Medical Records Management Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Medical Records Management explores the principles, practices, and technologies involved in maintaining, organizing, and securing patient health information within healthcare institutions. The course covers topics such as the creation and classification of medical records, legal and ethical considerations, privacy regulations like HIPAA, electronic health record (EHR) systems, retention and disposal guidelines, and quality assurance methods. Emphasis is placed on understanding the role of accurate documentation in patient care, billing, research, and compliance, as well as the impact of digital transformation in health information management.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those actions that identify the medical assistant as a member of a healthcare profession, including dependability, respectful patient care, initiative, positive attitude, and teamwork
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: C
Q2) According to the learning style inventory, which stage learners enjoy teaching others and working in groups and learn best when they can apply new information to real-world problems?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) The allied health specialist who performs ultrasound diagnostic procedures under the supervision of a physician is called a(n)
A) cytotechnologist.
B) diagnostic medical sonographer.
C) electroneurodiagnostic technologist.
D) perfusionist.
Answer: B
Q2) A standard is an item or indicator that is used as a measure of quality or compliance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q3) Which of the following is not a key feature of the medical home?
A) Comprehensive care
B) Patient-centered care
C) Inpatient services
D) Accessible services
E) Quality and safety
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients expect professional behavior and base much of their trust and confidence in those who exhibit this type of __________ in the medical office.
Answer: demeanor
Patients expect medical assistants to have a pleasant, professional demeanor.
Q2) Match diplomatic and tactful with the appropriate example (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide patient- and family-centered care
B) Accept responsibility for your failures or errors
C) Demonstrate interest in patients as individuals
D) Show sensitivity to the needs of healthcare team members
E) Consistently communicate politely and honestly
F) Always use proper grammar to demonstrate respect for the individual
G) Display positive nonverbal behaviors
H) Never misrepresent yourself or the medical practice
Answer: A, D, E
Q3) Patients are not concerned about the medical assistant's grooming and wardrobe.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) An innovative approach to plan, deliver, and evaluate healthcare that is grounded in mutually beneficial partnerships among healthcare providers, patients, and families is called _____________________.
Q2) Which statement is false with regard to the interpretation of gestures and body language that you may encounter among the patients in a medical setting?
A) They are less significant than verbal communication.
B) They vary widely in meaning.
C) Knowledge of them will influence patient relations.
D) They may require special accommodations.
Q3) Patients from other countries and cultures may need extra time to understand what is being said to them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Active listening is the skill of _____________ and clarifying what the speaker has said.
Q5) The perception of the receiver in communication is important.
A)True B)False
Q6) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following include compensation for pain and suffering?
A) Nominal damages
B) Punitive damages
C) Compensatory damages
D) General damages
E) Special damages
Q2) Match nonfeasance with the definition.
A) Failure to perform an act that should have been performed
B) Implies inattention to one's duty or business
C) The performance of an act that a reasonable and prudent provider would perform in a similar situation
D) Performing an act that is legal but not properly performed
E) Intentionally doing something either legally or morally wrong
Q3) Civil cases must be proven by a(n) __________ of the evidence.
Q4) A list of questions from one party in a lawsuit to another party in the lawsuit is called a(n)
A) deposition.
B) interrogatory.
C) petition.
D) response.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first step in the five-step process of ethical decision making is
A) determining the ethical approach to use.
B) gathering relevant information.
C) exploring the practical alternatives.
D) identifying the type of ethical problem.
Q2) Which statement best describes the practice of physicians waiving co-payments required by insurance companies?
A) The practice may violate insurers' policies if done routinely.
B) The practice is the best and most humane way to treat needy patients.
C) The practice is encouraged by insurance companies.
D) The practice encourages patients to take advantage of the medical payment system.
Q3) If the medical assistant believes that patient safety is at risk, he or she is legally responsible for reporting provider actions to the local authorities and the state Medical Board. Some states can prosecute individuals who file a false report.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Words that replace nouns so that they do not have to be repeated constantly are called
A) verbs.
B) prepositions.
C) pronouns.
D) interjections.
Q2) Which of the following is referred to as the "brains" of the computer?
A) CPU
B) RAM
C) ROM
D) HDD
E) SSD
Q3) System software and application software have the same meaning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an output device?
