Medical Records Management
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Records Management explores the principles and practices involved in the creation, maintenance, security, and use of medical records within healthcare environments. The course covers the life cycle of health information from patient admission and documentation to record retention and regulatory compliance. Topics include the standards of electronic health records (EHRs), confidentiality and privacy laws such as HIPAA, data quality and integrity, and legal and ethical considerations in healthcare documentation. Students develop skills to efficiently manage patient information, ensure regulatory compliance, and support the delivery of effective healthcare services.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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50 Chapters
3010 Verified Questions
3010 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the current name for the health insurance plan for dependent spouses and children of active-duty military personnel?
A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
Answer: C
Q2) What is the name for an insurance plan's list of approved medications?
A) Formulary
B) Prescription
C) Premium
D) Generic
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following best describes family medicine?
A) Provides general medical care of children, adolescents, and adults
B) Treats patients for emergency conditions
C) Provides medical treatment to adults for conditions of various body systems
D) Specializes in the care of children and adolescents
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neatness and grooming are important not only for professionalism, but also for reasons of health and safety.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What credential is obtained if a medical assistant passes the certification examination in medical assisting given by the American Medical Technologists (AMT)?
A) CMA (AAMA)
B) RMA
C) EMT
D) CPR
Answer: B
Q3) The two most prominent professional medical assisting organizations are the AAMA and the AMA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which federal agency is responsible for physical protection of employees in the workplace?
A) DEA
B) EEOC
C) ADA
D) OSHA
Answer: D
Q2) What is the legal nature of the doctor-patient relationship?
A) A contract
B) A partnership
C) A professional association
D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q3) The 10-digit identifying number issued to providers by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services is called the National Provider Identifier (NPI).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term terminal phase refers to stages of professional communication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On the fourth level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are the needs for esteem and recognition. What do these include?
A) Self-esteem
B) Respect of others in one's peer group
C) Success in work
D) Prestige in the community
E) All of the above
Q3) Psychology of Human Relations
Q4) How can the medical assistant be a good communicator?
A) Make explanations using technical terms.
B) Speak in a hurried manner.
C) Be effective in sending and receiving messages.
D) Set up barriers to effective communication.
Q5) Denial can be useful in that it can provide a period of time to find a way to deal with illness, death, or disability.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following allows sperm to have a swimming motion?
A) Cristae
B) Cilia
C) Mucus
D) Flagella
E) All of the above
Q2) What is the term for the nonliving material that fills the space between cells?
A) Plasma
B) Intercellular matrix
C) Extracellular matrix
D) Membranes
Q3) The process by which secretory products are packaged into vesicles and then released from the cells is known as
A) Cytokinesis
B) Exocytosis
C) Endocytosis
D) Phagocytosis
Q4) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q5) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following causes a yellow tint to the skin?
A) Carotene
B) Cyan
C) Collagenous fibers
D) Melanocytes
Q2) Which of the following provides waterproofing for the skin?
A) Keratin
B) Cerumen
C) Sebum
D) Corneum
Q3) Which of the following are specialized epithelial cells that produce a dark pigment?
A) Fibroblasts
B) Mast cells
C) Melanocytes
D) Phagocytes
Q4) Identify body systems
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Q7) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spongy bone is composed of plates of bone known as A) Trabeculae
B) Haversion systems
C) Elastic fibers
D) Collagenous fibers
Q2) What is the U-shaped bone in the neck that forms a base for the tongue?
A) Vocal cords
B) Palatine bone
C) Hyoid bone
D) Uvula
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Which of the following forms the upper jaw?
A) Maxillary bones
B) Nasal bones
C) Mandible
D) Zygomatic arch
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) List major organs in each body system
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q2) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q3) Identify body systems
Q4) Which of the following muscles is responsible for closing the mouth during chewing?
A) Masseter
B) Zygomaticus
C) Buccinator
D) Mastoid
Q5) A buildup of lactic acid in the muscles causes
A) Muscle pain
B) Heat stroke
C) Perspiration
D) Hives
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) Which of the following must be present for aerobic respiration to occur?
A) Oxygen
B) White muscle fibers
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neuroglia?
A) They support and protect neurons.
B) They nourish neurons.
