Medical Records Management
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Medical Records Management provides an in-depth examination of the principles, methods, and technologies involved in the creation, maintenance, organization, and security of patient health records in healthcare settings. The course covers the legal and ethical considerations surrounding health information, the transition from paper-based to electronic health records (EHRs), record retention policies, and standards for confidentiality and data protection. Students will gain practical insight into the workflow of health information departments, best practices for ensuring accuracy and accessibility of medical records, and the integral role of records management in supporting quality patient care and compliance with regulatory requirements.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant An Applied Learning Approach 11th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Chapter 1: Becoming a Successful Student
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Sample Questions
Q1) The constant practice of considering all aspects of a situation in deciding what to believe or what to do
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: G
Q2) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests.
Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
Q3) Learning __________ are the ways that you like to learn and that have proven successful in the past.
Answer: preferences
Learning preferences determine individual learning methods.
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Chapter 2: The Healthcare Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systematic expositions or arguments in writing that include a methodic discussion of the facts and principles involved in reaching a conclusion are called __________.
Answer: treatises
A treatise is a systematic exposition or argument in writing that includes a methodic discussion of facts and principles.
Q2) The act of determining whether medical or professional privileges should be extended to an individual is called __________.
Answer: credentialing
Credentialing is the process of determining whether a medical professional should be granted staff privileges in a medical facility.
Q3) Which of the following is not true about a group practice?
A)It includes three or more physicians in full-time practice.
B)It does not share income and expenses.
C)It may or may not practice one specific specialty.
D)It may or may not form a corporation.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Sample Questions
Q1) Men and women can be equally successful as medical assistants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Patients are not concerned about the medical assistant's grooming and wardrobe.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following are important to remember during an externship?
A)Do not worry about reconciling petty cash.
B)Ask the physician to treat your daughter's ear infection.
C)Never handle drugs or money without permission.
D)Feel free to correct co-workers when they perform a procedure incorrectly.
Answer: C
Q4) The AMT offers an examination, called the __________, that medical assistants who have clinical duties might want to take after 6 months of employment in the healthcare field.
Answer: COLT
The COLT exam indicates proficiency in clinical duties.
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Chapter 4: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A)reaproach
B)reproach
Q2) Note taking can help the medical assistant to:
A)avoid forgetting orders from the physician
B)remember dosages for medications
C)complete duties assigned in a staff meeting
D)all of the above
Q3) If a medical assistant has a conflict with a co-worker, he or she should first:
A)go to the physician
B)go to the person with whom he or she has an issue
C)go to the office manager
D)resign
Q4) When medical assistants are able to adapt to various situations, they are considered to be:
A)dependable
B)flexible
C)courteous
D)loyal
Q5) An implication or something suggested by a word or thing is a(n) __________.
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Chapter 5: Interpersonal Skills and Human Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who approaches sensitive subjects in an attempt to get even or hurt another person is a:
A)withholder
B)joker
C)beltliner
D)trapper
Q2) What is meant by the "litigious nature of today's society"?
A)Crowding has caused people to need more personal space.
B)Patients are more likely to bring lawsuits than in the past.
C)A growing diversity of cultures is represented in the United States.
D)Fewer people have access to medical care.
Q3) Setting boundaries at work helps to prevent misunderstandings and awkward situations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A good supervisor listens to other opinions in a conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Julia entered counseling to learn to deal with the __________ in her work and personal life.
7
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant will not have to discuss ethical issues with patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medical assistant can discuss patients at home with his or her spouse but only if the spouse can be trusted to keep the confidences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The document that expresses the wishes of patients in case of terminal illness or an accident after which patients cannot express their wishes is called a:
A)power of attorney
B)DNR order
C)will
D)living will
Q4) Norma McCorvey was the real Jane Roe in Roe v.Wade.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Roe v.Wade was heard by the U.S.Supreme Court in 1970.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Medicine and Law
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Q1) __________ negligence exists when the patient contributes to his or her own condition.
Q2) Considered the most serious crime, an offense to overthrow the government is classified as a(n):
A)felony
B)misdemeanor
C)violation
D)act of treason
Q3) A major crime, such as rape, murder, or burglary, is classified as a(n):
A)felony
B)misdemeanor
C)violation
D)act of treason
Q4) Which of the following is not a requirement for a valid, legal contract?
A)The contract must include manifestation of assent.
B)The contract must be in writing.
C)The contract must involve legal subject matter.
D)All parties must have the legal capacity to enter into a contract.
Q5) Civil cases must be proven by a(n) __________ of the evidence.
Q6) Municipal regulations are also called __________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Computer Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ allows a user to return to previously viewed Web sites.
