microdrip.The order is for 40 mL/hr to infuse.At what rate does the nurse set the microdrip?
A)10 gtt/min
B)20 gtt/min
C)40 gtt/min
D)80 gtt/min
Q3) _________________________ pull fluid into the vascular space by osmosis, resulting in an increased vascular volume that possibly will result in pulmonary edema.
Q4) While assessing the patient's IV infusion, the nurse notes that it is infusing more slowly than it should be.What should the nurse do first?
A)Discontinue the IV.
B)Increase the rate of infusion.
C)Observe for fluid overload.
D)Check the position of the IV fluid and extremity.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is receiving a unit of packed RBCs.Fifteen minutes into the procedure, he complains of severe kidney pain, and his temperature increases by 3° F.The nurse stops the transfusion immediately, suspecting that which of the following reactions is occurring?
A)Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B)Nonhemolytic febrile reaction
C)Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
D)Severe allergic reaction
Q2) The patient has been home from the hospital for 10 days.On the last day of his hospitalization, he received 2 units of packed RBCs.This morning, he noticed that his skin had a yellow tint to it and his temperature was elevated.Which reaction might this patient be experiencing?
A)Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B)Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
C)Nonhemolytic febrile reaction
D)Severe allergic transfusion reaction
Q3) Under the ABO system, the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient 2 days after surgery.The ordered diet is a mechanical soft diet.Which of the following foods may the patient choose to eat?
A)Salad
B)Baked potato without skin
C)Cooked cereal
D)Soft peeled apples
Q2) The nurse will collaborate with a ___________ to develop a nutritional plan for a patient identified as being at nutritional risk.
Q3) What must the nurse do before assisting the patient with feeding?
A)Assess the patient's gag reflex.
B)Make sure that the consistency of the food is thin.
C)Remove the patient's dentures to prevent gagging.
D)Prepare the patient to be fed by a staff member.
Q4) Which of the following are signs of iron (Fe²?) deficiency? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pale eye membranes
B)Cheilosis (redness/swelling) of the lips
C)Spongy, bleeding gingiva
D)Glossitis
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is checking gastric residual on a patient who has a continuously running tube feeding.She finds that the patient has a 600-mL residual volume.How should the nurse respond?
A)Stop the tube feeding.
B)Slow the tube feeding.
C)Continue the tube feeding at the same rate.
D)Increase the rate of the tube feeding.
Q2) An appropriate technique for nasogastric (NG) tube insertion is for the nurse to:
A)position the patient supine.
B)apply oil-based lubricant to the plastic tube.
C)advance the tube while the patient swallows.
D)measure the tube length from the nose to the sternum.
Q3) The nurse is initiating a continuous tube feeding for a patient who has a gastrostomy tube.Which of the following procedures indicates proper practice?
A)Allow the container to empty gradually over 60 minutes.
B)Change the bag every 24 hours.
C)Do not use water to flush the tube.
D)Quickly increase the rate of administration.
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33
Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been receiving PN but has not been given lipid emulsion therapy.The nurse notices that the patient is developing dry, scaly skin, his wound is healing more slowly than expected, and he is anemic.Which condition should the nurse anticipate as a potential problem?
A)Excess linoleic acid
B)Omega-6 fatty acid excess
C)Essential fatty acid deficiency
D)Electrolyte instability
Q2) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
Q3) To detect a common untoward effect of interrupting a PN infusion, the nurse should assess the patient for development of which symptom?
A)Fever
B)Chest pain
C)Erythema and induration
D)Shaking and dizziness
Q4) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing the patient for a bladder scan to determine PVR.Which of the following is part of the preparation?
A)Limit food intake for 2 hours before the scan.
B)Begin scan 10 minutes after the patient has voided.
C)Limit liquid intake for 30 minutes before the scan.
D)Administer an analgesic 30 minutes before the scan.
Q2) The nurse has been ordered to perform closed intermittent irrigation of a patient's indwelling urinary catheter.Which intervention is indicative of safe practice?
A)Applies sterile gloves
B)Instills 100 mL of irrigant
C)Leaves the drainage tubing unclamped irrigation
D)Determines the amount of urinary drainage by subtracting the amount of irrigant from the total output
Q3) The risk for catheter-associated urinary tract infection can be reduced by using ___________ when inserting the catheter.
Q4) Antimicrobial catheters coated with silver or antibiotics have been shown to reduce the incidence of ________________.
