Medical Speech-Language Pathology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Speech-Language Pathology focuses on the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of speech, language, cognitive-communication, and swallowing disorders that result from medical conditions such as stroke, traumatic brain injury, neurodegenerative diseases, cancer, and other illnesses affecting the nervous system. The course explores the integration of clinical knowledge with evidence-based practices, interprofessional teamwork, and ethical considerations in healthcare settings. Students will gain understanding of patient populations across the lifespan, the role of the speech-language pathologist within medical teams, the impact of medical interventions on communication and swallowing, and culturally responsive care. Emphasis is placed on practical application through case studies, clinical documentation, and exposure to relevant medical terminology and procedures.
Recommended Textbook
Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
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24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of phonemes are considered "pressure sensitive"?
A)Fricatives, nasals, glides
B)Fricatives, nasals, plosives
C)Glides, nasals, plosive
D)Plosives, fricatives, affricates
E)Alveolars, glides, nasals
Answer: D
Q2) Which structure is a ridge that is caused by a projection of the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube?
A)Torus tubarius
B)Alveolar ridge
C)Median palatine raphe
D)Torus palatinus
E)Passavant's ridge
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a complete cleft of the primary palate?
A)Cleft that is posterior to the incisive foramen
B)Cleft of the alveolus
C)Cleft that includes the lip and alveolus
D)Cleft that includes the entire lip and prolabium
E)Cleft that includes the alveolus and base of the nose
Answer: C
Q2) Which muscle inserts abnormally into the hard palate when there is a complete cleft palate?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Tensor veli palatini
C)Palatoglossus
D)Palatopharyngeus
E)Superior constrictor
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
Q2) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a case in which two individuals who are heterozygous carriers of an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is the probability that the child is a carrier of a single copy of the mutation?
A)50%
B)25%
C)100%
D)0%
E)75%
Q2) What term is used to describe having two different alleles of a gene for a particular trait?
A)Homozygous
B)Phenotypic
C)Autosomal dominant
D)Heterozygous
E)Multifactorial
Q3) Which of the following is not a rule of inheritance that Mendel described?
A)All alleles are dominant
B)Variations of genes are referred to as alleles
C)We get one gene from each parent
D)Alleles segregate from each other at meiosis
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Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is a feeding concern in children with Moebius syndrome?
A)Timing and coordination of sucking and swallowing
B)Achieving and maintaining an adequate lip seal
C)Excessive airflow through an open cleft
D)Nasal regurgitation
E)Airway obstruction
Q2) Around what age is an infant ready to transition from a bottle to a cup?
A)4 to 6 months
B)8 to 9 months
C)10 to 12 months
D)12 to 13 months
E)15 to 18 months
Q3) What is the most effective feeding positioning to decrease nasopharyngeal regurgitation during feeding?
A)Supine
B)Semi-reclined
C)Fully reclined
D)Upright
E)Prone
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common phonemic substitutions used by children who have an unrepaired cleft palate?
A)Glides for liquids
B)Nasals for orals
C)Glottal stops for plosive stops
D)b and c
E)a, b, and c
Q2) Which of the following will increase the child's motivation to learn and use verbal language?
A)Gestures, which are effective in communicating
B)The family responding to gestures and grunts
C)An older sibling speaking for the child
D)The family not responding to gestures and grunts
E)Intelligibility of speech being poor
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which compensatory production for velopharyngeal insufficiency is often co-articulated with /b/?
A)Pharyngeal fricative
B)Pharyngeal plosive
C)Palatal dorsal production
D)Nasal fricative
E)Glottal stop
Q2) Short utterance length is usually associated with which of the following?
A)Hypernasality
B)Hyponasality
C)Nasal air emission
D)Cul-de-sac resonance
E)Nasal rustle
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the production or pressure-sensitive sounds?
A)Hyponasality
B)Hypernasality
C)Nasal air emission
D)Mixed resonance
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Eustachian tube connects which of the following?
A)Nasopharynx to the oropharynx
B)Oropharynx to the hypopharynx
C)Oral cavity to the nasal cavity
D)Middle ear to the nasopharynx
E)Middle ear to the oropharynx
Q2) Which of the following has a potential to have a negative effect on resonance?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Frenulectomy
D)Glossectomy
E)Mandibular advancement
Q3) Which of the following is not used as a treatment for upper airway obstruction in children?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Tracheostomy
D)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
E)CPAP
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Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered an obligatory distortion due to a Class III malocclusion?