Q2) A dialog box in Windows is a:
A)box used to turn options on and off
B)window that appears requesting more information from the user
C)standard value used by the software
D)location on screen in which files are stored
Q3) Many printers in use today are __________ and can perform several different tasks.
Q4) The magnetic creation of tracks on a disk where information will be stored, usually done by the disk's manufacturer, is called __________.
Q5) DVD stands for digital video disk.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Encrypted data are called:
A)flash
B)cipher text
C)crackers
D)firewalls
Q7) __________ are usually found on college campuses and sometimes on military bases.
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Chapter 9: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant may help an angry caller to calm down by:
A)speaking in a lower tone of voice
B)getting angry in return
C)passing the situation off to the office manager immediately
D)calling the physician into the situation
Q2) To foster growth is to __________.
Q3) Performing many tasks at the same time is called __________.
Q4) Referrals to other physicians should always be __________ in the patient's medical record.
Q5) The medical assistant should speak at a moderate pace when talking with patients on the telephone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The best policy for dealing with serious abnormal test results is to schedule a(n) __________ for the patient.
Q7) Which of the following is not correct with regard to ending a call?
A)Closing the conversation with some form of "goodbye"
B)Hanging up before the caller
C)Discouraging inappropriate chatting
D)Thanking the person for calling
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Chapter 10: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients should feel confident in their physician and the members of the office staff.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ means relating to a combination of social and economic factors.
Q3) Responding to requests for immediate care and treatment after evaluating the urgency of the need and prioritizing the treatment is called __________.
Q4) Open office hours do not work well for most practices.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Steven needs a chest x-ray film as a follow-up to his hospital stay last week.He should be seen:
A)immediately
B)today
C)this week
D)this month
Q6) The physician's habits should not influence appointment scheduling.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Patient Reception and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should most often be added to a patient chart's on each visit?
A)Medical history form
B)Progress notes form
C)Patient information sheet
D)Insurance information sheet
Q2) Any toys placed in the waiting area should be washable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Writing a phonetic spelling of a patient's name can help the medical assistant pronounce it correctly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The appearance of the reception room influences the patient's perception of the entire office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical assistant should never tell the patient not to __________ about his or her condition.
Q6) Furniture in a pediatric physician's office should be __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Office Environment and Daily Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allowing patients who are very ill to proceed directly to an examination room helps prevent the spread of __________ diseases.
Q2) A printed list of the patients with appointments on a certain day is useful to the:
A)physician
B)clinical medical assistant
C)administrative medical assistant
D)all of these
Q3) The medical assistant should treat e-mail information as __________ if it relates to a patient.
Q4) Employees should not be allowed to spend money __________.
Q5) Common items that criminals look for in physicians' offices include:
A)checkbooks
B)narcotics and cash
C)checks and over-the-counter meds
D)over-the-counter meds and cash
Q6) Supervisors and physicians notice the __________ of medical assistants and usually reward those who work hard.
Q7) A(n) __________ year does not necessarily begin in January.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Written Communications and Mail Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nouns represent a person, place, thing, or idea or concept.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The principal function of a well-organized portfolio of business letters is to help the medical assistant:
A)write correctly
B)save time
C)use one consistent style
D)spell accurately
Q3) How many characters are allowed for a city name on an envelope?
A)10
B)13
C)16
D)18
Q4) Which of the following would not be an appropriate responsibility of the medical assistant regarding office copiers and printers?
A)Understanding basic equipment maintenance
B)Studying the manuals that accompany the machines
C)Learning how to use all equipment properly
D)Memorizing the service contracts
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Chapter 14: The Paper Medical Record Formerly Medical
Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ file is a follow-up system used to help the medical assistant remember when a certain task needs to be done.
Q2) A(n) __________ is made of heavy paper stock and is used to replace an entire folder that has been temporarily removed from its proper place.
Q3) A power of __________ allows one person to act on behalf of another.
Q4) The "E" entry in the SOAPER charting method means :
A)entry
B)evaluation
C)education
D)exclude
Q5) A strong, highly glazed composition paper or heavy card stock is called:
A)augment
B)pressboard
C)microfilm
D)shingle
Q6) The patient's medical record should never leave the office.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
Q7) Entities considered essential or necessary are called __________.
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Chapter 15: The Electronic Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medical records system is only as good as the ease of __________ of the data in the record.
Q2) Most patients will be __________ and interested in the EMR system.
Q3) Files still must be purged annually when an EMR system is used.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is one of the goals of the Nationwide Health Information Network?