C) They conduct nerve impulses.
D) They are capable of mitosis.
Q2) What makes up the white matter of the brain?
A) Unmyelinated fibers
B) Neuron cell bodies
C) Myelinated fibers
D) Gyri
Q3) Which of the following functions are controlled by the cerebral cortex?
A) Intelligence
B) Language
C) Personality
D) Memory
E) All of the above
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) Identify body systems
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the organs of taste?
A) Taste buds
B) Organ of Corti
C) Papillae
D) Macula
Q2) The bending of light rays so that they can be focused on the retina is known as
A) Accommodation
B) Refraction
C) Photoreception
D) Visual acuity
Q3) Which of the following equalizes the pressure between the outside and the middle ear?
A) Tympanic membrane
B) Ear ossicles
C) Eustachian tube
D) Oval window
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q7) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
A) Growth hormone
B) Oxytocin
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
D) Luteinizing hormone
Q2) -physis
A)to secrete
B)in, within
C)nerve
D)to grow
E)hormone
F)gland
G)beneath, below
H)out, away from
Q3) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exocrine gland?
A) Sweat gland
B) Sebaceous gland
C) Pineal gland
D) Mammary gland
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary for red blood cell production?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) Folic acid
D) All of the above
Q2) Is the first leukocyte to respond to tissue damage
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q3) What is the name of the loose-fitting sac that encloses the heart?
A) Pericardium
B) Pleura
C) Endocardium
D) Peritoneum
Q4) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q5) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is pulmonary ventilation?
A) Removing carbon dioxide from the lungs
B) Yawning
C) Breathing
D) The exchange of oxygen between the blood and tissues
Q2) After the bronchi enter the lungs, they branch into smaller passages that terminate in
A) Alveolar ducts
B) Bronchioles
C) Alveoli
D) Secondary bronchi
Q3) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q4) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) What happens when there is an increase of carbon dioxide in the blood?
A) Decrease in rate and depth of breathing
B) Nothing
C) Increase in rate and depth of breathing
D) Temporary cessation of breathing
Q7) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The digestive tract is also known as the
A) Alimentary cavity
B) Peritoneum
C) Gastrointestinal tract
D) Mysentery
Q2) Which salivary glands are located on each side of the head, just in front of the ears?
A) Palatine
B) Parotid
C) Submandibular
D) Sublingual
Q3) What causes contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Gastrin
C) Presence of fat in the stomach
D) Secretin
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16
Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perirenal fat
A)Functional unit of the kidney
B)Large cavity in the central region of the kidney that collects urine as it is produced
C)Triangular-shaped regions of the kidney that appear striated
D)Part of the renal cortex that extends into the spaces between adjacent pyramids
E)Connective tissue that holds the kidney in place
F)Thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds each kidney
G)Tough fibrous connective tissue that encases each kidney
H)Indentation in the kidney
I)Outer reddish region of the kidney
J)Inner reddish brown region of the kidney
Q2) Which of the following is made up of three openings and is located on the floor of the urinary bladder?
A) Renal pyramid
B) Trigone
C) Calyx
D) Cortex
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following encircles the urethra?
A) Prostate gland
B) Bulbourethral glands
C) Ductus deferens
D) Ejaculatory duct
Q2) When an infant girl is born, which of the following cells are present in the ovaries?
A) Primitive germ cells
B) Oogonia
C) Primary oocytes
D) Secondary oocytes
Q3) The process of egg formation is known as
A) Menstruation
B) Oogenesis
C) Hemopoiesis
D) Oogonia
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18
Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely means of contracting hepatitis B in the health care setting is through
A) Contaminated food and water
B) Needlesticks and blood splashes
C) Handling contaminated equipment
D) Touching a patient infected with hepatitis B
Q2) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by a
A) Bacteria
B) Fungus
C) Parasite
D) Virus
Q3) What term is used to describe a microorganism that does NOT produce disease?
A) Sterile
B) Aseptic
C) Nonpathogen
D) Pathogen
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19
Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is
A) 320 °F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
B) 145 °F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
C) 212 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
D) 250 °F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
Q2) Sterilization strips should be positioned
A) On the bottom tray of the autoclave
B) On the top tray of the autoclave
C) In the center of the wrapped pack
D) On the outside of the pack
Q3) According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical?