A)Frontal lisp
B)Lateral lisp
C)Pharyngeal fricative
D)Glottal stop
E)Velar fricative
Q2) Which of the following occurs when one or more maxillary teeth fail to occlude with the opposing mandibular teeth?
A)Protruding maxilla
B)Crossbite
C)Posterior Crossbite
D)Open Bite
E)Ectopic Teeth
Q3) Which of the following is true about the effect of missing teeth on speech?
A)There is never an effect on speech.
B)There is always an effect on speech.
C)The effect on speech depends on the size of the oral cavity.
D)Missing incisors will always cause a frontal lisp.
E)Missing teeth only cause problems with sibilant sounds.
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Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true about adults with clefts, compared to their unaffected peers?
A)They tend to marry later.
B)They have higher levels of depression.
C)They tend to end their education earlier.
D)They make less money in their jobs.
E)All of the above
Q2) Which syndrome is not typically associated with intellectual impairment relative to unaffected peers?
A)Apert's syndrome
B)Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Velocardofacial syndrome
E)Fetal alcohol syndrome
Q3) Which of the following is true about children and teens with cleft lip and palate, compared to their unaffected peers?
A)They have a characteristic personality type.
B)They are at greater risk of developing psychopathology.
C)They are more aggressive with peers.
D)They have more difficulty with peer relationships.
E)All of the above
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which series of numbers is best to use when testing for hyponasality?
A)50s
B)60s
C)70s
D)80s
E)90s
Q2) When voiced plosives sound closer to their nasal cognates m/b, n/d, and /g), what does this suggest?
A)Phoneme-specific nasality
B)A small velopharyngeal opening
C)Compensatory productions
D)Obligatory distortions
E)Hyponasality
Q3) When evaluating nasal emission, the speech sample should have many of which type of phonemes?
A)High vowels
B)Back vowels
C)Voiceless consonants
D)Voice consonants
E)Plosives
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Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a white line in the middle of the velum indicate?
A)An overt submucous cleft
B)An occult submucous cleft
C)An inadequate cleft palate repair
D)A normal velum
E)Velar diastasis
Q2) When do tonsils create a concern for speech production?
A)When they extend beyond the faucial pillars
B)When they are absent
C)When they are asymmetrical
D)When they are size 2 on the rating scale
E)When they are visible
Q3) What is the typical cause of asymmetrical movement of the velum during phonation?
A)Velar paralysis or paresis
B)A submucous cleft
C)Adenoid hypertrophy
D)Velopharyngeal hypotonia
E)Anterior attachment of the levator muscle
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Page 14
Chapter 14: Nasometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) High vowels have more nasal resonance than low vowels due to which of the following?
A)Shape of the pharynx
B)Frequency of the vowel
C)Greater incidence of velopharyngeal insufficiency
D)Tongue position in the oral cavity
E)Larger oral cavity size
Q2) What cannot be assessed through nasometry?
A)Resonance
B)Upper airway obstruction during speech
C)Changes in resonance following surgery
D)Phoneme-specific nasal emission
E)Intraoral air pressure
Q3) Which of the following is not true about interpretation of nasalance?
A)Normal oral resonance is typically under 20 percentage points.
B)If lingual-alveolars and bilabials are significantly higher than velars, this could be due to an oronasal fistula.
C)Articulation errors can affect the nasalance score.
D)The higher the contour is on the screen, the more hyponasality to expect.
E)The nasalance score can be in the normal range with mild nasal emission.
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Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the orifice equation use to calculate minimal cross-sectional area of the velopharyngeal port?
A)Simultaneous measures of the differential pressure across the orifice and rate of airflow
B)The correction factor h
C)Differential pressure across the orifice divided by the rate of airflow
D)The increase in airflow and increase in air pressure across the orifice
E)The pressure drop across the orifice and increase in oral airflow
Q2) Which of the following cannot be determined by aerodynamic methods?
A)Timing aspects of velopharyngeal function
B)Extent of nasal emission
C)Patency of the nasal airways during breathing
D)Estimates velopharyngeal orifice size
E)Severity of hypernasality
Q3) How is the rate of nasal airflow measured?
A)mm H<sub>2</sub>O
B)cm H<sub>2</sub>O
C)L/s
D)mm/s
E)cm/s
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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not easily viewed through videofluoroscopy?
A)Relationship between the posterior pharyngeal wall and velum
B)Length of the velum and its upward movement
C)Pharyngeal flap or sphincter pharyngoplasty
D)Posterior wall of the pharynx during closure
E)Movement of the tongue
Q2) On the base view, a black horizontal line during closure indicates which of the following?