A)Ensuring that consumer health information is secure
B)Improving the coordination of care between the various healthcare facilities
C)Reducing risks from medical errors
D)All of the above
Q5) A set of physical properties, the values of which determine characteristics or behavior, is called:
A)interoperables
B)parameters
C)informatics
D)gauges
Q6) The EMR system should be backed up __________.
Q7) Remember that all backup systems need __________to run.
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Chapter 16: Health Information Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accurate medical records promote good __________ care.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?
A)Remove barriers that rob people of their right to pride in workmanship.
B)Create consistency of purpose toward improvement of products and services.
C)Make sure managers work to accomplish the transformation to quality service.
D)Break down barriers among departments.
Q3) __________ are established by authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example.
Q4) Medical assistants must have a positive __________ about the learning process with regard to new rules and regulations.
Q5) Transposing is changing the relative place or normal order of something or altering its sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In 2005, nearly one __________ of U.S.physicians used some form of electronic patient records.
Q7) Most patients predict that they would be __________ likely to continue to see the physician despite a medical error if the physician is forthcoming about the mishap.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Privacy in the Physicians Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information about patients' rights regarding PHI does not have to be included in a notice of privacy practices.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients' rights are the heart of the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients can request that changes be made to their medical record if they inspect it and find a(n) __________.
Q4) All healthcare facilities should designate a person as the privacy officer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The division of the federal government that enforces privacy standards is:
A)OSHA
B)HIPAA
C)OCR
D)OIG
Q6) Before the HIPAA Privacy Rule, health information could be __________ to others without either notice to or authorization from the patient.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q2) Spasmodic torticollis is coded 333.84.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acute duodenal ulcer with hemorrhage and perforation, without mention of obstruction
A)532.10
B)532.20
C)532.21
D)532.31
Q4) Polyuria
A)788.41
B)788.42
C)788.43
D)788
Q5) Cervicitis
A)616
B)616.0
C)616.1
D)616.11
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Chapter 19: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Q1) Serum folic acid
A)82735
B)82760
C)82746
D)82803
Q2) Urinalysis
A)81000
B)81005
C)82000
D)81001
Q3) It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
A)True
B)False
Q4) New patient, initial inpatient consultation
A)99251
B)99252
C)99253
D)99254
Q5) Special symbols used to provide additional information about certain codes are called __________; seven are used in CPT-4 coding.
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Chapter 20: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maximum amount of money third-party payers will pay for a specific procedure or service is called the:
A)benefit
B)allowed charge
C)allowed service
D)incurred amount
Q2) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of managed care?
A)Authorized services usually are covered.
B)Physicians' choices in the treatment of patients can be limited.
C)More paperwork may be necessary.
D)Reimbursement is historically less than with traditional health insurance.
Q3) Entities that make payment on an obligation or debt but are not parties of the contract that created the debt are called:
A)riders
B)service benefit plans
C)third-party payers
D)capitation
Q4) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Health Insurance Claim Form
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Q1) The medical assistant should always follow office __________ for claim review and signatures.
Q2) To examine claims for accuracy and completeness before they are submitted is to _________ the claims.
A)correct
B)audit
C)revise D)reject
Q3) The physician's signature is located in block:
A)12
B)13
C)31
D)33
Q4) Hard copies of claims are also called __________ claims.
Q5) The federal tax identification number is found in block __________.
Q6) All __________ letters should be used on claim forms.
Q7) Claims submitted to a(n) __________ are forwarded to individual insurance carriers.
Page 23
Q8) The CMS-1500 claim form is sometimes called a(n) __________ claim form.
Q9) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim
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Chapter 22: Professional Fees, Billing, and Collecting
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Q1) Under which circumstances would a cycle billing system be most advantageous for the medical office?
A)Most companies in the area pay employees at the end of each month.
B)The patient load is moderate, and most of them pay at the time of their visits.
C)The physician wants to stabilize cash flow.
D)All billing is handled by an outside service.
Q2) Physicians usually refuse to allow patients to arrange to make more than four payments on an account.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amy Moore pays $200 on her account, which had a previous balance of $652.What does she owe on the account?
Q4) The smallest percentage of people who do not pay their medical bills consists of people who:
A)are disorganized and irresponsible
B)are dissatisfied with the physician's services
C)spend more than they earn
D)never intend to pay
Q5) Jonathan Sidwell paid $80 on his balance of $417.What is his new balance?
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Chapter 23: Banking Services and Procedures
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Q1) Banks ask to be notified within a reasonable time if the customer finds a(n) __________ on his or her bank statement.