A) Printer
B) Scanner
C) Light pen
D) Keyboard
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of calls should be limited in the professional setting?
A) Local
B) Long distance
C) Toll free
D) Personal
Q2) Answering services can be used for which of the following?
A) Cover the telephone if all staff members need to be away at the same time
B) Buffer and screen after-hours calls
C) Act as the first point of contact with the practice
D) Take messages
E) Both A and B
Q3) The technical terminology or characteristic idiom of a particular group is called
A) salutation.
B) monotone.
C) jargon.
D) enunciation.
Q4) When dealing with an emergency call, the medical assistant should never __________ until help has reached the patient.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Journals for physicians may not be displayed as reading material in the reception area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The office should not keep any types of toys in the reception area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The way to organize appointment scheduling so that it best supports the success of the practice is to
A) schedule as many patients as possible throughout the entire day.
B) allow frequent rest breaks.
C) include a lot of time for the physician's administrative activities.
D) consider the preferences of the physician.
Q4) When patients need a series of appointments, it is best to
A) schedule them individually.
B) let the patient call when he or she is ready to come in.
C) try to set the appointments for the same day of the week at the same time.
D) use any method of scheduling; they will all be effective.
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Q5) Patients who are returning to the office and have previously seen the physician are called _____________________.
Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inventory management involves tracking inventory and identifying the quantity of product to purchase. The goal of inventory management is to have adequate supplies on hand to use in the healthcare facility, yet not have too much stock that will expire or take a long time to use.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) When new stock is added, it should be placed
A) at the front.
B) in the middle.
C) in the back.
D) wherever it will fit.
Q3) Leasing equipment, such as copiers, often proves to be more expensive than purchasing the equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
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Q5) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ information is observed by the physician.
Q2) Disadvantages of the EHR system include A) cost.
B) training time.
C) learning curve.
D) All of the above
Q3) Which section of the law, commonly known as the Economic Stimulus Package, pertains to healthcare?
A) ARRA
B) HITECH Act
C) HIPAA
D) None of the above
Q4) Because some physicians' handwriting is illegible, the electronic health record helps guarantee that the documents will be readable even several years after their creation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The concise account of the patient's symptoms in his or her own words is the __________.
Q6) Additional training on the EHR system is needed to run it at full __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ are notes included in the Tabular Index to provide additional guidance for selected diagnosis codes.
Q2) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following terms applies to the period from the last month of pregnancy to 5 months after giving birth?
A) Antepartum
B) Childbirth
C) Postpartum
D) Peripartum
Q4) A code from category Z37 should be included on A) every maternal record when a delivery has occurred.
B) subsequent records.
C) newborn records.
D) Both A and B
Q5) The medical assistant should never code a patient as having __________ unless it is clearly documented as confirmed in the medical record.
Q6) The signs and symptoms of a disease are its __________.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total splenectomy
A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100
Q2) Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.
Q3) Cyanide
A) 82595
B) 82600
C) 82615
D) 82530
Q4) An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?
A) Alphabetic index
B) Tabular list
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B
Q5) Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) A new or experimental procedure or service code is a category __________ code.
Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The federal- and state-sponsored health insurance program for the medically indigent is called
A) Medicare.
B) Medicaid.
C) Medigap.
D) MediCal.
Q2) The "cafeteria-style" plan allows employers to choose the benefits they want for their respective employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following expenses would be paid by Medicare Part B?
A) Inpatient hospital charges
B) Hospice services
C) Physician's office visits
D) Home healthcare charges
Q4) Nearly all of the physician's income is derived from the insurance payments received for services rendered.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should always follow office __________ for claim review and signatures.
Q2) Insurance information should be collected on the first visit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a fixed amount per visit and is typically paid at the time of medical services?
A) Co-payment
B) Deductible
C) Co-insurance
D) Both A and B
Q4) A secondary health plan is noted in which block?
A) 11a
B) 11b
C) 11c
D) 11d
Q5) Electronic claims are submitted via electronic media.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Secondary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Payments to the healthcare facility come as reimbursement from the insurance company only. Adjustments are made to a patient's account when it is necessary to add or subtract a patient payment from the balance.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) A system of recording, classifying, and summarizing financial transactions is called A) bookkeeping.