A) Name of the chemical
B) Physical hazards of the chemical
C) Health hazards of the chemical
D) Storing and handling of the chemical
E) All of the above
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) Discuss requirements for responding to hazardous material disposal
Q6) Medical Law and Ethics
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the femoral pulse located?
A) In the posterior hip region
B) In the back of the knee
C) In the middle of the groin
D) On the anterior side of the neck
Q2) How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant?
A) ½ inch
B) ¼ inch
C) 1 inch
D) 1½ inches
Q3) Pulse oximetry provides the physician with information on
A) The rate and depth of respiration
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues
D) Circulation to the extremities
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane?
A) Otoscope
B) Ophthalmoscope
C) Stethoscope
D) Laryngoscope
Q2) The patient's height should be recorded in
A) Inches
B) Feet and inches
C) Centimeters
D) Meters
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) How should a patient be identified?
A) By phone number and address
B) By hair and eye color
C) By SSN
D) By name and date of birth
Q5) Discuss the role of cultural, social, and ethnic diversity in ethical performance of medical assisting practice
Page 22
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instrument used to measure
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q2) After performing an ear instillation, the patient is instructed to lie on the unaffected side to
A) Avoid pressure on the tympanic membrane
B) Allow complete distribution of the medication
C) Allow drainage of excess medication
D) Prevent dizziness
Q3) Identify body systems
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of the term ambulation?
A) Being confined to bed
B) The inability to walk
C) The ability to walk
D) Poor muscular coordination and balance
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Canes are used most frequently for individuals with
A) An amputated lower extremity
B) Weakness on one side of the body
C) Poor muscular coordination
D) Paralysis of the lower extremities
Q4) Walkers are used primarily by
A) Pediatric patients
B) Prenatal patients
C) Geriatric patients
D Psychiatric patients
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Terminology
Q2) The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to
A) Record weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results
B) Determine the presence of any concerns or problems
C) Determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy
D) Record the fetal heart tones and fundal height
E) All of the above
Q3) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q4) Cell
A)colp/o
B)dys-
C)ecto-
D)endo-
E)-scopy
F)gynec/o
G)men/o
H)nat/o
I)-ology
J)-orrhea
K)cyt/o
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first pediatric well-child visit is usually scheduled at A) 1 week
B) 1 month
C) 2 months
D) 4 months
Q2) Which of the following immunizations can be administered to a newborn?
A) Hepatitis B
B) DTaP
C) Polio
D) MMR
Q3) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) The resistance of the body to pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins is known as A) Immunization
B) Inflammation
C) Immunity
D) Contagious
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process?
A) A scab forms.
B) Scar tissue forms.
C) New skin is generated.
D) Bleeding is controlled.
Q2) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q3) Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter?
A) Surgical silk, 2-0
B) Surgical silk, 4-0
C) Surgical silk, 1
D) Surgical silk, 4
Q4) Discuss infection control procedures
Q5) Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique?
A) Holding a sterile article above waist level
B) Facing a sterile field
C) Reaching over a sterile field
D) Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q8) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An allergy skin test that is positive results in
A) Localized itching, erythema, induration
B) Generalized edema
C) Wheezing, rash, watery eyes
D) Localized bruising of the skin
Q2) Identify the classifications of medications, including desired effects, side effects, and adverse reactions
Q3) Erythema without induration occurring from a Mantoux test indicates
A) A negative reaction
B) A doubtful reaction
C) A positive reaction
D) An allergic reaction
Q4) What is the name of a drug preparation that is applied externally to produce a feeling of heat or warmth?
A) Spirit
B) Ointment
C) Liniment
D) Tincture
Q5) Identify measurement systems
Page 28
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to
A) Assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities
B) Evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain
C) Detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature
D) Assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker
E) All of the above
Q2) The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to
A) Dilate the bronchial tubes to increase airflow
B) Remove mucus from the bronchial tubes
C) Detect cardiac dysrhythmias
D) Assess lung functioning
Q3) How many leads are there on a standard electrocardiogram?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sigmoid colon
A)-ase
B)bi/o
C)colon/o
D)endo-
E)-opsy
F)ox/i
G)-scope
H)-scopy
I)sigmoid/o
Q2) The upper gastrointestinal (GI) radiographic examination is helpful in diagnosing
A) Tumors of the large intestine
B) Kidney stones
C) Hemorrhoids
D) GERD
E) All of the above
Q3) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q5) Medical Terminology Page 31
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for a control that is built into the test system?