Q2) The first thing that should be done when a NSF check is received at the physician's office is to:
A)add the check back to the patient's statement balance
B)call the patient to let the person know that the check was returned
C)send a certified letter to the patient to demand payment for the check
D)add the NSF fee to the patient's statement balance
Q3) Checks received in the mail today include those for $87, $45, $88, and $67.What is the total check deposit for the day?
Q4) The person who writes the check is called a drawee.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is accepting third-party checks from patients usually poor policy?
A)This type of check is illegal.
B)Third-party checks are not negotiable.
C)The check likely will bounce.
D)The reliability of the maker cannot be verified.
Q6) The name of the last endorser of the check shows who last __________ the money.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Financial and Practice Management
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Q1) The IRS form __________ is the Wage and Tax Statement.
Q2) For every disbursement from the petty cash fund, what should be completed?
A)Balance sheet
B)Invoice
C)Packing slip
D)Voucher
Q3) An employee's marital status can affect the amount of income tax withholding taken from his or her paycheck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Transmittal of Income and Tax Statement is IRS form __________.
Q5) Employers must file tax returns __________.
Q6) All of the following are determinants of withholding amounts except:
A)the number of withholding allowances claimed
B)the length of the pay period involved
C)the employee's total earnings
D)insurance deductions
Q7) The petty cash fund is a(n) __________ fund.
Page 27
Q8) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q9) Each employer must have a federal tax __________ number.
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Chapter 25: Medical Practice Management and Human Resources
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Q1) The power of influence is:
A)always positive
B)always negative
C)can be either positive or negative
D)is neither positive or negative
Q2) A person who is currently employed should never be approached to accept a new position.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a more intrinsic motivation?
A)Praise
B)Title
C)Promotions
D)Bonuses
Q4) Teams are more effective if they are:
A)motivated
B)cohesive
C)happy
D)all of the above
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Q5) A list or outline of things to be considered or done is called a(n) __________.
Chapter 26: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) Brochures in the physician's office can substitute for medical advice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Placement might refer to ______ the office.
A)the location of
B)the setup inside
C)where retail objects are in
D)all of the above
Q3) Without __________, many businesses fail.
A)insurance benefits
B)growth
C)marketing efforts
D)none of the above
Q4) Physicians should not consider college students as a viable market.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Poorly chosen phrases that suggest poor attitudes give the patient or visitor a(n) __________ view of the facility.
Q6) Physicians in college towns may want to offer __________ rates for medical services. Page 30
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Chapter 27: Infection Control
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Q1) According to OSHA regulations, under which of the following circumstances is recapping needles allowed?
A)When an antiseptic cleaner is used
B)When the needles are reusable
C)When the patient is disease free
D)When gloves are worn
E)When recapping an unused needle
Q2) A germicide is an agent that destroys pathogenic microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pyemia is a condition marked by infectious microorganisms in the patient's urine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An antiseptic is used to cleanse the patient's skin before a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ route of administration is the injection or introduction of substances into the body by means other than through the digestive tract.
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Chapter 28: Patient Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following includes childhood diseases?
A)Family history
B)Past history
C)Social history
D)Database
E)ROS
Q2) Information that you gather from a patient interview is considered:
A)subjective
B)objective
C)assessment
D)evaluation
Q3) Which of the following is not true of holistic patient care?
A)The focus of care is the patient's disease process.
B)The physician considers the patient's ability to pay for treatment.
C)The patient's emotional state is investigated.
D)The medical assistant investigates lifestyle factors that may contribute to disease.
Q4) The physician's initial impression of the patient's presenting problem is called the
Q5) Detail how to make a correction in a patient's record.
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Chapter 29: Patient Education
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Q1) Depression is a normal part of the grief process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The best method for communicating with a patient who speaks a different language is to:
A)establish eye contact and speak loudly
B)provide written handouts
C)use medical terminology to explain the diagnosis
D)observe the patient for cues that indicate confusion
Q3) The patient may use defense mechanism as protection from the realities of a serious disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which model analyzes what people believe to be true about themselves and their health?
A)The health belief model
B)Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's stages of grief
C)The holistic model
Q5) Copies of teaching materials should be available in other __________ when possible.
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Chapter 30: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39489
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the recommendation for healthy blood lipid levels?
A)Maintain HDL levels below 40 mg/dL.
B)Maintain LDL levels no higher than 100 mg/dL.
C)Keep the blood cholesterol level below 180 mg/dL.
D)Keep triglyceride levels below 140 in women mg/dL.
