

Medical Sciences Foundations
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Medical Sciences Foundations provides an essential overview of the fundamental concepts underpinning human health and disease. The course covers the basic principles of anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, and immunology, with a focus on how these sciences interrelate within the context of medical practice. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory work, students develop a comprehensive understanding of normal biological function and the mechanisms underlying common medical conditions, laying the groundwork for advanced study in clinical medicine and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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29 Chapters
3928 Verified Questions
3928 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2044

Page 2

Chapter 1: The Sciences of Anatomy and Physiology
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40689
Sample Questions
Q1) An inguinal hernia is in the region of the A)umbilicus.
B)groin.
C)calf.
D)thigh.
E)shoulder.
Answer: B
Q2) Homeostasis refers to an organism's ability to regulate its internal environment despite changes in the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Because the body has been the same for thousands of years,anatomy is considered a static classification system instead of a dynamic science.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The antecubital region is ______ to the brachial region. Answer: distal
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Chapter 2: Atoms,Ions,and Molecules
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/136799
Sample Questions
Q1) The molecular formula of chlorine gas is Cl<sub>2</sub>.One molecule of this gas would be attracted to another by
A)polar covalent bonds.
B)van der Waals forces.
C)ionic bonds.
D)hydrogen bonds.
E)intramolecular forces.
Answer: B
Q2) Any molecule that contains a polar bond within it is a polar molecule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) When diagramming an atom,how many electrons can fit in each of the shells beyond the innermost shell
A)Two
B)Six
C)Eight
D)Ten
Answer: C
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Energy,Chemical Reactions,and Cellular
Respiration
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/136800
Sample Questions
Q1) The indirect method of ATP production involves coenzymes such as FAD and is referred to as _________ phosphorylation.
Answer: oxidative
Q2) Lactose intolerance is caused by the lack of the enzyme lactase,which is normally found in the
A)lumen of the stomach.
B)inside of cells of the liver and gall bladder.
C)membranes of cells in the small intestine.
D)inside of cells in the large intestine.
E)endothelium of capillaries in the large intestine.
Answer: C
Q3) Allosteric inhibitors are also called noncompetitive inhibitors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The less acidic (more basic)the environment is,the more efficient an enzyme will be.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Biology of the Cell
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/136801
Sample Questions
Q1) When fertilization occurs,the sperm recognizes the egg by
A)the chemical messages the egg secretes into the interstitial space.
B)the unique glycocalyx on the egg's surface.
C)the much larger relative size of the egg.
D)the strong acidity of the egg's environment.
Q2) Body cells communicate with immune system cells through direct contact involving the sugary coatings on the cells' surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pinocytosis is the process in which the cell
A)internalizes ("drinks")a droplet of interstitial fluid.
B)internalizes ("eats")a large solid particle.
C)splits ("pinches")off a small part of itself to secrete into the extracellular space.
D)pumps small solutes against their concentration gradient and out of the cell.
Q4) A single mRNA molecule can be read by more than one ribosome simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____________ is the division of the cytoplasm during cell division.
Q6) The technical term for "cellular drinking" is _______________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Tissue Organization
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the body would you expect to find a perichondrium
A)Covering bones
B)Lining kidney tubules
C)Covering the heart
D)Inside of the brain
E)Covering cartilage
Q2) All muscle tissue develops from mesoderm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you were to rub your finger over the surface of your face,you would notice that the skin is oily.What makes up the oil
A)Waste material from cellular metabolism
B)Waste material (bilirubin)from dead red blood cells
C)Ruptured cells from sebaceous glands
D)Extracellular fluid not drained by the lymphatic system
E)Plasma leakage from damaged blood vessels
Q4) Clusters of cells that make up the secretory portion of an exocrine gland are known as __________.
Q5) Describe three functions of connective tissue and provide an example for each.
Q6) What is a gland

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collagen fibers impart tensile strength to our skin while ______ fibers allow for some stretch and contraction in the dermis during movement.