A) External control
B) Standard
C) Proficiency control
D) Internal control
Q2) Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A) Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container
B) Talking in the laboratory
C) Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D) Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a CLIA-waived test?
A) Fecal occult blood testing
B) Urine pregnancy testing
C) Blood glucose determination
D) Microscopic analysis of urine sediment
Q4) What should be done if a control does not perform as expected?
A) Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved.
B) Perform patient testing as usual.
C) Perform calibration procedures.
D) Record results as invalid.
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Blood may normally be present in the urine because of
A) Pregnancy
B) Cystitis
C) Menstruation
D) Vigorous physical exercise
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Page 34
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Q1) Inflammation of
A)ante-
B)anti-
C)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in technique when selecting a vein for venipuncture?
A) Examining the antecubital veins of both arms
B) Using the thumb to palpate the vein
C) Determining the size and depth of the vein
D) Tracing the path of the vein
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Q1) Which of the following tests is NOT included in a CBC?
A) Differential white blood cell count
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Prothrombin time
E) Red and white blood cell counts
Q2) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
Q3) Which of the following causes a decrease in the red blood cell count?
A) Anemia
B) Hodgkin's disease
C) Leukemia
D) All of the above
Q4) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) With which of the following can a low hemoglobin reading NOT occur?
A) Anemia
B) Polycythemia
C) Leukemia
D) Severe hemorrhaging
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Q1) Anatomy and Physiology
Q2) The hemoglobin A<sub>1c</sub> test measures the
A) Average amount of glucose in the blood over a three-month period
B) Amount of hemoglobin in the blood
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Amount of glycogen in the body over a 30-day period
Q3) What hormone is required for the normal use of glucose in the body?
A) Insulin
B) Estrogen
C) Thyroxine
D) Bilirubin
Q4) What results are produced by a high-level control?
A) Results that fall below the reference range for the test
B) Invalid results
C) Results that fall above the reference range for the test
D) Negative results
Q5) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Q1) A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the extraneous microorganisms may
A) Change the pH of the specimen
B) Alter the morphology of the pathogens
C) Prevent visualization of the pathogen
D) Result in the death of any pathogens present
Q2) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q3) Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing?
A) Iris diaphragm
B) Coarse adjustment
C) Substage condenser
D) Fine adjustment
Q4) Which of the following microorganisms is identified by observing its motility under the microscope?
A) Candida albicans
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for a stroke?
A) Paraplegia
B) Transient ischemia
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Cerebrovascular accident
Q2) Which of the following snakes is poisonous?
A) Rattlesnake
B) Copperhead
C) Cottonmouth
D) Coral snake
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following should NOT be performed when providing emergency care?
A) Obtain information about what happened from bystanders.
B) Administer care to a conscious patient who refuses it.
C) Follow the OSHA standard.
D) Do not move the patient unnecessarily.
Q4) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q5) Discuss potential role(s) of the medical assistant in emergency preparednes
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q7) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the patient registration record?
A) Date of birth
B) Allergies
C) Employer
D) Patient's insurance company
Q2) What term is used to describe excessive perspiration?
A) Dehydration
B) Diaphoresis
C) Edema
D) Hyperemesis
Q3) What is a symptom?
A) Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data
B) Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease
C) The probable outcome of a disease
D) The scientific method of identifying a patient's condition
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics:
Q5) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulation as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
Q6) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q7) Describe various types of content maintained in a patient's medical record
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might the medical assistant prepare the telephone system for the day's activities?
A) Check the fax machine for faxes that have arrived overnight.
B) Notify the answering service that the office is open.
C) Place the handsets of all cordless phones into their chargers.
D) Turn on all office computers and printers.
Q2) Which of the following activities is the medical assistant likely to perform just as patients start arriving?
A) Prepare medical records for patients who will be seen that day.