Q2) The metabolization of protein for energy results in the production of waste materials called ketone bodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fiber contributes to bowel regularity, because it cannot be digested by the body. A)True
B)False
Q4) The main function of carbohydrate is to repair and build tissues. A)True
B)False
Q5) The best way to include an adequate amount of vitamins and minerals in the diet is to take a daily multivitamin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Vital Signs
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rales indicate airway obstruction with thick secretions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following pulses is palpated on the wrist?
A)Apical
B)Brachial
C)Carotid
D)Radial
E)Temporal
Q3) A newborn is observed in the nursery with periodic episodes of not breathing.This is called:
A)bradypnea
B)apnea
C)hyperpnea
D)rales
Q4) A pulse rate over 100 beats per minute is identified as __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ may be heard in phase II of the Korotkoff sounds if the patient has hypertension.
Q6) Describe the role of the medical assistant in obtaining vital signs.
Q7) A patient with __________ has regular but slow respirations.
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Chapter 32: Assisting With the Primary Physical Examination
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39491
Sample Questions
Q1) Platelets are specialized blood cells that help combat infections.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A murmur indicates a possible problem with a cardiac valve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which examination position requires the medical assistant to raise the head of the bed to a 30- to 45-degree angle?
A)Dorsal recumbent
B)Fowler's
C)Lithotomy
D)Semi-Fowler's
Q4) An instrument used to test auditory acuity is the:
A)ophthalmoscope
B)otoscope
C)tuning fork
D)Snellen chart
Q5) The acronym __________ means the patient's eyes react normally during the physical examination.
Q6) Measuring the circumference of an infant's head is an example of __________. Page 37
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Chapter 33: Principles of Pharmacology
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the prescription contains details about the patient as well as the symbol for take?
A)Subscription
B)Signature
C)Inscription
D)Superscription
Q2) Valtrex is an example of an:
A)antibiotic
B)immunizing agent
C)antifungal agent
D)antiviral agent
Q3) Tenormin and Aldomet are vasodilating agents that are prescribed to control hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ___________ identifies the patient's name and address and gives the date.
A)superscription
B)inscription
C)subscription
D)signature
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Chapter 34: Pharmacology Math
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82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39493
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician orders 7.5 mL of Cipro for a pediatric patient.How many teaspoons should the parent administer?
A)7.5 tsp
B)1.5 tsp
C)3 tsp
D)1 tsp
Q2) A child who weighs 70 pounds weighs how many kilograms?
A)140 kg
B)154 kg
C)32 kg
D)30 kg
Q3) How many cubic centimeters equal 2.5 teaspoons?
A)10 cc
B)15 cc
C)5 cc
D)12.5 cc
Q4) The solvent is the powdered base of a drug that must be mixed with a sterile liquid before administration.
A)True
B)False
Page 40
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Chapter 35: Administering Medications
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To be maintained at the proper therapeutic blood level, a medication must be given:
A)by the right route
B)at the right time
C)in the right dose
D)in the right place
Q2) An IM injection given at the dorsogluteal site is administered into the gluteus maximus muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The site of a Z-track injection should be massaged carefully after the injection to prevent skin irritation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The route of administration for an allergy skin test injection is the subcutaneous route.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A medication to open the airways is prescribed because the patient has
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Chapter 36: Emergency Preparedness and Assisting With Medical Emergencies
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An AED is used for:
A)CVA
B)shock
C)seizures
D)an abnormal heart rhythm
Q2) Which of the following is one of the primary differences between administering CPR to an adult and administering it to a child?
A)Administer 3 rescue breaths if there is no breathing.
B)Perform compression/breath ratios at 15:2.
C)Compress the sternum with the heel of one hand.
D)Check the pulse more frequently.
Q3) When CPR is administered, the ratio of compressions to breaths is:
A)15 to 1
B)10 to 2
C)30 to 2
D)15 to 2
Q4) The symptoms of myocardial infarction in women may be very different from those traditionally seen in men.Summarize the typical signs and symptoms of an MI in female patients.
Q5) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39496
Sample Questions
Q1) Which potentially destructive disorder of the eye is characterized by increased fluid inside the eyeball?
A)Cataracts
B)Conjunctivitis
C)Glaucoma
D)Strabismus
Q2) A patient with repeated involuntary eye movements would be diagnosed with:
A)strabismus
B)nystagmus
C)astigmatism
D)refractive errors
Q3) When instilling ear drops in an adult who is lying down, you should gently pull the pinna in which direction to straighten the ear canal?
A)Up and back
B)Straight down
C)Down and away from head
D)The canal need not be straightened if the patient is lying on his or her side.
Q4) Amblyopia is an example of failure of the eyes to track together, a condition known as __________.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Dermatology
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92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the possible complications of a large, benign mass is metastasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Samantha Trace is diagnosed with tinea unguium.What term describes the condition of her nails?
