

Medical Science Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Science is a multidisciplinary field that explores the biological, physiological, and pathological processes of the human body, with a focus on understanding health and disease. This course provides foundational knowledge in areas such as anatomy, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, pharmacology, and physiology. Students learn how scientific discovery informs clinical practice and public health, as well as the principles guiding diagnosis, treatment, and disease prevention. Emphasizing both theoretical concepts and practical applications, the course prepares students for various roles in healthcare, research, and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook Human Diseases 8th Edition by Mark Zelman
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17 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2170

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Disease
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43277
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ data allows the determination of the impact and significance of a disease for a given population.
A)Incidence
B)Morbidity
C)Mortality
D)Prevalence
Answer: D
Q2) Treatment aims to _____ a disease or reduce the severity of its signs and symptoms.
A)cure
B)exacerbate
C)prevent
D)relapse
Answer: A
Q3) _____ diseases result from abnormal growth that leads to the formation of tumors.
Answer: Neoplastic
Q4) The aftermath of a particular disease is called the _____.
Answer: sequela
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Immunity and the Lymphatic System
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43278
Sample Questions
Q1) Sjögren's syndrome can be cured or prevented by taking NSAIDs or over-the-counter medications for dry eyes and dry mouth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Some of the benefits of _____ include slowing the growth rate of some pathogens, increasing the effect of interferons, enhancing phagocytosis, stimulating antibody production, and accelerating tissue repair.
Answer: fever
Q3) _____ provide defense against extracellular antigens like bacterial toxins and bacterial cells.
A)Antibodies
B)Erythrocytes
C)Histamines
D)Neutrophils
Answer: A
Q4) C-reactive protein test and erythrocyte sedimentation tests measure general levels of _____ in the body.
Answer: inflammation
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Chapter 3: Infectious Diseases
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43279
Sample Questions
Q1) One classification of protozoa move by means of numerous hairlike projections called _____.
A)cilia
B)flagellates
C)mycelia
D)spores
Answer: A
Q2) Rubella (German measles)is caused by the rubella _____.
A)bacteria
B)fungi
C)protozoan
D)virus
Answer: D
Q3) Bacteria are microscopic, single-celled organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) _____ are parasitic worms and are complex multicellular motile organisms. Answer: Helminths
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Chapter 4: Cancer
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43280
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a scanning type of radiography that creates a three-dimensional picture of the inside of the body.
A)Computed tomography
B)Magnetic resonance imaging
C)Radiography
D)Ultrasonography
Q2) Because the immune system should recognize and destroy mutated cells, cancer may indicate a failure of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is the use of x-rays to form a still or moving picture of the inside of the body.
A)Computed tomography
B)Magnetic resonance imaging
C)Radiography
D)Ultrasonography
Q4) Cancer is characterized by uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body. A)True
B)False
Q5) Tumors that are not cancer are called _____
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Chapter 5: Heredity and Disease
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43281
Sample Questions
Q1) A Down syndrome child is always mentally impaired to some degree.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Inside the nucleus, DNA is packaged with proteins into _____.
A)autosomes
B)chromosomes
C)genes
D)haploids
Q3) The four chemical bases that make up DNA are adenine, thymine, guanine, and cystosine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hereditary diseases or disorders often result from a defective gene or genes that produce a defective protein or no protein at all.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pseudohermaphrodites have either testes or ovaries, but the remainder of the anatomy is mixed.
A)True
B)False

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Diseases of the Cardiovascular System
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Raynaud's disease is a disorder of the arteries in the _____.
A)arms and legs
B)chest and abdomen
C)fingers and toes
D)neck and head
Q2) Hardening of the arteries in the legs is known as _____ vascular disease.
Q3) _____ is the major cholesterol carrier in the blood, and is also known as "bad" cholesterol.
A)CAD
B)CVI
C)HDL
D)LDL
Q4) Treatment for congestive heart failure cannot cure or reverse the condition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The risk factors for rheumatic fever include age and infection with _____.
A)group A hemolytic streptococci
B)Coxackie virus
C)parovirus
D)Plasmodium
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Chapter 7: Diseases of the Blood
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43283
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an inherited blood disorder in which there is deficient synthesis of one or more protein chains.
Q2) The _____ are disorders affecting the structure, function, or production of hemoglobin.
Q3) Symptoms of _____ include abdominal distress, nausea and vomiting, and burning of the tongue.
A)pernicious anemia
B)polycythemia vera
C)sickle cell anemia
D)thalassemia
Q4) _____ is a reduction of circulating neutrophils, which increases the risk for certain infections.
Q5) The etiology of anemia of chronic disease most often is a defect in erythropoesis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In physical examinations, the major sign of anemia is pallor.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Absolute polycythemia is also known as polycythemia _____.
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Chapter 8: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43284
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ accounts for 80% of lung cancers.
A)CF
B)COPD
C)NSCLC
D)PE
Q2) The etiology of asthma is idiopathic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common cause of the common cold is the _____.
A)coronavirus
B)rhinovirus
C)Staphylococcus aureus bacteria
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria
Q4) Cystic fibrosis affects the endocrine glands, causing secretion of excessive thick mucus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) COPD is associated with an abnormal inflammatory response of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Diseases of the Gastrointestinal System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43285
Sample Questions
Q1) Acid reducers are more effective for peptic ulcers than are antacids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A characteristic symptom of _____ is distention of the abdomen caused by the accumulation of fluids in the peritoneal cavity.
A)cirrhosis
B)hepatitis
C)regional enteritis
D)volvulus
Q3) The prognosis for pancreatitis is very poor if related to alcoholism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acute _____ is a serious, painful inflammation of the pancreas.
Q5) In the absence of lipid enzymes from the pancreas, fat cannot be digested, resulting in greasy stools with a foul odor.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ are little pouches or sacs formed when the mucosal lining pushes through the underlying muscle layer of the intestinal wall.
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Chapter 10: Diseases of the Urinary System
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43286
Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of nephrotic syndrome are due to glomerulonephritis and _____.
Q2) Because females have a shorter _____, the prevalence of UTIs is greater in females than in males.
A)glomerulus
B)nephron
C)ureter
D)urethra
Q3) The _____ carries blood into the nephron and enters the glomerulus.
A)afferent arteriole
B)loop of Henle
C)ureters
D)urethra
Q4) _____, a condition of elevated blood potassium, can cause cardiac arrest.
Q5) Acute kidney disease has three main causes: shock, tubular necrosis, and obstructed urine flow.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome include low blood pressure.
A)True
B)False