B) Print appointment schedules for each physician.
C) Check the fax machine for faxes that may have arrived overnight.
D) Check the schedule to determine which physicians will be in the office that day.
Q3) The medical assistant should photocopy both sides of the patient's insurance card. A)True
B)False
Q4) Differentiate between legal, ethical, and moral issues affecting healthcare
Q5) Identify systems for organizing medical records
Q6) Describe procedures for implementing both managed care and insurance plans
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hard disk consists of thin, rigid platters made of metal or glass.
A)True
B)False
Q2) E-mail within the medical record may be called clinical messaging.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of hardware?
A) Monitor
B) Mouse
C) Keyboard
D) Printer
E) All of the above
Q4) How does a privacy filter work?
A) Logs the user out after one minute of inactivity
B) Increases glare when looking from above
C) Requires a password to make the screen visible
D) Blocks the screen image to anyone not directly in front of it
Q5) Explore the issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q6) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
Q7) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Qualities such as friendliness and concern or boredom and indifference are clearly communicated over the telephone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Call park allows storage of frequently called telephone numbers in the telephone system's memory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following calls is put through immediately to the doctor, even if the doctor is with a patient?
A) A laboratory reporting negative results
B) Another doctor to whom a referral was made
C) An angry patient who insists on speaking to the doctor
D) A caller who says that she will only speak with the physician
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) Organize technical information and summaries
Q6) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
Q7) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings To
Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Q1) Double-booking
A) Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B) An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time
C) Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day
D) An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients
E) A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive
F) Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours
Q2) Which of the following is NOT A guideline for appointment scheduling?
A) Concentrate on the person to whom you are speaking.
B) Repeat information back to the patient.
C) Speak quickly to save time when another patient is waiting.
D) Schedule the proper amount of time for the type of appointment.
Q3) Established patients are usually scheduled for 10-20 minutes for a sick visit.
A)True
B)False
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Page 44
Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a patient's surname?
A) First name
B) Last name
C) Middle initial
D) Professional title
Q2) What is used to hold the medical records if the medical office uses a paper medical record?
A) Vertical drawer file cabinets
B) Open-shelf filing units arranged horizontally
C) Shelf filing units with pull-down fronts
D) Lateral drawer file cabinets
E) All of the above
Q3) The medical record of a Medicare patient must be retained for at least ten years after the last contact with the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an alphabetic filing system, the name Helen Walker Durand would be filed after Helen Walker-Durand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about the margins of a business letter?
A) The top margin of a letter should be 2-2½ inches.
B) The side margins should be ¾ inch to 1 inch wide.
C) The bottom margin should be larger than the top margin.
D) The margins on all four sides of the letter should always be equal.
Q2) If the physician wants to use a printed title, such as "Professor of Medicine," in the closing of a letter, where would it be placed?
A) On the reference notation line
B) On the same line as the typed signature
C) Right-justified on the last line of the letter
D) On the line immediately below the typed signature
Q3) Where is the date line placed in the full block letter style?
A) Left-justified
B) Right-justified
C) On a tab at the center
D) On a tab to the right of the center
Q4) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
Q5) Recognize fundamental writing skills
Q6) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Page 46
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an optional attention line is used in addition to the recipient line, where should it be placed?
A) Just below the recipient line
B) As the top or first line of the address
C) Below and to the left of the recipient's address
D) Just below the return address in the upper left corner of the envelope
Q2) When is a postage meter more efficient than an online postage service?
A) If the office uses special services frequently
B) If the office often mails packages using parcel post
C) If the office mails a large volume of patient bills weekly
D) An online postage service is always more efficient than a postage meter
Q3) How does the medical office obtain a postage meter?
A) Purchase the meter from the local post office.
B) Purchase the meter from an approved vendor.
C) Rent or lease the meter from an approved vendor.
D) Rent or lease the meter from the local post office.
Q4) Some postage meters only print postage, whereas other types of postage meters and weigh letters, seal the envelopes and add postage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bookkeeping refers to the process of recording financial transactions, but accounting is a more general term used for the systematic recording and reporting of financial transactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genuine postal money orders contain a watermark that shows a picture of George Washington when held to the light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medical computer billing programs have been developed based on the pegboard system of bookkeeping.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss types of adjustments that may be made to a patient's account
Q5) Discuss precautions for accepting checks
Q6) A credit adjustment is a change to a patient's account that reduces the balance of a patient's account.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do insurance companies use diagnosis codes?