Q5) Catheter use in older adults has been associated with increased ______________.
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ is defined by a number of signs including infrequent bowel movements, difficulty evacuating, hard stools, and inability to defecate.
Q2) When evaluating a health care team member's ability to digitally remove feces, the nurse determined that further teaching is required in which of the following situations?
A)Staff member provides perianal skin care.
B)Staff member continues the procedure if bleeding starts.
C)Staff member follows the procedure by offering the patient the bedpan.
D)Staff member discontinues the procedure in the presence of bradycardia.
Q3) When developing a plan of care for a patient requiring an NG tube, the nurse recognizes that it is essential to implement which technique in measuring the length of the tube?
A)Measure from the nose to the ear to the patient's navel.
B)Measure from the nose to the middle of the sternum.
C)Measure and mark a point 30 inches from the end.
D)Mark the 50-cm point on the tube, measure in the traditional way, and insert halfway between the two spots.
Q4) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
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36
Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a urinary diversion.She notices that the patient has a temperature of 102° F and foul-smelling urine.What action should the nurse take?
A)Obtain a urine culture from the patient's pouch.
B)Catheterize the patient to obtain a sterile urine specimen.
C)Notify the physician.
D)Realize that these are normal findings.
Q2) When providing care for a patient with a colostomy or an ileostomy, the nurse recognizes that which is an expected assessment finding?
A)A moist, reddish-pink stoma
B)A dry, purplish stoma
C)Erythema on the skin around the stoma
D)No drainage noted from the stoma when washed
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who had a colostomy placed 5 days earlier.The nurse notes that the stoma is red and moist.Which action should the nurse take?
A)Notify the physician immediately.
B)Apply pressure.
C)Note the condition of the stoma in her notes.
D)Change the appliance pouch.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to the patient that the incentive spirometer is used to promote which of the following outcomes?
A)Lung expansion
B)Reduce likelihood of vascular complications
C)Incisional healing
D)Expectoration of mucus
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a preoperative patient.Which intervention is implemented to ensure safe nursing care?
A)Allowing the patient to have ice chips
B)Always keeping the patient NPO for 12 to 14 hours before
C)Allowing the patient to brush teeth and swallow water
D)Allowing the patient to take specifically ordered oral medications with small amounts of water
Q3) As a patient is prepared for surgery, which finding indicates that the nurse should inform the surgeon that the surgery may need to be postponed?
A)The patient has a history of smoking.
B)The patient is experiencing calf pain, redness, and swelling.
C)The patient has an increased hemoglobin level.
D)The patient experienced an upper respiratory infection a month ago.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who of the following can assume the role of the scrub nurse/assistant? (Select all that apply.)
A)RN
B)LPN
C)CST
D)Licensed nursing assistant
E)Medical transcriptionist
Q2) The charge nurse is assigning duties in the surgical arena.Which member of the surgical team should be assigned to the role of circulating nurse?
A)Registered nurse (RN)
B)Licensed practical nurse (LPN)
C)Certified surgical technologist (CST)
D)Licensed nursing assistant
Q3) When planning care for a surgical patient, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
A)Risk for infection
B)Risk for constipation
C)Risk for falls
D)Risk for knowledge deficit
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healing by ________ intention occurs when surgical wounds are not closed immediately but are left open for 3 to 5 days to allow edema or infection to diminish.
Q2) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for drainage evacuation?
A)Replace the Hemovac drain fully expanded.
B)Attach the drainage tubing to the patient's gown.
C)Tilt the evacuator of the Hemovac away from the plug.
D)Complete the dressing change before the drainage evacuation.
Q3) For absorption of heavy exudate from a wound, a nurse selects which of the following dressings?
A)Alginates
B)Hydrogel
C)Hydrocolloid
D)Transparent film
Q4) When should a nurse consider culturing a wound?
A)When the tissue is clean and dry
B)When exudate is not present
C)When the patient is afebrile
D)When the surrounding area shows inflammation
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Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dressings serve several functions.Which of the following is a function of a dressing?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Maintains a moist environment
B)Prevents the spread of microorganisms
C)Increases patient comfort
D)Controls bleeding
E)None of above
Q2) Which of the following tasks might be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP)?