Page 12
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Chapter 11: Diseases and Disorders of the Reproductive System
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43287
Sample Questions
Q1) The etiology of syphilis is the _____ Treponema pallidum.
A)gram-negative spirochete bacterium
B)gram-negative spirochete virus
C)gram-positive spirochete bacterium
D)gram-positive spirochete virus
Q2) Testosterone secretion begins approximately 2 months after conception.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is usually found during examination for other conditions and may not require treatment.
A)Acute bacterial prostatitis
B)Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
C)Chronic bacterial prostatitis
D)Chronic prostatitis
Q4) Although it can develop at any age, _____ are at the greatest risk of acquiring PID.
A)men under age 25
B)postmenopausal women
C)post-prostatectomy men
D)women under age 25

13
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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Endocrine System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43288
Sample Questions
Q1) After adolescence, growth hormone is secreted in greater amounts to promote tissue replacement and repair.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With age, the pancreas _____.
A)increases the ability to secrete insulin at normal levels, but tissue responsiveness decreases
B)increases the ability to secrete insulin at normal levels, but tissue responsiveness increases
C)retains the ability to secrete insulin at normal levels, but tissue responsiveness decreases
D)retains the ability to secrete insulin at normal levels, but tissue responsiveness increases
Q3) Insulin and glucagon work antagonistically to each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acromegaly is caused by a benign tumor of the infundibulum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Diseases of the Nervous System and the Special Senses
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43289
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT used to diagnose epilepsy?
A)CT
B)EEG
C)MRI
D)TIA
Q2) The tetanus toxin binds to _____, stimulates them, and causes muscles to be continually stimulated to contract.
A)interneurons
B)motor neurons
C)neuromas
D)sensory neurons
Q3) The cause of ALS is _____.
A)caused by autoimmunity
B)demyelination of the nerves
C)due to an infection
D)unknown
Q4) The basic unit of the nervous system is the _____, or nerve cell.
Q5) The _____ nervous system is divided into the somatic system and autonomic system.
Q6) _____ lateral sclerosis is also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. Page 15
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Page 16

Chapter 14: Diseases and Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43290
Sample Questions
Q1) Otitis media, or "swimmer's ear," is an infection of the auditory canal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ is a fibrous connective tissue that lends shape and support to the eyeball and is the visible white of the eye.
A)conjunctiva
B)retina
C)sclera
D)uvea
Q3) To prevent _____, foreign objects should not be inserted into the ear canal, and earphones and earplugs should be cleansed regularly.
A)diabetic retinopathy
B)Meniere's
C)otitis externa
D)presbycusis
Q4) Fluid accumulation in the inner ear is responsible for the signs and symptoms of Meniere's disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Mental Illness and Cognitive Disorders
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43291
Sample Questions
Q1) Mental health is the condition of being sound _____.
A)emotionally and mentally
B)emotionally and physically
C)emotionally, mentally, and physically
D)mentally and physically
Q2) ASD is five times more common in girls than in boys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The etiology of personality disorders is _____; however, genetics and environmental factors may play a role in the development of personality disorders.
A)idiopathic
B)infectious
C)nosocomial
D)opportunistic
Q4) People with _____ nervosa see themselves as overweight, even when they are clearly underweight.
Q5) A person with _____ personality disorder is a loner who prefers solitary activities and is often distant, detached, or indifferent to social relationships.
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Chapter 16: Diseases and Disorders of the Musculoskeletal System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43292
Sample Questions
Q1) Osteomyelitis occurs principally following _____.
A)bone trauma or in diabetic patients
B)fractures or in osteogenic sarcoma patients
C)scoliosis or in patients with osteomalacia
D)surgery or in patients with osteoporosis
Q2) Osteomyelitis is an uncommon ______ infection of the bone.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)protozoan
D)viral
Q3) Further destruction of the joint results in joint erosion, scarring, and fusion, a condition called _____.
A)ankylosis
B)kyphosis
C)lordosis
D)osteoporosis
Q4) Women are three times more likely to develop CTS than men.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ is used to visualize the inside of a joint cavity, such as the knee.
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Chapter 17: Diseases and Disorders of the Integumentary System
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43293
Sample Questions
Q1) _____, or verucca vulgaris, are small, benign growths on the skin.
Q2) _____ is pale skin caused by decreased blood flow.
A)Cyanosis
B)Erythema
C)Jaundice
D)Pallor
Q3) _____ is an infestation of lice, external parasites that feed on blood.
Q4) Reducing emotional and physical stress may help with the development of urticaria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _____ are areas of the skin that have grown thick in response to repeated pressure and friction and form to protect the skin.
A)Corns and calluses
B)Hemangiomas
C)Melasma and Ephelides
D)Pressure ulcers
Q6) The rhinophyma found in rosacea occurs mainly in women.
A)True
B)False
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