A)Passavant's ridge
B)Adenoid pad
C)Coronal pattern
D)Sagittal pattern
E)Circular pattern
Q3) Which view is done to view the lateral pharyngeal walls?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disadvantage of nasopharyngoscopy is that it does not allow the examiner to see which of the following?
A)Adenoid tissue
B)Nasal surface of velum
C)Length of the posterior pharyngeal wall
D)Oronasal fistula
E)Vocal cords
Q2) Which of the following should not be done prior to inserting the scope?
A)Have the child blow his nose
B)Check the image on the camera
C)Put lidocaine gel on the scope
D)Put the child in a supine position
E)Spray the nose with a decongestant
Q3) How should a scope be stored?
A)Hanging from a wall in a cabinet
B)In the storage case provided by the manufacturer
C)In a disinfected plastic case
D)In a cloth bag to allow good ventilation
E)In a sterilized metal box
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18
Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence VPI
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of cleft palate and surgical repair often demonstrate which of the following?
A)Midface retrusion
B)Class III malocclusion
C)Class II malocclusion
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q2) When is a cheiloplasty usually performed?
A)Right after birth
B)3 to 4 weeks
C)5 to 6 weeks
D)10 to 12 weeks
E)16 to 18 weeks
Q3) Which of the following is not a major factor that determines the success of a pharyngeal flap in correction of VPI?
A)Vertical position of the flap in the nasopharynx
B)Extent of lateral pharyngeal wall movement
C)Use of compensatory productions
D)Closure pattern of the lateral pharyngeal wall movement
E)Width of the flap
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an alveolar cleft is left untreated, what can be the result?
A)Loss of the permanent lateral incisor
B)Loss of the central incisor
C)Loss of the canine cuspid) tooth
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q2) Children with clefts may initially have a fairly normal occlusal relationship, but they usually develop which type of occlusion with growth?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Open bite
E)Occlusal cant
Q3) Which of the following is not addressed routinely by either the cheiloplasty or the palatoplasty?
A)Velum
B)Oronasal fistula
C)Philtral ridges
D)Alveolus
E)Incisive foramen
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is it not appropriate to use prosthetic management?
A)For patients with a history of cleft who have a delay for surgery due to medical issues
B)For patients who have undergone a successful cleft repair without complications or residual effects
C)For patients with persistent velopharyngeal insufficiency or incompetence after unsuccessful surgeries
D)For patients with other structural disorders not related to cleft palate
E)For patients who have cancer affecting the maxilla or velum
Q2) What is the most appropriate prosthetic choice for the patient who has had ablative surgery for oral cancer?
A)Palatal lift
B)Head gear
C)Speech bulb obturator
D)Quad helix device
E)Dentures
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21
Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What speech sound should be inserted between the consonant and the vowel when trying to eliminate glottal stops?
A)/m/
B)/h/
C)/i/
D)/n/
E)/s/
Q2) Which of the following is often co-articulated with an oral placement?
A)Pharyngeal fricative
B)Pharyngeal plosive
C)Glottal stop
D)Palatal-dorsal production
E)Velar fricative
Q3) Which of the following can be corrected with speech therapy when there is VPI?
A)Short utterance length
B)Placement errors
C)Nasal grimace
D)Hypernasality
E)Weak consonants
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Page 22
Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) The team's primary contact person for the family is usually which of the following?
A)Primary care physician
B)Pediatrician
C)Family doctor
D)Managing surgeon
E)Team coordinator
Q2) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
Q3) Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?
A)Plastic surgeon, ENT, pedodontist
B)Surgeon, dental professional, speech-language pathologist
C)Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist
D)Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist
E)Dental professional, orthodontist, plastic surgeon
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.
B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.
C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.
D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.
E)c and d
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts varies with ethnic background.
B)The prevalence of clefts varies with socioeconomic status.
C)The prevalence of clefts is not affected by malnutrition.
D)a and b
E)b and c
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24
Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal emission is most audible on which of the following sounds?
A)Nasal sounds
B)Voiceless consonants
C)Vowels
D)Voiced continuents
E)Voiced plosives
Q2) Which syndrome is most likely to include hearing loss?
A)Apert syndrome
B)Treacher Collins syndrome
C)Velocardiofacial syndrome
D)Down syndrome
E)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
Q3) Upon examination, the child demonstrates the use of nasal phonemes and glottal stops for all speech sounds.What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A)A trial period of speech therapy
B)A prosthetic device on a trial basis
C)Referral to an ENT for evaluation
D)Referral to a cleft palate team
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