Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Medical-Surgical Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and clinical skills necessary to care for adult patients experiencing a wide range of acute and chronic health conditions. Emphasizing the integration of theory and practice, the course covers principles of pathophysiology, pharmacology, and evidence-based interventions, along with effective communication and critical thinking skills. Students learn to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate holistic nursing care while prioritizing patient safety and interdisciplinary collaboration, preparing them for diverse roles in hospital and community healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn
L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After suffering a heart attack,a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: C
Q2) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by (Select all that apply.)
A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A,B,C,E
Q3) When the cause is unknown,a condition is said to be idiopathic
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of (Select all that apply.)
A) catecholamines.
B) ACTH.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) immune cytokines.
E) TSH.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Answer: D
Q3) The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is A) energy and repair.
B) invoke resting state.
C) produce exhaustion.
D) set a new baseline steady-state.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is because of A) activation of the Na -K pump.
B) influx of calcium.
C) efflux of potassium.
D) influx of sodium.
Answer: C
Q2) During conditions of prolonged insufficient oxygen availability (e.g.,respiratory or cardiovascular disease)anaerobic glycolysis accumulated pyruvate can lead to lactic acidosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers,because they are A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon monoxide injures cells by
A) destruction of cellular membranes.
B) reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.
C) promotion of free radicals.
D) crystallization of cellular organelles.
Q2) Of the statements below,the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is
A) the body can generally produce elements essential for nutritional balance.
B) obese individuals are generally nutritionally healthy.
C) deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.
D) a normal BMI indicates nutritional health.
Q3) Infectious injury often results from (Select all that apply.)
A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
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6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary role of genes is to A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
Q2) Characteristics of stem cells include that they (Select all that apply.)
A) may differentiate into any type of cell.
B) reside only in the bone marrow.
C) have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells.
D) are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation.
E) can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
Q3) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that
A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington disease is often transferred to offspring before a parent knows of the genetic possibility of this disease,because
A) symptoms are so mild that they are not recognized.
B) symptoms often do not occur until approximately 40 years of age.
C) genetic testing for the disease is not possible.
D) the genetic alteration is rarely expressed.
Q2) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
Q3) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers,including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q2) Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as A) lymphoma.
B) sarcomas.
C) carcinomas.
D) adenomas.
Q3) Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
A) occurs at an earlier age.
B) is more likely to be unilateral.
C) is more common than non-inherited breast cancer.
D) is more responsive to treatment.
Q4) Cancer grading is based on A) tumor size.
B) local invasion.
C) cell differentiation.
D) metastasis.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed
A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q2) A characteristic of some bacteria
A) is intracellular parasite.
B) is composed of RNA or DNA.
C) contains cell wall endotoxin.
D) cannot replicate extracellularly.
Q3) Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.)
A) use of corticosteroids.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) spleen removal.
D) stomach removal.
E) stress.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of eosinophils is to
A) kill parasitic helminths (worms).
B) kill bacteria.
C) stop viral replication.
D) phagocytize fungi.
Q2) Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by A) active phase protein count.
B) antibody titer.
C) erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) WBC count.
Q3) The "classical pathway" for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by A) activation of C3.
B) inflammation.
C) first recognition of an antigen.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
Q4) The spleen is an important defense against infection,because it A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis.This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is
A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
Q3) Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Malnutrition immunodeficiency
C) Cancer immunodeficiency
D) Radiation immunodeficiency
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?
A) Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising
B) Vertebral fracture, hypercalcemia, bone pain
C) Elevated WBC count found on routine examination, asymptomatic
D) Painless enlarged cervical lymph node, fever, weight loss
Q2) Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
A) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
B) Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)
C) Myeloma
D) Hodgkin disease
Q3) Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Q4) The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce,primarily because
A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves to the vaccine.
Q2) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach,the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for 10 to 20 seconds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
Q4) Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-negative rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of A) iron.
B) intrinsic factor.
C) folate.
D) erythropoietin.
Q2) A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)and mean corpuscular volume (MCV)are characteristic of which type of anemia?
A) Vitamin B deficiency
B) Folate deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Erythropoietin deficiency
Q3) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as A) carboxyhemoglobin.
B) bicarbonate ion.
C) dissolved carbon dioxide.
D) carbonic acid.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department with acute flank pain.What additional signs of bleeding may the patient exhibit? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hematuria
B) Melena
C) Hematemesis
D) Menorrhagia
E) Hemoptysis
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously.This patient presents with A) petechiae.