Q2) Hair production involves a specialized type of keratinization that occurs in the hair
Q3) During the fetal period,sebum from the sebaceous glands mixes with the cells of the sloughed off periderm to form the vernix caseosa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hypodermis is rich in adipose,and thus its functions include
A)frequent regeneration,structural support,and defense against infection.
B)maintenance of boundaries and sensation of stimuli.
C)water regulation and vitamin synthesis.
D)organ protection,energy storage,and thermal insulation.
Q5) Which is the actively growing part of the nail
A)Free edge
B)Nail root
C)Nail bed
D)Nail folds
E)Nail matrix
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System: Bone Structure and Function
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neither short nor flat bones contain a medullary cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The spongy bone found within a flat bone is called _________.
Q3) This figure illustrates the microscopic anatomy of spongy bone.Which is a mature bone cell
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q4) The epiphyseal plates in the _________ are the last ones in the body to ossify.
A)femur
B)humerus
C)clavicle
D)radius
E)tibia
Q5) The growth patterns of cartilage include interstitial growth (from within)and _________ growth (from without).
Q6) Osteons are also called _________ systems.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular
Skeleton
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194 Verified Questions
194 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface
A)Head
B)Epicondyle
C)Condyle
D)Facet
E)Trochlea
Q2) The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the
A)apex of the patella.
B)medial and lateral condyles of the femur.
C)medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur.
D)head of the fibula.
E)greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.
Q3) The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body.
A)vertebral foramina
B)intervertebral foramina
C)vertebral canals
D)articular facets
E)transverse foramina
Q4) The roof of the cranium is called the _________,or skullcap.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal System: Articulations
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were to reach out your hand to receive a set of keys from someone,what movements of your forearm and hand would be involved
A)Pronation and adduction
B)Supination and extension
C)Depression and flexion
D)Protraction and rotation
E)Eversion and abduction
Q2) Which ligament is not associated with the glenohumeral joint
A)Coracoacromial ligament
B)Coracohumeral ligament
C)Glenohumeral ligament
D)Humeral collateral ligament
Q3) The connection between a tooth and jaw bone is an example of a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Articular cartilage is composed of hyaline cartilage that lacks a perichondrium.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The lining of an articular capsule is called the ___________ membrane.
Q6) A common knee injury is a torn ACL,which stands for anterior ________ ligament.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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153 Verified Questions
153 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/136807
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the reasons you might struggle to lift a heavy object with your arm fully extended is because
A)in extension,the proximity of Z discs to thick filaments restricts the sliding movement within sarcomeres.
B)full extension results in decreased overlap between thick and thin filaments in the muscle.
C)in that posture,some myosin heads overlap actin in the wrong orientation and tug actin in the wrong direction.
D)motor neurons cannot release as much ACh in that posture.
Q2) The floor of the pelvic cavity includes skeletal muscles that function to support organs in that cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the ______________.
Q4) The embryonic-like cells that remain in adult skeletal muscle tissue are known as satellite cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An increase in the size of a muscle fiber is called _________________.
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Chapter 11: Muscular System: Axial and Appendicular
Muscles
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183 Verified Questions
183 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many of the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm work to _______ the wrist,and they have their origin on the _______ epicondyle of the humerus.
A)flex,lateral
B)flex,medial.
C)extend,lateral,
D)extend,lateral
Q2) The ending "glossus" on the name of a muscle refers to A)the tongue.
B)mastication.
C)the neck.
D)swallowing.
E)the jaw.
Q3) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression.What muscle does number 4 indicate
A)Zygomaticus major
B)Risorius
C)Masseter
D)Buccinator
E)Orbicularis oris

Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue
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158 Verified Questions
158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nerve impulse travels fastest along ________ axons of ______ diameter.
A)myelinated,small
B)unmyelinated,small
C)myelinated,large
D)unmyelinated,large
Q2) Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus
A)Dendrite
B)Axon
C)Soma
D)Axon hillock
E)Telodendrion
Q3) In order to trigger the release of neurotransmitter from a neuron terminal,calcium ions
A)exit the synaptic knob through diffusion.
B)bind to proteins on the surface of synaptic vesicles.