B) accounting.
C) accruing.
D) depreciation.
Q3) The STARK law imposes restrictions on which of the following?
A) Medicare Advance Beneficiary Notices
B) Professional courtesy
C) Fee for service
D) Billing minors
Q4) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q5) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician charges $450 for a procedure, and the patient pays one third of the total by check. For what amount is the check written?
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the four types of endorsements?
A) Blank
B) Quality
C) Restrictive
D) Special
Q3) Many banks offer applications that can be downloaded for free on smart phones and computers that will let the user deposit checks from any location.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following digits in an RTN represent the individual bank identification number?
A) First two digits
B) Third digit
C) Last six digits
D) All nine digits
Q5) For individuals to be __________, a personal background investigation normally is necessary.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrinsic motivation is more difficult to discover than extrinsic motivation but is longer lasting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How often should staff development meetings be held to ensure compliance in using health information technologies and ensure the safety of patient health information?
A) Weekly
B) Monthly
C) Quarterly
D) Yearly
Q4) When employees do not leave their employment over a long period of time, the office is said to have good employee ______________.
Q5) Successful managers know that their employees should be encouraged to perform at ____________ levels.
Q6) No supervisor enjoys giving a(n) ____________ that is less than positive.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) Patients should be treated the same way as the medical assistant would want to be treated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The provider's _____________ of the practice of medicine greatly influences the office's mission statement.
Q3) Medical assistants should not be expected to provide good customer service along with their other duties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order for the search engine to pick up the website, the web designer includes appropriate key words in the website developer code. Key words and code should be updated on a regular basis by medical office management.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q5) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
Q6) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule.
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the CDC, proper hand hygiene must be performed in all the following instances except
A) before and after contact with the patient.
B) before performing an aseptic task.
C) after contact with blood, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces.
D) when hands move from a clean body site to a contaminated body site during patient care.
Q2) Which of the following terms defines the destruction of disease-causing organisms after they leave the body?
A) Asepsis
B) Medical asepsis
C) Surgical asepsis
D) Compromised asepsis
Q3) Most pathogenic microorganisms prefer a neutral pH for optimum growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rosa is responsible for administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a new employee.
Describe the immunization schedule for this vaccine.
Q5) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial diagnosis made by the physician after completion of the physical examination is the differential diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When writing in a paper record and an error is made, which of the following document guidelines is acceptable?
A) Scribble out error.
B) Use whiteout to cover up the error.
C) Erase the error.
D) Draw a line through the error.
Q3) Define open-ended and closed questions and statements and provide an example of each.
Q4) Which of the following includes demographic information?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q5) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
Q6) Describe the four sections of the POMR.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The holistic model suggests that patient education should consider all aspects of the patient's life, including the person's __________, emotional, social, economic, and spiritual needs.
Q2) Which of the following is not a guideline to follow when developing or ordering educational supplies?
A) Material should be written using lay language at the sixth- to eighth-grade level.
B) Information should be well organized.
C) The medical assistant should check for accuracy.
D) The material should promote specific pharmaceutical companies.
Q3) Depression is not a normal part of the grief process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the role of the medical assistant as the patient educator.
Q5) Family members of an adult patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus do not need to be involved in patient education.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ is a comprehensive Internet site for accurate healthcare information.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods contains a significant amount of carbohydrates?
A) Milk
B) Eggs
C) Spinach
D) Chicken
Q2) Diverticulosis can be treated with a diet high in soluble fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Examples of nutritionally balanced, complete protein combinations include all of the following except
A) black beans and rice.
B) whole-grain peanut butter sandwich.
C) pasta with tomato sauce.
D) whole-wheat cereal with walnuts.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of minerals in the body?
A) Prevent cell membrane damage
B) Contribute to water-electrolyte acid-base balance
C) Regulate muscular and nervous activities
D) Regulate blood clotting and heart rhythm
Q5) Vitamins or nutrients that can be created by the body are called __________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) As a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the first tapping sound is the ______ pressure. A) mean arterial
B) systolic
C) diastolic
D) pulse
Q2) The medical term for an oral temperature above 99.5° F is A) hyperpnea. B) pyrexia. C) pyuria. D) empyema.