B) purpura.
C) telangiectasia.
D) thrombocytosis.
Q3) The liver is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors,with the exception of part of VIII.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to
A) relieve edema.
B) prevent clot dislodgement.
C) dissolve the thrombus.
D) prevent further clot formation.
Q2) The relationship of blood flow (Q),resistance (R),and pressure (P)in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?
A) Q = P/R
B) Q = R/P
C) R = PQ
D) P = Q/R
Q3) What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
A) Resistance doubles.
B) Resistance decreases by a factor of 16.
C) Resistance decreases by half.
D) Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
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17
Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.
A) systolic
B) mean arterial
C) diastolic
D) pulse
Q2) New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q4) What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Decreased vascular resistance
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) One role of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction is
A) providing energy to pump calcium into the cell.
B) inducing a conformational change in tropomyosin.
C) altering myosin affinity for actin-binding sites.
D) releasing sequestered calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart generally leads to a decrease in heart rate,because acetylcholine
A) increases intracellular cAMP levels and opens calcium channels.
B) opens potassium channels allowing potassium ion efflux.
C) binds and blocks b receptors on the cell membrane.
D) inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane.
Q3) Phase 0 of the cardiac muscle cell action potential is associated with ________ channels.
A) opening of slow calcium ion
B) opening of fast potassium ion
C) opening of fast sodium ion
D) closure of sodium leak
Q4) The R wave is responsible for apical depolarization.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitral stenosis is associated with
A) a prominent S heart sound.
B) a pressure gradient across the mitral valve.
C) left ventricular hypertrophy.
D) a muffled second heart sound (S ).
Q2) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpesvirus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q3) Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI)is directed at
A) protecting the heart from further ischemia.
B) decreasing myocardial oxygen demands.
C) reducing heart rate and blood pressure.
D) activating the parasympathetic system.
Q4) Constrictive pericarditis is associated with A) impaired cardiac filling.
B) cardiac hypertrophy.
C) increased cardiac preload.
D) elevated myocardial oxygen consumption.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lusitropic impairment refers to
A) poor contractile force.
B) impaired diastolic relaxation.
C) altered action potential conduction rate.
D) altered automaticity.
Q2) Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
Q3) A patient has heart failure with a normal ejection fraction.Which findings are most likely found in this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) High cardiac output
B) Pulmonary congestion
C) Edema
D) Ejection fraction greater than 50%
E) Ejection fraction less than 45%
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in atrophy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of A) hypovolemia.
B) peripheral pooling of blood.
C) poor cardiac contractility.
D) high afterload.
Q2) The urinary signs and symptoms of acute renal failure associated with the progressive stage of shock are (Select all that apply.)
A) polyuria.
B) oliguria.
C) decreased blood urea nitrogen.
D) increased serum creatinine.
E) tachycardia.
Q3) Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of A) tissue hypoxia.
B) anxiety.
C) baroreceptor activity.
D) acidosis.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the A) residual volume.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
Q2) Surfactant is a phospholipid that reduces
A) pulmonary vascular capacitance.
B) elastic recoil force.
C) alveolar surface tension.
D) pulmonary capillary fragility.
Q3) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are
A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
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23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?
A) Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
B) Decreased functional residual capacity
C) Increased FEV1
D) Reduced total lung volume
Q2) Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD
A) Copious sputum, dyspnea, cor pulmonale
B) Noisy breath sounds, fatigue, high PaCO , overweight
C) Normal PaCO , scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest
D) Barrel chest, productive cough, cyanosis, very decreased PaO
Q3) Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with A) emphysema.
B) epiglottitis.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) bronchiectasis.
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24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as a tracheal shift should be evaluated for
A) pneumonia.
B) pneumothorax.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q2) Restrictive respiratory disorders include (Select all that apply.)
A) pneumothorax.
B) emphysema.
C) chronic asthma.
D) type B COPD.
E) ARDS.
Q3) A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)disease is
A) contaminated water.
B) immunosuppression.
C) being a male.
D) overuse of antibiotics.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of A) hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
B) hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia and hypokalemia.
D) hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Q2) Abnormalities in intracellular regulation of enzyme activity and cellular production of ATP are associated with A) hyponatremia.
B) hypocalcemia.
C) hypophosphatemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q3) The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.