A)Leukodermaon
B)Keratin
C)Opaque
D)Ecchymotic
Q3) Streptococcal impetigo, if left untreated, may result in glomerulonephritis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In cryosurgery, extremely hot temperatures are used to destroy the treated tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A malignant melanoma typically develops at the site of a congenital nevus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For each of the following diagnostic procedures of the GI system, list at least three instructions that should be included in patient teaching on how to prepare for the procedure:
A) UGI
B) Barium enema
C) HIDA scan
D) Colonoscopy
E) Hemoccult screening
Q2) Hemorrhoids are the enlargement of veins either internally or externally in the rectal area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Peritonitis may result in the formation of adhesions in the omentum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ascites is associated with patients who have chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gallbladder is located in the __________ of the abdomen.
Q6) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the tests performed on sperm to determine whether a man is infertile is the sperm motility test.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the order of occurrence, the three processes that result in urine formation are:
A)medullary filtration, reabsorption, and transference
B)glomerular filtration, reabsorption in the medulla, and excretion in the ureters
C)filtration, reabsorption, and excretion in the nephron unit
D)reabsorption, filtration, and excretion into the renal pelvis
Q3) Tony Rocco is a 42-year-old patient with a history of renal calculi.He is scheduled for his first ESWL tomorrow.Summarize the patient education he should receive about the procedure.
Q4) Which of the following items should be included on a urine specimen label?
A)Date of collection
B)Time of collection
C)Patient's name
D)All of the above
Q5) __________ is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction in the glomerular capsule.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determination of the EDD typically is done through a sonogram.
A)True
B)False
Q2) HPV is associated with:
A)cancer
B)bleeding
C)infertility
D)ulceration
Q3) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered.
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q4) A mammogram is recommended for all women starting at age 50 and then each year after that.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Fibrocystic breast disease causes firm masses throughout the breasts that increase in tenderness in association with the menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Assisting in Pediatrics
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rescue inhalers are used for long-term prevention of bronchospasms in children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A buildup of fluid in the middle ear is called __________ otitis media.
Q3) The common cold, or __________, has more than 100 causative pathogens and is highly contagious.
Q4) __________ is diagnosed when a child has two or more watery or apparently abnormal stools within 24 hours.
Q5) Children with asthma have a productive cough accompanied by an inspiratory wheeze and shortness of breath.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Children are considered overweight if the BMI for age is between the 85th and 94th percentiles; they are considered obese if the BMI is at or greater than the 95th percentile. A)True
B)False
Q7) Vaccines are __________ so they trigger an immune response but do not cause the disease.
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Chapter 43: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both bursae and joint capsules contain __________, which nourishes joint surfaces and allows for free movement of the joint.
Q2) Grace Samuellson, age 3, has just had a cast applied to her right arm.Her parents need to be instructed on the warning signs of problems that can occur with the cast.List three reasons the parents should call the physician immediately.
Q3) Diathermy is a deep heat therapy that can be used to treat muscle spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients diagnosed with fibromyalgia may also report chronic sleep disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ function of the red bone marrow results in the production of blood cells.
Q6) The best method of diagnosing osteopenia and osteoporosis is which test?
A)CT of the knee
B)MRI of the hip
C)DEXA scan
D)Spinal x-ray film
Q7) The __________ is a nerve-rich membrane that covers the surface of a bone.
Page 49
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Chapter 44: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a 10-year-old boy calls the office, concerned about her son.He fell a little while ago and hit his head.She wants to know what signs she should look for to determine whether he has a head injury.Summarize four immediate signs that might occur.She also wants to know what she should look out for in the next few days.Include in your explanation four possible signs and symptoms that may occur a few days after a head injury.Should the child be seen by the physician?
Q2) Bipolar disorders are also called mood disorders in which patients go through cycles of extreme highs and extreme lows.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true about a positive Brudzinski's sign?
A)It is an assessment performed to diagnose encephalitis.
B)With a positive sign, pain prevents straightening of a flexed leg.
C)The patient spontaneously flexes the arm, hip, and knee in response to neck flexion.
D)Both A and C are true.
E)All of the above are true.
Q4) A patient with MS who shows worsening of symptoms is experiencing a(n) __________ of the disease.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in Endocrinology
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97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin is available either as an injected medication or as an inhalant for patients with diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which disorder is a common form of hyperthyroidism?
A)Cushing's disease
B)Addison's disease
C)Diabetes
D)Graves' disease
Q3) Lispro is a fast-acting type of insulin that is administered shortly before meals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The liver is capable of creating glucose from proteins and fats through the process of __________.
