Medical Sciences Fundamentals
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Sciences Fundamentals provides an essential overview of the biological and physiological principles that underpin human health and disease. This course introduces students to fundamental topics including cell and tissue structure, organ systems, genetics, metabolism, and immunology. Emphasis is placed on understanding the normal functions of the human body, how these are disrupted in disease, and the foundational knowledge necessary for further study in clinical and biomedical sciences. Through integrated lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students develop a strong scientific base for future healthcare or research careers.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by David Shier
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maintenance of a steady body temperature in the face of fluctuating environmental conditions illustrates homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The diaphragm separates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Magnetic resonance imaging might be used to
A) distinguish between normal and cancerous tissue.
B) examine an injured knee.
C) obtain a sectional view of the brain.
D) do all of the above.
Answer: D
Q4) The branch of science that deals with the structure of human body parts is called _____.
Answer: anatomy
Q5) The term ______ refers to an increase in body size without overall shape change.
Answer: growth
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conformation is
A) the three-dimensional shape of a molecule, such as a protein.
B) the energy held in the bonds of an organic molecule, such as a protein.
C) the ability of DNA to copy itself.
D) the amino acid sequence (primary structure) of a protein.
Answer: A
Q2) The difference in hydrogen ion concentration between solutions with pH 4 and pH 5 is
A) twofold.
B) fivefold.
C) tenfold.
D) twentyfold.
Answer: C
Q3) Table sugar breaking down into glucose and fructose is a(n) _______ reaction.
A) synthesis
B) hydrolysis
C) acid-base
D) exchange reaction
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell division consists of mitosis (karyokinesis) and cell differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) All cell types can divide a limitless number of times.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The cell membrane
A) maintains the integrity of the cell.
B) controls the entry and exit of various substances.
C) provides a barrier to water-soluble substances.
D) has all of the above characteristics.
Answer: D
Q4) Certain white blood cells take in bacterial cells by phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A cell undergoing ________ loses its shape, forms bubble, and falls apart.
Answer: apoptosis
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its _________.
Q2) How many codons specify the twenty types of amino acids?
A) 61
B) 23
C) 46
D) 3
Q3) A molecule that is common to carbohydrate and lipid metabolic pathways and connects these two pathways metabolically is A) glucose.
B) pyruvic acid.
C) acetyl coenzyme A.
D) glycogen.
Q4) Codons are part of A) mRNA.
B) tRNA.
C) rRNA.
D) proteins.
Q5) Transcription yields protein and translation produces RNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissues are groups of cells that have a common overall function, yet are distinctive in their characteristic cell types and the molecules that the cells produce.
A)True
B)False
Q2) About 90% of all cancers originate from A) epithelium.
B) connective tissue.
C) muscle tissue.
D) nervous tissue.
Q3) Muscle cells with more than one nucleus are
A) smooth muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells.
B) cardiac muscle cells and smooth muscle cells.
C) skeletal muscle cells only.
D) smooth muscle cells only.
Q4) Cells of muscle tissue are called ______ _______.
Q5) The intervertebral discs that separate parts of the backbone are composed of
Q6) The inner linings of most organs of the digestive system are composed of ______
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arrector pili muscle is attached to A) the nail bed.
B) a sebaceous gland.
C) the hypodermis.
D) a hair follicle.
Q2) In healthy skin, the production of epidermal cells is closely balanced with the loss of skin cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The dermis is very flat compared to the epidermis, which has ridges projecting inward and elevations called papillae.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The subcutaneous layer consists of
A) epithelial tissue.
B) areolar and adipose tissue.
C) epithelial tissue and areolar tissue.
D) adipose tissue and skeletal muscle tissue.
Q5) Two or more types of tissue functioning together constitute a(n) ___________.
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Q6) ____________ is the pigment produced by melanocytes.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than estrogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A compound fracture
A) incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place.
B) is caused by a disease.
C) exposes the broken bone to the outside.
D) completely breaks the bone in more than one place.
Q3) The ilium is part of the pelvic girdle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called ______.
Q5) Intervertebral discs are formed of skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The two pubic bones are connected at a joint called the pubic ____________.
Q7) Bone-forming cells are called ______.
Q8) The two divisions of the skeleton are called axial and ________.
Q9) The shoulder is part of the _________ girdle.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoarthritis is caused by a bacterial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ball-and-socket joint is also called an ellipsoidal joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Moving a part away from the midline is abduction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A gomphosis is a ______ joint.
A) fibrous
B) cartilagenous
C) synovial
D) synchondrosis
Q5) A joint capsule is reinforced by
A) tendons binding articular ends of bones together.
B) articular cartilage cushioning ends of bones.
C) ligaments binding articular ends of bones together.
D) hyaline cartilage providing strength to the capsule walls.
Q6) The movement of a limb around an axis is ______.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A shift in metabolism that breaks down pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called
A) aerobic threshold.
B) lactic acid threshold.
C) pyruvic acid threshold.
D) glycogenic threshold.