A) sodium
B) phosphate
C) magnesium
D) potassium
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by A) hypernatremia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q2) The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52,PaCO = 30 mm Hg,HCO - = 24 mEq/L demonstrates
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) mixed alkalosis.
Q3) A person who experiences a panic attack and develops hyperventilation symptoms may experience
A) neuromuscular depression.
B) anxiety acidosis.
C) numbness and tingling in the extremities.
D) acute compensatory metabolic acidosis.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Serum creatinine may be increased by
A) carbohydrate intake.
B) fat intake.
C) muscle breakdown.
D) fluid intake.
Q2) The primary selectivity barrier for glomerular filtration is the
A) glomerular basement membrane.
B) endothelial tight junctions.
C) epithelial fenestra.
D) mesangial cells.
Q3) Hormones that increase sodium reabsorption from the tubular fluid include (Select all that apply.)
A) aldosterone.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) urodilatin.
E) angiotensin II.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) In addition to E.coli,a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is
A) urinary retention and reflux.
B) nephrotic syndrome.
C) respiratory disease.
D) glomerulonephritis.
Q2) A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia.This happens because
A) hepatocyte failure decreases albumin synthesis.
B) albumin is excreted in the urine.
C) albumin leaks into the interstitial spaces.
D) malnutrition is part of nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
A) infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection.
B) immune system damage to the glomeruli.
C) hydronephrosis resulting from kidney stones.
D) Streptococcus infection that migrates from the bloodstream to the glomerulus.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is
A) decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
B) decreased serum sodium.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) increased serum creatinine.
Q2) Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of A) hyperparathyroidism.
B) hypercalcemia.
C) excess active vitamin D.
D) phosphorous deficiency.
Q3) Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures,because
A) excess potassium leaches calcium from bone.
B) erythropoietin secretion is impaired.
C) urea causes demineralization of bone.
D) they are deficient in active vitamin D.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is prevention.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is
A) smoking.
B) recurrent bladder infections.
C) low fluid intake.
D) family history of bladder cancer.
Q2) The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q3) The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is
A) less than 100 mL.
B) 150 to 200 mL.
C) 250 to 300 mL.
D) none of these; no normal residual volume is identified.
Q4) Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
A) Infants and children
B) Sexually active women
C) Adult males
D) Patients taking diuretics
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q2) Erectile function is most likely to be impaired if spinal cord injury occurs at A) L<sub>1</sub>-L<sub>2</sub>.
B) L<sub>2</sub>-L<sub>3</sub>.
C) S<sub>1</sub>-S .
D) S -S .
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation. A)True
B)False
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
Q2) Sexual impotence is rarely because of A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q3) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma. A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for A) endocrine disorders.
B) vascular abnormalities.
C) female sex assignment.
D) epispadias.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes,tachycardia,palpitations,and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
Q2) Pregnancy is associated with A) decreased oxygen consumption and ventilation.
B) decreased basal metabolic rate.
C) decreased absorption of sodium and water.
D) increased cardiac output and blood volume.
Q3) Which organs are part of the female reproductive tract? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ovaries
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Urethra
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as
A) placenta previa.
B) hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) abruptio placentae.
D) spontaneous abortion.
Q2) A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes
A) a history of fibrocystic breast disease.
B) more than three pregnancies prior to age 35.
C) malnourishment.
D) early menarche and late first pregnancy.
Q3) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)is caused by
A) endometrial inflammation.
B) reproductive tract malignancies.
C) endometrial fibroid tumors.
D) absent or diminished levels of progesterone.
Q4) Cervical cancer can be detected in the early,curable stage by the ________ test.
A) Papanicolaou
B) human papillomavirus
C) gonorrhoeae
D) vaginal pH
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
Q2) Transmission of Chlamydia during birth may result in ________,or infection of the eyes in the newborn.
A) neonatal jaundice
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) neonatal conjunctivitis
D) erythema neonatorum
Q3) What systemic infections are potentially transmitted by sexual contact? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis B
D) HIV
E) Herpes simplex virus
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) The propulsive movement of the GI tract is called
A) peristalsis.
B) transmission.
C) contraction.
D) constriction.
Q2) The sympathetic nerve endings in the GI tract secrete
A) acetylcholine.
B) histamine.
C) gastrin.
D) norepinephrine.