A) To determine the level of care received by the patient
B) To determine whether the patient was well taken care of
C) To decide whether the care given corresponds to the patient's disease
D) To decide whether there is adequate information in the medical record
Q2) In the ICD-10 code M84.50xA, what is the function of the "x"?
A) It is a placeholder for information that is not specified.
B) It makes the code more specific by indicating right or left.
C) It indicates whether it the visit is the initial visit, or a subsequent visit.
D) It determines the number of sites of involvement for the condition.
Q3) What is the purpose of external cause codes in the ICD-10?
A) They usually only contain four characters.
B) They are used as first-listed diagnosis codes.
C) They are used to gather statistics about causes and severity of injury.
D) They are required on insurance forms in order to obtain reimbursement.
Q4) In the CPT manual, a code that provides only text to replace the words after a semicolon in the code above it is called an indented code.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following insurance plans is not one of the choices available for spouses and dependents of active military personnel?
A) TRICARE Basic
B) TRICARE Extra
C) TRICARE Prime
D) TRICARE Standard
Q2) When is the physician reimbursed directly for his services by the insurance company?
A) Never
B) Always
C) If the patient has signed a written consent for treatment
D) If the patient has signed an assignment of benefits form
Q3) How much is the copayment or coinsurance that a patient with Medicaid must pay?
A) 20% coinsurance
B) $10 copayment
C) 20% and a $100 deductible
D) The patient with Medicaid does not pay anything
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Q1) What is overdraft protection?
A) An increase in the maximum amount for which a check may be written
B) An agreement that the bank will transfer money between accounts as needed
C) An extra review to prevent errors in calculating the balance of a bank account
D) A delay in cashing any check written on an account without adequate funds to cover it
Q2) What federal law contains restrictions about the way a debt collector can treat a debtor and prohibits harassment and threats against individuals who owe money?
A) Fair Debt Collection Act
B) Fair Credit Reporting Act
C) Federal Truth in Lending Act
D) Equal Credit Opportunity Act
Q3) What is the term used for the outstanding amount owed on a bill?
A) Balance due
B) Balance billing
C) Patient balance
D) Payment on account
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal tax
A) Employees withholding allowance certificate
B) Wage and Tax Statement provided annually before January 31
C) Money withheld from paycheck and paid to the federal government
D) Employment Eligibility Form
E) Money withheld from paycheck and paid to the state
F) 1.45% of employee wages matched by an additional 1.45% paid by the employer
G) Federal unemployment tax paid by the employer
H) Social Security tax to fund the U.S. retirement program
I) Amount of pay before deductions
J) Wages based on number of hours worked times hourly rate
K) Wages paid as fixed amount of money that does not depend on the number of hours worked
Q2) Regular safety inspections should include a review of storage for compressed gases, medications, and chemicals.
A)True
B)False
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Page 52
Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) What is stress?
A) An event that occurs without advance warning
B) Loss of self-worth and interest in day-to-day activities
C) The body's response to threat or change
D) An event that poses a serious threat to personal safety
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a manmade disaster?
A) Radiation incident
B) Hurricane
C) Fire
D) Terrorism
Q3) Which of the following does NOT occur when epinephrine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Decrease in blood pressure
B) Dilation of the pupils
C) Increased heart rate
D) Increased respiratory rate
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Q1) Jean would like to work at the medical facility where she is doing her practicum. Which action is most likely to lead to the offer of a permanent position?
A) Talking with her practicum coordinator
B) Letting the people in the department know how she feels
C) Talking with the people in the facility's human resources department
D) Trying to do everything she sees, even if she is not sure of the procedure
Q2) On a chronological résumé, a potential employer will assume that any gaps in employment for a woman can be attributed to staying home and raising children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What term used to describe the situation of an employee who has become disillusioned with his or her work and has lost interest in and enthusiasm about the job?
A) Conceit
B) Burnout
C) Boredom
D) Self-actualization
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54