Q5) The thymus gland plays a crucial role in T-cell maturation. A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ goiters occur because of lack of iodine in the diet in specific geographic locations.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sinuses are fluid-filled spaces of the face that help filter inhaled air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is true about the paranasal sinuses?
A)They are fluid-filled, bony structures of the face.
B)The sinuses contain resident bacteria.
C)The classic sign of a sinus infection is a headache.
D)Sinus infections are treated with decongestants, antibiotics for bacterial infections, and analgesics.
E)Both C and D are true.
Q3) The treatment for viral pneumonia is palliative.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The best time to get a good sputum sample is first thing in the morning, after the patient has had breakfast.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ is determined by having the patient breathe in and out as frequently as possible in 15 seconds.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in Cardiology
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important part of patient education for CHF is to encourage the patient to report any sudden weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which drug is used to teat congestive heart failure?
A)Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B)Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C)Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
D)Triazolam (Halcion)
E)Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q3) Which statement is true about CK levels in a patient with an MI?
A)The more severe the cardiac damage, the longer it takes for CK levels to peak.
B)Levels begin to increase almost immediately after myocardial damage.
C)CK levels return to normal within 18 hours.
D)CK levels are not predictive of the extent of cardiac damage.
Q4) CABG procedures involve the insertion of a flexible catheter into a blocked coronary artery and placement of a stent to maintain the patency of the artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Geriatrics
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aging changes in the lungs include a decrease in the ability of lung tissue to move freely with inspiration and expiration because of changes in __________ fibers.
Q2) Which of the following is caused by increasing pressure inside the eye?
A)Cataract
B)Glaucoma
C)Macular degeneration
Q3) Lack of intrinsic factor in the gastric mucosa makes it difficult for aging people to digest iron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Therapeutic communication for older adults is crucial to the quality of care.Summarize five techniques recommended for effective communication with aging individuals.
Q5) Damage to health caused by lifestyle factors is irreversible. A)True
B)False
Q6) Memantine (Namenda) is frequently used to treat __________.
Q7) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
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Q8) Explain the Mini-Mental Status Exam and how it is used to diagnose dementia.
Chapter 49: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ controls the rate of heart contraction by initiating contractions 60 to 100 times a minute.
A)AV node
B)SA node
C)bundle of His
D)Purkinje fibers
Q2) The image created on the ECG paper is made by the:
A)heated stylus
B)ink cartridge
C)lead wires
D)felt-tipped pen in the machine
Q3) The skin is an excellent conductor of electrical activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement is true about lead II?
A)It is recorded as the rhythm strip on a cardiac monitor.
B)It records tracings between the left arm and left leg.
C)It records tracings between the left and right arms.
D)It records the electrical activity of the posterior right ventricle.
Q5) The __________ on an ECG machine creates the image on the ECG paper.
Page 55
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Chapter 50: Assisting With Diagnostic Imaging
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85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radioisotopes used in nuclear medicine cause the patient to become radioactive; this requires special precautions for family members.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An open MRI does not always provide image quality equal to that produced by conventional units.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) __________ substance is not easily penetrated by x-rays and appears light on radiographs.
Q4) You are concerned about the safety of working in a facility that performs x-rays studies on site.Which statement is true about your risk of radiation exposure as an employee in the facility?
A)The x-ray room collects radiation over time.
B)Scatter radiation is present at all times.
C)The only time a radiation hazard exists is during the x-ray exposure itself.
D)People consistently exposed to scatter radiation have a shortened life span.
Q5) Describe four guidelines the medical assistant should follow when explaining radiographic pediatric examinations.
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Chapter 51: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are fluids that have escaped from blood vessels and been deposited in surrounding tissues.
Q2) The ocular of the microscope generally magnifies the image:
A)2 times
B)5 times
C)10 times
D)minimally
Q3) When using a fire safety blanket, you should be sure to wrap the person securely in the blanket to smother the flames.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Summarize methods that can be used to prevent physical hazards in the clinical laboratory.
Q5) __________ encompasses a comprehensive set of policies and procedures developed to ensure the reliability of laboratory results.
Q6) The microscopic image is focused by manipulating the objective and condenser. A)True
B)False
Q7) List the recommendations from the CDC regarding infection control.
Page 57
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Chapter 52: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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77 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are working in a PCP office that routinely performs work-related drug screenings.Describe several methods that may be used to ensure that the urine sample has not been adulterated.
Q2) A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?