Q3) Dr. Xu is investigating the purchase of educational materials that explain the revised treatment guidelines for patients diagnosed with essential hypertension. She has asked you to review the brochures to make sure the one chosen includes complete details about the guidelines in a format that patients can understand. Describe in detail the four basic aspects of the revised guidelines that should be included in the patient education materials.
Q4) A patient with elevated blood pressure associated with alcoholism would be diagnosed with __________ hypertension.
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26
Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) What is used to examine the interior of the eye, including the retina and intraocular vessels?
A) Ophthalmoscope
B) Otoscope
C) Palpation
D) Stethoscope
Q2) __________ is a method of examination that uses tapping or striking the body with fingers or a small hammer to determine alterations in sound or vibration.
Q3) When preparing a patient for a physical examination, the medical assistant is responsible for all of the following except
A) providing the patient with a gown and instructions on how to wear it.
B) making sure the patient has emptied the bladder.
C) providing refill prescriptions as needed.
D) measuring and recording vital signs.
Q4) An otorhinolaryngologist is a physician who specializes in what area?
A) Ear and throat
B) Eye, ear, and throat
C) Eye, ear, and nose
D) Ear, nose, and throat
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) In monitoring a patient for hypersensitivity to antibiotics, the medical assistant should observe for urticaria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Metabolism for oral medications begins in which organ before distribution?
A) Small intestine
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Bloodstream
Q3) The abbreviation for "at bedtime" is
A) Ac.
B) Pc.
C) Hs.
D) Prn.
Q4) Kathy is taking a medication history from an elderly patient who has been prescribed multiple medications by his PCP as well as several specialists. During the history, Kathy discovers the patient also takes a number of OTC drugs. What patient education information about OTC drugs should Kathy share with this patient?
Q5) __________ medications are used to delay or block blood clot formation.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decimal numbers can be converted to percentages by?
A) Dividing the number by 100
B) Moving the decimal point two spaces to the right
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Q2) When calculating dosage based on body weight, which step is to calculate a single dose of the drug based on how frequently the medication is to be given throughout the day?
A) Step 1
B) Step 2
C) Step 3
D) Step 4
Q3) With the standard formula, the "ordered strength" of a drug is the amount of the drug identified on the label.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ system of measurement is the most common measurement system used in pharmacology throughout the world.
Q5) The fraction 9/8 is an example of a(n) __________ fraction.
Q6) Always in a proportion, the problem is solved by __________.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) An IM injection given at the dorsogluteal site is administered into the gluteus maximus muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following liquid oral dosage forms is a mixture of oil and water that improves the taste of otherwise distasteful products?
A) Syrup
B) Emulsion
C) Gel
D) Magma
Q3) Dorothy is ordered to administer an IM medication; this requires what route of administration?
A) Inhalation
B) sl
C) Buccal
D) Parenteral
Q4) Dorothy is responsible for making sure patients understand their drug therapy before they leave Dr. Thau's office. Discuss at least five factors she should include when delivering patient education.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) A patient with ecchymosis shows evidence of bruising and discoloration of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________ is used for congestive heart failure.
A) Lanoxin
B) Epinephrine
C) Lidocaine
D) Syrup of ipecac
E) Valium
Q3) The mother of a 10-year-old boy with diabetes type 1 calls, very concerned about her son. He has been sick for 2 days with a fever and loss of appetite, and he now is very lethargic and is vomiting, and his breath smells fruity. What health emergency may be developing?
A) Insulin shock
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Diabetic coma
D) Septicemia
Q4) An AED may save the life of a victim in cardiac arrest. Describe how to apply the AED equipment and perform this skill.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following professionals can perform eye examinations, diagnose eye disorders, and perform optic surgery?
A) Ophthalmologist
B) Optometrist
C) Optician
D) All of the above
Q2) A miotic medication causes the pupil to constrict.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true about the aqueous humor of the eye?
A) It is located in the anterior cavity of the eye between the cornea and the lens.
B) It helps maintain normal pressure in the eye.
C) It is continuously produced by the ciliary processes to nourish tissues.
D) All of the above are true.
Q4) Color is interpreted in the retina through specialized structures called cones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Summarize the method of instilling eye drops.