Q3) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
Q4) Chief cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) hydrogen chloride.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) gastrin.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) A patient receiving chemotherapy may be at greater risk for development of A) gastroesophageal reflux.
B) stomatitis.
C) esophageal varices.
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
Q2) Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by A) maintaining a low-fiber diet.
B) maintaining the current level of activity.
C) fecal disimpaction.
D) increasing fiber in the diet.
Q3) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Q4) The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is A) volvulus.
B) intussusception.
C) adhesions.
D) fecal impaction.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Q1) Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to A) prevent abdominal distention.
B) remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
C) prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion.
D) prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine.
Q2) It is true that biliary cancer
A) is most often cured by surgery.
B) respond well to chemotherapy.
C) are identifiable and treatable when diagnosed early.
D) tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.
Q3) Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for A) respiratory depression.
B) narcotic dependency.
C) sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
D) allergic reaction.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Q1) The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.
A) hemolysis
B) metabolism
C) fibrosis
D) canalicular bilirubin transport
Q2) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes.
B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q3) Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to A) hepatitis vaccine.
B) feces.
C) blood or semen.
D) contaminated food.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Q1) What suppresses the normal secretion of growth hormone?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Somatostatin
C) Somatomedin
D) Amino acids
Q2) Which hormone is regulated by releasing and inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus?
A) Oxytocin
B) Vasopressin
C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
D) Aldosterone
Q3) Cortisol is produced in the zona ________ of the adrenal cortex.
A) glomerulosa
B) reticularis
C) fasciculata
D) medulla
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Q1) Diabetes insipidus is a condition that A) results from inadequate ADH secretion.
B) is characterized by oliguria.
C) is associated with anterior pituitary dysfunction. D) leads to glycosuria.
Q2) A laboratory finding that would help confirm the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is A) hypernatremia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q3) The formation of active vitamin D
A) occurs in the skin.
B) is impaired in renal failure.
C) is dependent on oral intake of vitamin D.
D) is necessary for normal potassium metabolism.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) In the United States,nearly ________ people have diabetes mellitus.
A) 7 million
B) 29.1 million
C) 366 million
D) 176 billion
Q2) In type I diabetes,respiratory compensation may occur through a process of
A) respiratory alkalosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from A) decreased myoinositol transport.
B) elevated Hba c.
C) deficient neuronal insulin receptors.
D) neuronal demyelination.
Q4) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with A) nonketotic hyperosmolality.
B) childhood.
C) autoimmune destruction of the pancreas.
D) ketoacidosis.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Q1) Which patient is at highest risk for severe negative nitrogen balance? (Select all that apply.)
A) Postsurgical patient
B) Postburn patient
C) Posttrauma patient
D) Postsepsis patient
Q2) A patient with a fever of 3°F above normal would be expected to have increased energy expenditure of
A) 3%.
B) 15%.
C) 21%.
D) 50%.
Q3) Acute physiologic stress is associated with A) preferential use of glycogen.
B) catabolism of body proteins.
C) decreased basal metabolic rate.
D) conservation of body energy stores.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) When nerve impulses travel up the ________ side of the cord,the sensations of touch,pressure,and vibration are affected.
A) anterolateral
B) ipsilateral
C) contralateral
D) bilateral
Q2) The pathologic process called hydrocephalus would be manifested by _____ ventricular size.
A) decreased CSF, increased
B) increased CSF, increased
C) decreased CSF, decreased
D) increased CSF, decreased
Q3) The language center in most individuals is located in the A) frontal lobe.
B) left hemisphere.
C) right hemisphere.
D) limbic area.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Q1) ________ occurs when a brainstem impaired patient exhibits a persistent rhythmic or jerky movement in one or both eyes.
A) Nystagmus
B) Dysconjugate movement
C) Ocular palsy
D) Doll's eye
Q2) An example of inappropriate treatment for head trauma would be
A) head elevation.
B) free water restriction.
C) hypoventilation.
D) bed rest.
Q3) Manifestations of acute brain ischemia (Cushing reflex)are due primarily to A) parasympathetic nervous system activation.
B) sympathetic nervous system activation.
C) autoregulation of body systems.
D) loss of brainstem reflexes.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Q1) What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?
A) Epileptic
B) Idiopathic
C) Partial
D) Absence
Q2) Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of
A) multiple sclerosis.
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) myasthenia gravis.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q3) Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?
A) The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.
B) MS is more common in men than women.
C) There is a higher incidence of MS in military veterans.