C)penetrate the synaptic vesicles and bind to molecules of neurotransmitter.
D)bind to ion channels on the neuron membrane and cause them to open for the transmitter.
Q4) Spinal nerves extend from the spinal cord,whereas ________ nerves extend from the brain.
14
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Chapter 13: Nervous System: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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148 Verified Questions
148 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An arch of white matter that connects the hippocampus to structures in the diencephalon is the ________.
Q2) The portion of the adult brain that includes the cerebral peduncles,superior colliculi,and inferior colliculi is derived from which secondary brain vesicle
A)Telencephalon
B)Diencephalon
C)Myelencephalon
D)Metencephalon
E)Mesencephalon
Q3) The lateral sulcus is superior to the
A)occipital lobe.
B)temporal lobe
C)insula
D)parietal lobe
E)frontal lobe
Q4) The gray matter of the brain houses motor neuron and interneuron cell bodies,dendrites,telodendria,and unmyelinated axons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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130 Verified Questions
130 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/136811
Sample Questions
Q1) This structure contains unmyelinated axons and serves as a communication route between the right and left sides of the gray matter in the spinal cord.
A)Gray commissure
B)White commissure
C)Lateral commissure
D)Posterior commissure
E)Denticulate ligaments
Q2) The spinal cord part with the largest diameter is the ___________ part.
A)thoracic
B)cervical
C)lumbar
D)sacral
E)coccygeal
Q3) The cervical plexus is formed by the
A)posterior rami of spinal nerves C2-C6.
B)posterior rami of spinal nerves C4-C8.
C)anterior rami of spinal nerves C1-C4.
D)anterior rami of spinal nerves C3-C7.
E)rami communicantes of spinal nerves C1-C7.
Q4) A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is a ___________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement accurately compares the motor systems of the somatic nervous system (SNS)and autonomic nervous system (ANS)
A)Both the SNS and the ANS house their motor neurons in ganglia.
B)The SNS does not have ganglia for its motor neurons but the ANS does.
C)The ANS does not have ganglia for its motor neurons but the SNS does.
D)Neither the SNS nor the ANS houses its motor neurons in ganglia.
Q2) Neuronal divergence occurs when axons from one preganglionic cell synapse on numerous ganglionic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Activation of parasympathetic fibers in pelvic splanchnic nerves leads to
A)inhibition of urinary bladder contractions.
B)erection of the male penis and female clitoris.
C)decreased secretions in the digestive tract.
D)an increase in the heart rate.
E)decreased secretion of adrenaline from the adrenal glands.
Q4) Which type of innervation causes pupil dilation
A)Parasympathetic
B)Sympathetic
Q5) The axons that release norepinephrine are called _________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nervous System: Senses
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/181042
Sample Questions
Q1) A photopsin is a protein
A)of a photopigment within cone photoreceptors.
B)of a photopigment within rod photoreceptors.
C)that is derived from Vitamin
D)that allows ions to flow into rod and cone photoreceptors.
Q2) If you were to cut a cross section of the retina and examine it under a microscope,what would be the order of features from the choroid to the posterior cavity
A: Rods and cones
B: Ganglionic axons progressing to the optic nerve
C: Bipolar cells
D: Ganglion cells' bodies
E: Pigmented retina
A)a,b,c,d,e
B)e,a,c,d,b
C)c,a,e,d,b
D)d,e,a,b,c
E)e,d,c,b,a
Q3) A receptor that is wrapped in connective tissue is referred to as being __________.Bloom's: Remember
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Endocrine System
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40673
Sample Questions
Q1) Glucagon works by
A)binding to hormone response elements on DNA and stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
B)binding to hormone response elements on DNA and stimulating glycogenesis.
C)activating second messengers and stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
D)activating second messengers and stimulating glycogenesis.
Q2) The hormones and neurotransmitters released by the endocrine and nervous systems are chemical substances referred to as _________.
Q3) Which is not true about the thyroid gland
A)It requires iodine to synthesize thyroid hormone.
B)It is located on the anterior surface of the trachea,inferior to the thyroid cartilage.
C)It has two lobes connected by a central portion called the commissure.