Q6) A form of strabismus seen in young children is __________.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one of the principal functions of the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
A) It provides insulation for the body.
B) It produces oil to soften and protect the skin.
C) It houses the sweat glands that function as temperature regulators.
D) It synthesizes vitamin D.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with herpes simplex may be prescribed which of the following medications?
A) Prednisone
B) Valtrex
C) Bacitracin topical
D) Keflex
Q3) Herpes zoster can cause long-term pain after the skin inflammation has resolved; this condition is called ______________.
Q4) What major preventive action can patients take to prevent malignant neoplasms?
A) Use tanning beds rather than direct sun.
B) Use lotions with a high SPF.
C) Refrain from picking at acne lesions.
D) Avoid direct contact with infected individuals.
Q5) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis carriers can be asymptomatic but infectious.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient reporting abdominal pain points to the area of the stomach; what would you note in the chart to indicate this location?
A) LLQ
B) LUQ
C) RLQ
D) RUQ
Q3) Advanced cirrhosis of the liver can lead to portal hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hepatitis can be caused only by infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ are varicose veins of the anus and rectum.
Q6) Hemorrhoids are the enlargement of veins either internally or externally in the rectal area.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) Part of the patient preparation for a cystoscopy is bowel cleansing to prevent interference from feces in the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Renal scanning is contraindicated in which of the following patients?
A) Child with Wilms' tumor
B) Pregnant woman
C) Patient with chronic UTIs
D) Patient with an iodine allergy
Q3) Testicular tumors generally are benign.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the order of occurrence, the three processes that result in urine formation are
A) medullary filtration, reabsorption, and transference.
B) glomerular filtration, reabsorption in the medulla, and excretion in the ureters.
C) filtration, reabsorption, and excretion in the nephron unit.
D) reabsorption, filtration, and excretion into the renal pelvis.
Q5) ____________ is marked by hypertension and anuria.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) OCPs can be used to treat which of the following conditions?
A) Anovulation
B) Prevention of ovarian cysts
C) Polycystic ovaries
D) All of the above
Q2) Of the four hormones that control the mammary glands, which hormone stimulates the development of the duct system?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
Q3) Effacement is the opening of the cervix that occurs during the birth process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gardasil is an immunization available for women previously infected by HPV to prevent reinfection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pregnancy is confirmed when the hormone __________ is found in the urine.
Q6) The medical term for the act or process of giving birth is _____________.
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are responsible for making sure parents receive VIS forms when children are scheduled for immunizations. Summarize the guidelines for the use of these forms, including documentation procedures for the administration of vaccines.
Q2) _______________ is the medical term for the spaces covered by thick membranes between the sutures of an infant's skull.
Q3) The goals of treatment for cystic fibrosis are to prevent bronchial obstruction and to treat malabsorption of nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A buildup of fluid in the middle ear is called ___________ otitis media.
Q5) Rescue inhalers are used for short-term prevention of bronchospasms in children. A)True
B)False
Q6) Infants are expected to triple their birth weight within 6 months.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Overweight and obese children may have sleep apnea.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) A goniometer is used in the orthopedic examination to measure
A) muscular strength.
B) gait.
C) spinal curves.
D) joint range of motion.
Q2) A(n) __________ unit can play an integral role in the management of chronic pain.
Q3) A patient diagnosed with mild bone loss has ______________.
Q4) With therapeutic ultrasonography, the applicator should be focused directly over the affected bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following injuries results in an overstretching of a muscle or tendon?
A) Muscle spasm
B) Sprain
C) Strain
D) Fracture
Q6) Both bursae and joint capsules contain ______________, which nourishes joint surfaces and allows for free movement of the joint.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not true of TIAs?
A) They result from short-term ischemic episodes.
B) They may be precursors to a CVA.
C) They cause permanent neurologic dysfunction.
D) They indicate the need for comprehensive diagnostic evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following systems promotes responses geared toward protecting the individual ("fight or flight")?
A) Autonomic nervous system
B) Sympathetic system
C) Parasympathetic system
D) Central nervous system
Q3) Peripheral neuropathy is frequently seen in patients with what other health problem?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Meningitis
D) A secondary brain tumor
Q4) __________ continues to be the fourth-leading cause of death and the most frequent cause of crippling disease in the United States.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symlin is an injectable drug that may be prescribed to patients with diabetes type 2 to prevent a rapid increase in blood glucose levels after eating.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients with hypothyroidism must take which of the following medications?