Q2) The combining of a series of twitches to produce a more forceful contraction is called ______.
Q3) Muscle fibers are basically a collection of A) muscles.
B) sarcomeres.
C) connective tissue fibers.
D) synapses.
Q4) ATP is necessary for muscle relaxation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The enzyme ATPase occurs in the globular portion of myosin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In order to stimulate skeletal muscle fibers, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ______.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clusters of neuron cell bodies in the PNS are called _____.
A) neuromas
B) axons
C) ganglia
D) nuclei
Q2) Presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitters by ______________.
A) endocytosis.
B) exocytosis.
C) diffusion.
D) active transport.
Q3) Myelin
A) is released from a neuron and travels to another neuron.
B) consists of layers of lipids and proteins that wrap around an axon.
C) is produced in response to bacterial infection.
D) is a form of chromatophilic substance that fills Schwann cells.
Q4) If a neurotransmitter hyperpolarizes a cell membrane and an action potential is less likely, the change is called ______ ______ ______.
Q5) Myelin is composed largely of carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Division of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gray matter of the spinal cord is mostly composed of A) interneurons.
B) cerebrospinal fluid.
C) axons.
D) myelin.
Q2) In a subdural hematoma resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the
A) dura mater and skull.
B) dura mater and arachnoid mater.
C) pia mater and brain.
D) arachnoid mater and brain.
Q3) The subarachnoid space within the meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The central nervous system (CNS) consists of
A) spinal and cranial nerves.
B) the brain and spinal cord.
C) the cerebrum and cerebellum.
D) nerves in the upper and lower limbs.
Q5) The middle layer of the meninges is the __________ mater.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?
A) Sweet
B) Salty
C) Pungent
D) Sour
Q2) The process by which the brain causes a sensation to seem to come from the stimulated receptors is called _____________ .
Q3) If you were a physician evaluating a young person who has conductive deafness, which of the following would you consider in your differential diagnosis?
A) A torn tympanic membrane
B) A brain tumor
C) Damage to the auditory nerve
D) Use of the antibiotic drug streptomycin
Q4) Floaters are bowel movements that float due to a fatty diet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The transparent, anterior portion of the eye's outer tunic is called the _________ .
Q6) The ________ _________ muscle rotates the eye away from the midline.
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Norepinephrine and epinephrine are amines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pheromones differ from hormones in that
A) they are only found in plants and fungi.
B) they act only within an individual.
C) they are transmitted between members of the same species.
D) they are transmitted between members of different species.
Q3) With age,
A) levels of GH increase but of ADH decrease.
B) levels of GH decrease but of ADH increase.
C) levels of GH and ADH both decrease.
D) levels of GH and ADH both increase.
Q4) Adenylate cyclase causes ATP molecules to become ______ _______ molecules.
Q5) As a result of the general stress response, blood concentrations of epinephrine
A) rise and cortisol fall.
B) fall and cortisol rise.
C) and cortisol rise.
D) and cortisol fall.
Q6) A hormone whose effects last a long time has a ____ half-life.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) In leukemia
A) the blood has too many immature leukocytes.
B) the person has lowered resistance to infection.
C) the blood has too few platelets
D) all of the above.
Q2) A person with type AB blood can successfully receive blood from a person with type ___________ blood.
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) all of the above
Q3) Which plasma protein is accurately described?
A) Albumin-blood clot formation
B) Gamma globulin-maintaining blood osmotic pressure
C) Fibrinogen-transport of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins
D) Beta globulins-transport of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins
Q4) The clumping of red blood cells that occurs when transfused blood is of an incompatible type is called ______________ .
Q5) Normally the most common type of leukocyte in a blood sample is the
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that
A) is released from certain muscle cells of the heart.
B) inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
C) lowers blood pressure.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the
A) external jugular vein.
B) subclavian vein.
C) superior vena cava.
D) cephalic vein.
Q3) Which of the following correctly matches the valve to its function?
A) Tricuspid valve-permits one-way blood flow from the right to the left atrium
B) Pulmonary valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta
C) Mitral valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle
D) Aortic valve-permits one-way blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Innate defenses are
A) fast and nonspecific.
B) slow and nonspecific.
C) fast and specific.
D) slow and specific.
Q2) A newborn is protected against certain digestive and respiratory infections thanks to IgA from the mother's A) milk.
B) blood.
C) intestine.
D) placenta.
Q3) Factors that contribute to the prevalence of peanut allergy in the U.S. include the fact that
A) peanut antigens are in infant formula.
B) peanuts lack allergens.
C) peanut allergens are stopped and destroyed in the stomach, causing cramps.
D) dry roasting activates the responsible allergens.
Q4) ______ are masses of partially encapsulated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx.
Q5) Lymph is ______ ______ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.
Q6) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ______.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone secretin
A) converts trypsinogen to trypsin.
B) activates chymotrypsin.
C) stimulates release of pancreatic juice.
D) inhibits the action of pancreatic lipase.
Q2) The greater omentum is composed of
A) the peritoneal membrane.