D)It secretes thyroid hormone in response to stimulation by TSH.
E)An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called a goiter.
Q4) Lipophilic hormones bind to ___________ receptors of target cells.
A)intracellular
B)membrane-bound
Q5) Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete the hormone _________.
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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132 Verified Questions
132 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/181043
Sample Questions
Q1) In the centrifuged sample of blood illustrated,number 2 indicates A)erythrocytes.
B)plasma.
C)leukocytes.
D)platelets.
E)leukocytes and platelets.
Q2) _______________ is a growth factor that stimulates both the production of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow and the subsequent formation of platelets.
Q3) In fetal development,hemocytoblasts begin to colonize red mone marrow at approximately
A)10 days.
B)10 weeks.
C)5 months.
D)8 months.
Q4) Oxygen-poor blood is _________ in color.
A)bright red
B)dark red
C)light blue
D)dark blue
Q5) The production of leukocytes is called _______________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System: Heart
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138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The middle layer of the heart wall that is made of cardiac muscle tissue is the ________________.
Q2) The left and right coronary arteries
A)are interconnected with several high-volume anastomoses allowing for well perfused alternate blood paths.
B)are functional end arteries because the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies.
Q3) As blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart,it
A)pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them.
B)pushes against the semilunar valves and closes them.
C)fills the cusps of the semilunar valves,causing them to expand and block the backflow of blood
D)pushes against the atrioventricular valves and opens them.
E)fills the cusps of the atrioventricular valve causing opening of the bicuspid and closure of the tricuspid.
Q4) The connections shared by arteries that allow them to shunt blood from one artery to another are called _________________.
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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation
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136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Net filtration pressure (NFP)is equal to the
A)blood hydrostatic pressure minus the tissue hydrostatic pressure.
B)colloid osmotic pressure in the blood divided by resistance in the tissue.
C)blood pressure times the total peripheral resistance.
D)net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure.
E)osmotic pressure in the tissue minus the hydrostatic pressure in the blood.
Q2) The artery that will eventually subdivide to form the posterior cerebral arteries is the _____ artery.
A)basilar
B)external carotid
C)maxillary
D)superficial temporal
E)internal carotid
Q3) Increased cardiac output ______ the blood pressure.
A)decreases
B)increases
C)will not affect
Q4) The stomach needs the celiac artery blood supply in order to receive blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Lymphatic System
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because lymphatic vessels have three tunics (intima,media,and externa)and valves,they structurally resemble A)veins.
B)arterioles.
C)capillaries.
D)arteries.
Q2) Structures that connect lymphatic capillary cells to surrounding tissue and prevent the capillaries from collapsing are called _________ filaments.
Q3) What conditions would warrant removal of the spleen (splenectomy)or removal of the tonsils (tonsillectomy),and what prognosis or complications (if any)might result from these procedures
Q4) Lymph nodes
A)filter lymph.
B)contain a dense network of collagen fibers.
C)serve as auxiliary exchange surfaces for respiratory gases.
D)produce red blood cells.
E)serve as the main recycling centers for red blood cells and their parts.
Q5) Old or defective erythrocytes and platelets are engulfed within the lymph organ known as the ________.
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Chapter 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense
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123 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agglutination of mismatched blood is a function of
A)IgD,which is a dimer.
B)IgD,which is a pentamer.
C)IgM,which is a dimer.
D)IgM,which is a pentamer.
Q2) Which type of cell produces and secretes antibodies
A)Memory B-lymphocyte
B)Memory T-lymphocyte
C)Natural killer cell
D)Plasma cell
E)Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte
Q3) Inflammation is a(n)
A)antigen-specific process that occurs in avascular tissue.
B)antigen-specific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.
C)nonspecific process that occurs in avascular tissue.
D)nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.
Q4) When a chemical messenger has a short half-life,it means that
A)it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells.