A) Levoxyl
B) Novolin
C) Symlin
D) Prandin
Q3) Hypersecretion of GH in adulthood is called __________.
Q4) __________ is released by the anterior pituitary and stimulates the production of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex.
Q5) A patient with diabetes type 2 may have signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. List five questions you might ask to document the patient's condition accurately.
Q6) Patients with diabetes __________ stop producing insulin in the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
Q7) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
Q8) __________ results in fruity-smelling breath.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which location of sinusitis is typically associated with pain or discomfort in the upper jaw and teeth?
A) Frontal sinuses
B) Maxillary sinuses
C) Ethmoid sinuses
D) Sphenoid sinuses
Q2) A positive TB test result indicates that the patient is in the primary infection stage of the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The symptoms of an asthma attack include
A) nonproductive cough.
B) hemoptysis.
C) inspiratory wheezing.
D) rhinorrhea.
Q4) Which respiratory action is initiated by a signal from the medulla oblongata?
A) Expiration
B) Inspiration
C) Ventilation
D) Exhalation
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases develops because of widespread atherosclerotic plaque buildup in the arteries outside the heart, especially in the legs?
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Aneurysm
D) Peripheral arterial disease
Q2) A Doppler study uses a sonographic beam that picks up the speed of WBCs in the arteries tested.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Echocardiography is used in the diagnosis of incompetent cardiac valves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients with __________ must pay particular attention to a sudden weight gain.
Q5) A bruit may be palpated over the site of an abdominal aneurysm.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Chronic hypertension may result in left ventricular __________.
Q7) A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to an area is called _________.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a medical assistant working in a primary care practice, you should be aware of the possible signs of elder abuse. Summarize four of them.
Q2) Memantine (Namenda) is frequently used to treat __________.
Q3) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of diabetes in the elderly?
A) Slow wound healing
B) Cough
C) Weight loss
D) Polyuria
Q4) Which of the following changes in the aging patient are directly related to the individual's activity level?
A) Height
B) Weight
C) Muscular
D) Skeletal
Q5) Aging persons are more susceptible to heat stroke because
A) lack of exercise reduces heat loss through sweat.
B) the number of sweat glands decreases over time.
C) the blood supply to the dermis increases with aging.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following leads is placed in the fifth intercostal space, at the left midclavicular line?
A) V<sub>1</sub>
B) V<sub>2</sub>
C) V<sub>3</sub>
D) V<sub>4</sub>
E) V<sub>5</sub>
Q2) PACs may be recorded in patients who smoke or consume large quantities of caffeine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ECG paper has horizontal and vertical lines at __________ intervals.
Q4) Which of the following leads records tracings between the left arm and left leg, which reflects the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle?
A) Lead I
B) Lead II
C) Lead III
D) Lead IV
Q5) The __________ on an ECG machine creates the image on the ECG paper.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) The collimator uses a shielded device to limit the amount of radiation exposure to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following occurs when an x-ray strikes something and bounces in different directions?
A) Primary radiation
B) Secondary radiation
C) Remnant radiation
D) Scatter radiation
Q3) DEXA scanners are used for which of the following?
A) Evaluate bone density of the hip
B) Diagnose cancerous tumors
C) Evaluate blood flow to the heart
D) Determine the sex of the fetus
E) Diagnose herniated intervertebral disks
Q4) Blood cells and blood-producing cells are very sensitive to radiation exposure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Balancing a centrifuge requires that all tubes in the load
A) have an equal amount of liquid of the same viscosity.
B) are of equal size and shape.
C) have a partner directly across in the rotor holder.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which type of specimen must be chilled if testing will not be performed immediately?
A) Blood
B) Urine
C) Semen
D) All of the above
Q3) Patient samples are tested in the medical laboratory to determine whether test results are within a certain reference range.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A portion of a well-mixed sample that is removed for testing is called a(n)
A) aliquot.
B) analyte.
C) diluent.
D) exudate.
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following urine specimens are used in diabetes screening and for home diabetes testing programs?