B) the pericardial membrane.
C) the pleural membrane.
D) the hiatal membrane.
Q3) Which of the following is true about bile?
A) Cholecystokinin stimulates its production.
B) Secretin stimulates release of bile into the duodenum.
C) It contains concentrated enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
D) Bile is produced by the liver.
Q4) Fatty foods stay in the stomach longer than protein or carbohydrate foods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ______ ions help to regulate the pH of saliva.
Q6) The passageway through the digestive tube is called the _____.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess potassium
A) is deposited in the blood.
B) causes brittle bones.
C) disrupts body pH.
D) is excreted in urine.
Q2) Fructose, glucose, and galactose are ___________.
Q3) Lipids include
A) fats.
B) oils.
C) cholesterol.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Gram for gram, carbohydrate provides about twice as much energy as protein.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The B vitamins are water insoluble.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The most common dietary lipids are fats called ______.
Q7) The instrument that measures the caloric content of a food sample is a(n) ______ ______.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vocal cords are in the A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) trachea.
D) oral cavity.
Q2) Cancer that originates in the lungs is most likely to begin in A) epithelial cells.
B) smooth muscle cells.
C) dense connective tissue cells.
D) hyaline cartilage cells.
Q3) The force that moves air into the lungs during inspiration comes from the A) diaphragm.
B) external intercostal muscles.
C) abdominal wall muscles.
D) atmospheric pressure.
Q4) Exposure to secondhand smoke can cause or increase risk of A) high altitude sickness and sleep apnea.
B) heart disease, lung cancer, and low birth weight.
C) pneumonia and tuberculosis.
D) sarcoidosis, multiple sclerosis, and vasculitis
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would increase the rate of glomerular filtration?
A) Decreased blood pressure
B) Increased blood pressure
C) A constricted afferent arteriole
D) A dilated efferent arteriole
Q2) The layers of a ureter are
A) outer fibrous coat, middle muscular coat, inner mucous coat.
B) inner fibrous coat, middle muscular coat, outer mucous coat.
C) inner muscular coat, middle fibrous coat, outer inner mucous coat.
D) inner vascular coat, middle neural coat, outer mucous coat.
Q3) Kidney cells die as early as age
A) 20.
B) 30.
C) 40.
D) 50.
Q4) A by-product of amino acid catabolism in the liver is
A) uric acid.
B) urea.
C) ammonia.
D) water.
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Based Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parts of an amino acid that are important in the protein buffer system are the
A) amino and R groups.
B) amino and carboxyl groups.
C) monocarbonate and bicarbonate groups.
D) monohydrogen phosphate and dihydrogen phosphate groups.
Q2) Water intoxication causes
A) low blood sodium.
B) high blood sodium.
C) low blood potassium.
D) abnormal accumulation of extracellular fluid.
Q3) The thirst center is located in the A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) midbrain.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q4) The thirst mechanism is usually not triggered until the volume of the body water has been decreased by 5-10%.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in the level of FSH at approximately day 14 causes ovulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Possible problems from donating eggs include
A) psychological difficulties from wondering about the fate of the eggs.
B) infertility.
C) ovary scarring.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Oral contraceptives may cause
A) increased skin pigmentation.
B) breast tenderness.
C) fluid retention.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Which of the following is (are) forms of contraception?
A) Rhythm method
B) Chemical barriers
C) Intrauterine device
D) All of the above
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an adult, a solid, cordlike structure called the ______ ______ represents the former umbilical vein.
Q2) An enzyme that sperm secretes that is important for egg penetration is
A) hyaluronidase
B) collagenase
C) peptidase
D) acetylcholinesterase
Q3) The major body parts derived from endoderm are the epithelial lining of A) the digestive tract.
B) the respiratory tract.
C) the urinary bladder.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Which of the following is (are) true in regard to the fetal stage of development?
A) It begins 8 weeks after fertilization.
B) The organ systems are mostly formed, although immature.
C) The head is disproportionately large compared to the rest of the body at the beginning of the stage.
D) All of the above
Q5) The process of growing old is called _____.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genotypes and phenotypes that result from the cross of Aa and Aa (A = normal pigmentation and a = albinism) are
A) phenotypes-75% normal and 25% albino; genotypes-25% homozygous dominant and 50% heterozygous and 25% homozygous recessive.
B) phenotypes-50% normal and 50% albino; genotypes-all homozygous recessive.
C) phenotypes-50% normal and 50% albino; genotypes-50% homozygous recessive and 50% homozygous dominant.
D) phenotypes-25% normal and 75% albino; genotypes-25% homozygous dominant and 50% heterozygous and 25% homozygous recessive.
Q2) A multifactorial trait is determined by
A) only environmental factors.
B) only by genetic factors.
C) neither genetic nor environmental factors.
D) one or more genes and the environment.
Q3) The nuances of eye color arise from
A) the numbers of rods and cones in the retina.
B) the way pigments are deposited in the iris.
C) how much vitamin A is in a person's diet.
D) multiple alleles of at least 10 genes.
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Page 26