A)Pressure dressing to an actively bleeding wound
B)Chronic wound that needs a nonsterile moist-to-dry dressing change
C)Hydrogel dressing change
D)Wound assessment during the dressing change
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a negative-pressure dressing.The nurse realizes that typically the dressing should be changed:
A)every shift.
B)daily.
C)every 8 hours.
D)every 48 hours.
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Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient on a hypothermia blanket starts to shiver, what action should the nurse take?
A)Discontinue treatment.
B)Place more padding around the patient.
C)Discuss with the physician the use of a metabolic stimulant.
D)Increase the temperature to a more comfortable range.
Q2) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot therapy to a patient with muscle spasm in response to an acute injury?
A)Apply the source for 20- to 30-minute periods.
B)Allow the patient to adjust the temperature for comfort.
C)Encourage the patient to move the application.
D)Position the patient so that he or she cannot move away from the temperature source.
Q3) What procedure should the nurse follow when applying hot compresses to an open wound?
A)Apply clean gloves.
B)Cover all wound surfaces.
C)Leave the application in place for 30 to 40 minutes.
D)Apply an electrical heating unit directly over the compress.
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42
Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of what should the nurse remind the patient when discussing safety measures for the home environment?
A)Set the hot water heater to only 160° F.
B)Turn on the cold water faucet first.
C)Use small throw rugs on slippery wood floors.
D)Put high-wattage bulbs into all lamps.
Q2) Dementia is characterized by a gradual, progressive, irreversible _______ dysfunction.
Q3) Patients who require home care often experience physical alterations that require changes in their home environment.In the case of older adults, what is the best way to make these changes?
A)Make changes quickly to prevent problems.
B)Make changes to limit the patient's need to move around.
C)Make changes to complement the patient's strengths.
D)Make changes regardless of the patient's previous sense of personal space.
Q4) Activities of daily living (ADLs) include the patient's ability to bathe, dress, go to the toilet, transfer, maintain continence, and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone, prepare meals, travel, do housework, take medication, and shop.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expected outcomes for patients who are being taught how to use a thermometer include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ability to correctly measure temperature
B)Ability to properly clean and store the thermometer
C)Knowledge of normal temperature ranges
D)Knowledge of signs and symptoms of fever
E)None of above
Q2) The nurse will train the tracheostomy patient and caregiver that reusable supplies need to be disinfected at least weekly.Which of the following methods is recommended for cleaning tracheostomy supplies at home? (Select all that apply.)
A)Boil reusable (boilable) supplies for 5 minutes.Allow to cool and dry.
B)Boil reusable (boilable) supplies for 15 minutes.Allow to cool and dry.
C)Soak reusable supplies in equal parts of vinegar and water for 30 minutes.Remove, rinse thoroughly, and dry.
D)Soak reusable supplies in prepared solutions of quaternary ammonium chloride compounds according to the manufacturer's instructions.Rinse and dry.
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44
Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting specimens, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A)wear gloves and perform hand hygiene.
B)handle excretions discreetly.
C)explain the procedure to the patient.
D)allow patients to collect their own urine specimens.
E)None of above
Q2) Which of the following is the site of choice for obtaining samples for ABG?
A)Radial artery
B)Brachial artery
C)Femoral artery
D)Popliteal artery
Q3) The patient is diagnosed with suspected bacteremia.The physician has ordered blood cultures from two different sites.The patient is complaining of chills and has an elevated temperature.What action should the nurse take in the presence of these symptoms?
A)Delay drawing the blood cultures until symptoms subside.
B)Draw blood from only one site to prevent further discomfort.
C)Draw the blood cultures as ordered.
D)Draw blood from the patient's intravenous (IV) catheter.
Q4) The least traumatic method of obtaining a blood specimen is known as
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing the patient's upcoming elective lumbar puncture, and explains that the patient will probably need to undergo computed tomography of the brain before the procedure is done.What is the reason for this?
A)Diagnose CNS infection.
B)Rule out increased intracranial pressure.
C)Visualize cerebrospinal fluid.
D)Measure pressure in the subarachnoid space.
Q2) When explaining about a lumbar puncture, the nurse informs the patient that during the procedure, he or she will be asked to:
A)remain very still.
B)cough during the fluid aspiration.
C)change position.
D)breathe deeply during the needle insertion.
Q3) Which is the appropriate patient position for a lumbar puncture?
A)Prone
B)Supine
C)Sims'
D)Lateral recumbent
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