A) Random specimens
B) First morning specimens
C) 2-hour postprandial urine specimens
D) 24-hour urine specimens
Q2) One of the first detectable signs of renal disease is
A) hematuria.
B) pyuria.
C) proteinuria.
D) myoglobinuria.
Q3) You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor. Which test result do you expect to be elevated on chemical analysis?
A) Protein
B) Urobilinogen
C) Ketones
D) Bilirubin
Q4) __________ are the end-products of fat metabolism and are detected in the urine samples of patients with uncontrolled diabetes.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The needle size most commonly used for adult venipuncture is _____ gauge.
A) 18
B) 10
C) 12
D) 21
Q2) The typical site for a capillary puncture on an infant is the medial or lateral side of the __________.
Q3) The NCCLS has recommended that a red-topped "waste" tube be drawn before a light blue-topped Vacutainer tube, because thromboplastin released from cells during the venipuncture can interfere with coagulation tests.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A tourniquet is used during the phlebotomy procedure to A) collapse the artery.
B) prevent venous flow out of the site.
C) cause the vein to bulge.
D) B and C.
E) All of the above
Q5) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
Page 48
Q6) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures the PT according to the time it takes the blood to form a fibrin clot?
A) ESR
B) Hgb determination
C) CLIA-waived
D) CBC
Q2) Which of the following is an abnormal value for a differential?
A) 50% to 65% segmented neutrophils
B) 0% to 7% band neutrophils
C) 25% to 40% lymphocytes
D) 50% to 70% basophils
Q3) The buffy coat
A) is a layer of thrombocytes between the plasma and cells in a centrifuged microhematocrit tube.
B) can be seen in a centrifuged microhematocrit tube but not in a centrifuged Vacutainer tube.
C) is white.
D) is removed for Wright's staining during the differential portion of the CBC.
Q4) Blowing on a blood slide smear to help it dry quickly can cause __________ to form.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are members of a class of invertebrate animals that includes insects, crustaceans, and arachnids.
Q2) Diagnosis of a helminth infection requires a A) stool sample for culture on differential media.
B) stool sample for O&P examination.
C) skin biopsy specimen for fluorescent testing.
D) blood sample for tissue culture.
Q3) The Gram reaction a bacterium exhibits is the result of its A) cell membrane phospholipids.
B) cell wall peptidoglycan.
C) gelatinous capsule.
D) waxlike cell wall lipids.
Q4) Microscopically, a sputum specimen containing positive AFB appears A) pink.
B) blue.
C) purple.
D) green.
Q5) A viral cell invades a host cell and uses its ______________, including carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, to reproduce.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ratchets are used to lock an instrument into position.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Opening or widening the circumference of a body orifice (e.g., the cervix) with a surgical instrument is called ___________.
Q3) Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and explain the purpose of at least four supplies that may be used in a minor surgical procedure.
Q5) Suture scissors have a beak or hook tip that can slide under the suture for removal. A)True
B)False
Q6) A probe is used to search for foreign objects in a wound. A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the proper care of surgical instruments.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoclave wrapping material must be __________ so that steam can circulate around the instruments.
Q2) Techniques for medical asepsis create a sterile environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) __________ is a wound that appears jagged and irregular and is usually caused by trauma.
Q4) __________ is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life.
Q5) In __________, a high-frequency current is used to cut through tissue and seal blood vessels.
Q6) Under which of the following post-operative conditions should a patient call the office immediately?
A) Redness around the operative site
B) Bleeding from the wound
C) Fever or swelling
D) Increasing or severe pain
E) All of the above
Q7) Sterile technique should be used for venipuncture.
A)True
B)False Page 52
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should make every effort not to miss a day of work during the probationary period.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Having a clear, decisive relevance to the matter at hand is being __________.
Q3) Newspaper ads for available positions usually produce only a few applications or résumés.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transferable skills, such as the ability to communicate effectively, can be taken from one job to another.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is helpful to conduct __________ interviews for practice.
Q6) The requirements for a specific job should be compared with the __________ listed on the medical assistant's résumé.
Q7) Never list salary __________ on the résumé.
Q8) __________ with employers should begin before graduation.
Q9) Follow-up calls should be limited to no more than __________ per week.
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