B)it will not be eliminated quickly from the blood.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System
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147 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a function of the respiratory system
A)Sound reception
B)Gas exchange
C)Odor detection
D)Air passage
Q2) What type of tissue lines the trachea
A)Cuboidal epithelium
B)Simple squamous epithelium
C)Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
D)Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
E)Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
Q3) The bronchial circulation is a component of the pulmonary circulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At the inferior end of the trachea is an internal ridge of mucosal covered cartilage that initiates a cough reflex when it is stimulated;this structure is the __________.
Q5) Exposure to irritants causes mucus production to A)increase. B)decrease.
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within the urinary system,the storage reflex involves
A)contraction of both the detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter.
B)contraction of the detrusor muscle and relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter.
C)relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter.
D)relaxation of both the detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter.
Q2) How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related
A)They both involve movement of material from the blood into the tubular fluid.
B)Materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood,whereas secretion removes them from the blood.
C)Materials move in opposite directions: secretion moves materials into the blood,whereas reabsorption removes them from the blood.
D)They both involve movement of material from the tubular fluid into the blood.
Q3) The myogenic response that occurs within afferent arterioles of the kidney is an __________ control of GFR.
A)intrinsic
B)extrinsic
Q4) Each kidney contains more than a million "functional units" called ___________.
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26

Chapter 25: Fluid and Electrolytes
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122 Verified Questions
122 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are sodium levels and blood pressure related
A)Increased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention,decrease blood volume,and increase blood pressure.
B)Decreased plasma sodium levels increase water retention,increase blood volume,and decrease blood pressure.
C)Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention,blood volume,and blood pressure.
D)Decreased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention,increase blood volume,and increase blood pressure.
Q2) Angiotensin II triggers
A)vasoconstriction and increased urine output from the kidneys.
B)vasoconstriction and decreased urine output from the kidneys.
C)vasodilation and increased urine output from the kidneys.
D)vasodilation and decreased urine output from the kidneys.
Q3) In order for a state of fluid balance to be achieved,obligatory water loss must equal facultative water loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An elevated level of potassium in the blood is referred to as __________.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine,starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum
A: Left colic flexure
B: Ascending colon
C: Transverse colon
D: Right colic flexure
E: Sigmoid colon
F: Descending colon
A)f,c,d,e,a,b
B)b,d,c,a,f,e
C)e,b,a,c,d,f
D)b,a,c,d,f,e
E)e,b,d,c,a,f
Q2) The projections on the superior surface of the tongue,some of which house taste buds,are the A)tonsils.
B)cilia.
C)rugae.
D)glossal spines.
E)papillae.
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Page 28

Chapter 27: Nutrition and Metabolism
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who consume excess carbohydrates can deposit additional triglycerides into their adipose tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Iron is considered a
A)major mineral,because it has a crucial physiological role.
B)trace mineral,because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.
C)major mineral,because it is extremely abundant in the Earth.
D)trace mineral,because it is rare on the Earth.
Q3) Muscle cramps are associated with a deficiency in A)copper.
B)chloride.
C)vitamin
D)monosaccharides.
Q4) Which type of vitamins will be absorbed from the intestine into lacteals (lymphatic capillaries)
A)Fat-soluble
B)Water-soluble
Q5) Removal of the amine group from amino acids is a process that occurs in the liver known as ___________.
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fold of the labia minora that forms a hood over the clitoris is the ________.
Q2) Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis
A)Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell,whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
B)Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell,whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
C)Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell,whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
D)Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell,whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
Q3) Prior to puberty,the anterior pituitary does not release FSH and LH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The uterine tubes are covered and suspended by a superior portion of the broad ligament called the _________________.
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Chapter 29: Development,Pregnancy,and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood cells and antibodies pass freely across the placenta.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Progesterone makes the uterine myometrium more irritable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During pregnancy,a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of
A)melanin from the pineal gland.
B)vasopressin from the posterior pituitary gland.
C)melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta.
D)estrogen and progesterone from the ovary.
Q4) What is the approximate duration of the fetal period of development
A)4 weeks
B)12 weeks
C)29 weeks
D)39 weeks
Q5) Which type of food do women suffering from morning sickness generally prefer
A)Carbohydrate-rich foods
B)Protein-rich foods
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