D) There is a higher rate of MS in African-Americans.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Q1) A vestibular disorder that is manifested by the sensation of motion without actual motion is referred to as
A) equilibrium.
B) nystagmus.
C) vertigo.
D) effusion.
Q2) Expected management of acute otitis media includes
A) surgical removal of debris in the middle ear.
B) placement of ventilation tubes in the tympanic membrane.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) adenoidectomy.
Q3) _________ is one of the most common complications of diabetes.
A) Cataract
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Macular degeneration
D) Glaucoma
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Q1) The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will
A) enhance perception of pain.
B) decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.
C) activate opioid receptors in the CNS.
D) increase secretion of substance P in the spinal cord.
Q2) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
Q3) It is useful to conceptualize pain physiology according to the four stages because each stage provides an opportunity for
A) education.
B) stimulation.
C) intervention.
D) documentation.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Q1) The usual age of onset for schizophrenia in men is A) before puberty.
B) 15 to 25 years.
C) 40 to 65 years.
D) after 65 years.
Q2) Schizophrenia is characterized by
A) generalized anxiety.
B) depression.
C) disorganized thinking.
D) eating disorders.
Q3) When a client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and asks what could have caused the disorder,the statements that could serve as a basis for answering include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Schizophrenia may be related to abnormal cerebral structure.
B) Schizophrenia is inherited as an autosomal recessive gene defect.
C) Schizophrenia often develops in the absence of family psychopathology.
D) Chronic prolonged stress may contribute to development of schizophrenia.
E) Symptoms of schizophrenia may be associated with smoking.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
Q2) Early treatment of panic anxiety disorder focuses on A) the use of sedative agents.
B) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C) dopamine antagonistic medications.
D) the use of respiratory stimulants.
Q3) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Moderate stretching of a muscle at rest results in a(n)
A) more forceful contraction when stimulated.
B) inefficient use of ATP.
C) more rapid onset of muscle fatigue.
D) reduced force of contraction.
Q2) The parathyroid gland functions to facilitate (Select all that apply.)
A) calcium absorption from the gut.
B) bone resorption.
C) calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.
D) vitamin C action.
E) osteoblast production.
Q3) It is true that articular cartilage (Select all that apply.)
A) is comprised of mostly protein.
B) dries out with aging.
C) spreads weight load.
D) needs synovial fluid lubrication.
E) has limited regeneration ability.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) Most muscle strains are caused by A) a tear in an adjoining tendon.
B) abnormal muscle contraction.
C) muscle asymmetry.
D) bleeding into the muscle.
Q2) Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor.The priority action to take is to A) increase the administration his pain medication.
B) initiate action to have the cast split or removed.
C) note the increase in pain in his chart, and recheck the extremity in 30 minutes.
D) elevate the extremity to relieve swelling.
Q3) In older women,osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of A) dietary inadequacies.
B) estrogen deficiency.
C) malabsorption syndrome.
D) inactivity.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) "Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up," asks the client.The nurse's best response is
A) calcium phosphate.
B) urea.
C) uric acid.
D) beta-hydroxybutyric acid.
Q2) It is true that scleroderma involves
A) inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.
B) autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors.
C) infection by beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
D) inflammation caused by antigenic fragments of dead organisms.
Q3) The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves
A) immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.
B) free radicals attaching to the synovial membrane and tunneling into articular cartilage.
C) excessive wear and tear and microtrauma that damage articular cartilage.
D) cysts developing in subchondral bone and creating fissures in articular cartilage.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Q1) Conditions caused by a virus include
A) athlete's foot.
B) boils.
C) warts.
D) impetigo.
Q2) What is the most common,benign form of skin cancer?
A) Basal
B) Squamous
C) Melanoma
D) Actinic keratosis
Q3) Which finding is characteristic of oral candidiasis?
A) Silvery plaques on the skin
B) Itching, oozing rash
C) Thickened, discolored nails
D) Whitish coating on the tongue
Q4) Psoriasis is characterized by
A) silvery scale on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) thickened, discolored nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
Q2) The most common cause of burn injuries in children is
A) house fires.
B) cigarette burns.
C) scalding with hot water.
D) contact with chemical agents.
Q3) The primary aim of burn wound management is to prevent A) trauma to burned tissue.
B) microbial colonization of the wound.
C) the wound from drying out.
D) premature wound closure.
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