A)Ketone levels
B)Creatinine clearance rates
C)Proteinuria
D)Anuria
Q3) You are examining a patient's urinalysis report.Which of the following factors is normal?
A)Specific gravity: 1.045
B)Color: light amber
C)Turbidity: present
D)Glucose: positive
Q4) The pigment __________ is responsible for the color of urine.
Q5) A urine sample that can be collected at any given time is called a:
A)random sample
B)2-hour PP
C)clean-catch sample
D)24-hour sample
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Chapter 53: Assisting in Phlebotomy
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Securing a patient in a blood collection chair helps prevent injuries if the patient experiences __________.
Q2) When is the correct time to remove the tourniquet during a routine venipuncture?
A)Immediately after the needle punctures the vein
B)As the last tube to be drawn begins to fill
C)After the last tube has been drawn and the needle has been removed from the vein
D)After the vein has been located, before the venipuncture actually begins
Q3) Thixotropic gel, found in the SST red-gray marbled-topped Vacutainer tube is:
A)the same density as red blood cells
B)more dense than red blood cells and less dense than serum
C)more dense than red blood cells and less dense than white blood cells
D)less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum
Q4) Which is the most correct method for performing a capillary puncture?
A)Squeeze the finger to get an adequate blood sample.
B)Use the anterior surface of the finger.
C)Wipe away the first drop of blood and then collect the sample.
D)Cleanse the finger with an alcohol antiseptic and immediately perform the finger puncture.
Q5) __________ is the liquid portion of the blood that contains clotting agents.
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Chapter 54: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Lim orders a CPK draw on Mr.Roberts.What do elevated CPK levels indicate?
A)Liver disease
B)Possible MI
C)Dehydration
D)A problem with glucose metabolism
Q2) Increases in the WBC count that are not related to disease are seen in pregnant women and individuals facing extreme stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eosinophils are phagocytic and are closely associated with allergic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) B cells produce specific antibodies against a particular antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The smallest of the formed elements in the peripheral blood is a cell fragment that assists with clotting; it is known as a(n) ____________.
Q6) A(n) ____________ is an immature neutrophil.
Q7) A(n) __________ is used to separate blood parts from plasma.
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Chapter 55: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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83 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mumps, measles, and polio are viral diseases transmitted by direct contact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antimicrobial agents used to treat a broad range of infections are classified as
Q3) Microscopically, a gram-negative bacterium appears as:
A)purple spheres
B)purple rods
C)pink (red) spheres
D)pink (red) rods
Q4) Explain how to inoculate a blood agar plate to culture Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q5) A cellulose tape test for pinworms requires:
A)a thin specimen of stool to be spread on cellulose tape to immobilize the worms
B)a length of cellulose tape to be touched against the anal folds to collect worms
C)temporarily taping the anus closed to trap the worms
D)a microscope to view the eggs that have adhered to a length of cellulose tape
E)B and D
Q6) __________ is used medically to combat viral infections and cancer.
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Chapter 56: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39515
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these anesthetic agents is injected into subcutaneous tissue, resulting in temporary cessation of feeling at the site of the injection?
A)Nesacaine
B)Ethyl chloride
C)Fluori-Methane
D)Sensorcaine
E)A and D
Q2) A probe is used to search for foreign objects in a wound.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hydrogen peroxide is the preferred antiseptic for skin preparation before surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The recommended method for cleaning sharp instruments is to:
A)use an ultrasonic cleaner
B)wear appropriate PPE
C)use the proper concentration of disinfectant
D)rinse instruments with sterile water before sterilizing
Q5) Explain the system for identifying suture gauges.
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Chapter 57: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting With Surgical Procedures
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39516
Sample Questions
Q1) Define the three basic autoclave cycles.
Q2) A wet instrument pack is automatically considered contaminated. A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonsterile individuals should never reach over a sterile field. A)True
B)False
Q4) An autoclave pack with a small tear in the wrapper may be stored for up to 2 weeks. A)True
B)False
Q5) After autoclaving, a change in the color of the dye of the autoclave tape indicates that the pack is sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Chemical sterilization requires immersion of the items in the chemical mixture for a minimum of 24 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the personal protective equipment used for autoclave procedures.
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Chapter 58: Career Development and Life Skills
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39517
Sample Questions
Q1) Salary cannot seem to be the main concern of the medical assistant during a job interview.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Loan companies rarely grant a student a deferment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Newspaper ads for available positions usually produce only a few applications or resumes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To rectify means to remove errors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ each resume to get better results during the job search.
Q6) The Internet is one of the most important tools the medical assistant can use to find out about job opportunities and information on health care facilities in the area.
A)True
B)False
Page 64
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